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Clinical Skills > Peds Exam Facts > Flashcards

Peds Exam Facts Flashcards

1
Q

what is the definition of neonatal period?

A

0-28 days

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2
Q

what is the definition of the postnatal period?

A

29 days to 1 year

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3
Q

when is the first exam of a newborn? how about the second?

A

First exam: delivery

2nd exam: within 48 hours of discharge at PCP (esp if less than 48 hrs in hospital)

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4
Q

what are the regular intervals for check-ups?

A

follow-up with PCP within 48 hrs of D/C, 1 mo, 2 mo, 4 mo, 6 mo, 9 mo, 1 yr, 15 mo, 18 mo, 2 yr, 30 mo, 3 yr, after 3 yr, every year through adolescence

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5
Q

what five things does the apgar score look at?

A

HR, RR, muscle tone, reflex irritability, color

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6
Q

how do you check apgar? what does the final score mean?

A

at one minute after birth, and then 5 minutes
1 min: 8-10 normal, 5-7 some nervous system depression, 0-4 severe depression, immediate resuscitation
5 min: 8-10 normal, 0-7 is high risk for CNS or other organ system dysfunction

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7
Q

what are the three main things that can cause a low apgar score?

A

difficult birth, c section, fluid in baby’s airway

**often a low score at 1 min will resolve by 5 mins, does not predict long term health problems

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8
Q

how to score apgar?

A

Color: 0 for blue/pale, 1 for body pink/extr blue, 2 all pink
HR: absent 0, less than 100 is 1, 2 is more than 100
RR: 0 is absent, 1 is weak cry/irreg breathing, 2 is good crying/reg breathing
Muscle tone: 0 is limp, 1 is bending of some limbs, 2 is active motion/flexed limbs
Reflex irritability: 0 is absent, 1 is grimace, 2 is grimace and cough or sneeze

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9
Q

what week range is considered term gestation?

A

37-42 weeks

*therefore, premature is before 37 weeks (late preterm 34-36), and post term is over 42 weeks

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10
Q

what week gestation do you screen for Group B strep?

A

36 or 37 weeks

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11
Q

what is a normal birth weight?

A

at or >2,500 grams (about 5.5 lbs)

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12
Q

in terms of a growth chart, what percentile is considered small for gestational age? normal or large?

A

small is under 10 percent
normal 10-90th percent
large over 90 percent

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13
Q

what age range is considered an infant?

A

birth to one year

birth to 28 days- neonatal, postnatal 29-1yr

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14
Q

what ages are considered early childhood? middle childhood? late childhood?

A

Early: 1-4 yrs
Middle: 5-10 yrs
Late: early 10-14 yrs, middle 15-17 yrs, later 18-21 yrs

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15
Q

birth weight changes within first 10 days of birth?

A

drop weight by 10%, gain it back by two weeks

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16
Q

by one year old, how should birth weight and height change?

A

birth weight should triple; height should increase by 50%

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17
Q

how is language development during the first year?

A

2 months- cooing
6 months- babbling
1 yr- 1 to 3 words

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18
Q

normal pulse for neonate, 1-6 mo, and 6-12 mo

A

neonate: 90-190
1-6 mo: 80-180
6-12 mo: 75-155

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19
Q

what is considered tachypnea in a kid under 1 year?

A

birth to 2 mo: > 60

2-12 mo: >50

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20
Q

how can a fever in an infant impact respirations?

A

can raise RR in in infants up to 10 RR/min for EACH degree centigrate of fever

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21
Q

what age range should you use rectal temperature to assess temp?

A

0-2 mo

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22
Q

what is the physical exam finding of congenital heart disease in an infant?

A

central cyanosis (MUCUS membranes- lips)

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23
Q

what are mongolian spots?

A
  • dark or blue pigment over buttocks/lower lumbar areas
  • benign and usually disappear in childhood
  • MC in african, asian, and mediterrean descent
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24
Q

what are mongolian spots?

A
  • dark or blue pigment over buttocks/lower lumbar areas
  • benign and usually disappear in childhood
  • MC in African, Asian, and Mediterranean descent
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25
Q

what is lanugo?

A
  • fine, downy hair over entire body that infants have (more at shoulders and back)
  • sheds within first few wks
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26
Q

describe pattern of jaundice in babies. how do you test this?

A

Normal physiologic jaundice that starts 2-3 day of life, peaks at 5 days, and usually gone within a week; test this by blanching the skin (make skin taut and see yellowing)

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27
Q

where is the anterior fontanelle located and when does it close?

A

between the coronal and sagittal suture lines; closes between 4-26 mo (usually 7-19 mo)

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28
Q

where is the posterior fontanelle located and when does it close?

A

between the sagittal and lambdodial sutures; closes by 2 months

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29
Q

what is plagiocephaly?

A

deformity in the cranial vault usually from dependent position on head (depresses head); improve this by promoting tummy time or pressure off site

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30
Q

what is the red reflex?

A

when looking into the retina of a young child’s eye, there should be a red reflex (NOT WHITE)?? white is a sign of retinoblastoma

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31
Q

which way do you pull pinna in an infant in order to see the TM?

A

downward

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32
Q

what is choanal atresia?

A

congenital issue; narrowing or blockage of nasal airway by tissue; why you check for nasal patency in infants

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33
Q

what two sinuses are present at birth?

A

maxillary and ethmoid

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34
Q

when does tooth development start? what teeth usually erupt first?

A

1 tooth per month for 6-26 months of age; central and lateral incisors erupt first, molars last
**usually all baby teeth present by age 3

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35
Q

what are three signs that show an infant has increased work of breathing?

A

nasal flaring, grunting, retractions (supraclavicular, intercostal, subcostal)

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36
Q

why are breasts enlarged in newborns?

A

maternal estrogen increases the size

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37
Q

when are the umbilical cord remnents gone?

A

usually by 2 weeks

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38
Q

when does cryptochordism usually resolve?

A

by one year

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39
Q

what do you have to check for on the back of an infant?

A

sinus tracks within 1 cm or so of the midline

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40
Q

when are bowlegged legs considered abnormal?

A

over 18 months

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41
Q

describe how to perform ortolani and barlow. what are these tests used for?

A

ortolani- tossing salad (up and out)
barlow- down and in (adduction of hip)
* tests used to check for hip dislocation

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42
Q

what are bulging out or sinking in fontanelles indicative of?

A

bulging- increased ICP

sunken in- dehydration

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43
Q

how does language transform over 1 yr to 4 yo?

A

18 mo- 10 words
2 yrs: 2-3 word sentences
3 yrs: can converse?
4 yrs: form complex sentences

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44
Q

what are the HR ranges for 1-2 yo, 2-6 yo, and 6-10 years old

A

1-2: 70-150
2-6: 68-138
6-10: 65-125

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45
Q

for childhood, what is considered normal BP?

A

<90th percentile

hypertensive >95th percentile

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46
Q

when do you start measuring blood pressure?

A

at age 3

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47
Q

are knocked knees common in children?

A

18 mo to 9-10 years old knocked knees are common; max at age 3-4

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48
Q

when do the sphenoid and frontal sinuses present?

A

sphenoid: age 8
frontal: 6-7

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49
Q

Female puberty: what ages do the following occur? breast growth, pubic hair growth, body growth, first period, underarm hair, acne

A 
breast growth: 7-13
pubic hair: 7-14
body growth: 9.5-14.5
first period: 10-16.5
underarm hair/acne: 2 years after pubic hair
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50
Q

Male puberty: what ages do the following occur? testicles/scrotal sac, pubic hair growth, body growth, growth of penis, change in voice, underarm/facial hair, acne

A 
testicles and scrotal sac: 10-13.5
growth of pubic hair: 10-15
body growth: 10.5-16.5
penis growth/voice change: 11-14.5
face/underarm hair and acne: 2 yrs after pubic hair
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51
Q

DM: Birth

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A 
Gross motor: no head control 
Fine motor: visually fixed
Language: none
Social: none
Safety/AG: vitamin K, eye ABX proph for untreated gonorrhea, hearing screen, jaundice, fever > 100.4,  crib safety, diaper area care, infant car seat, postpartum depression
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52
Q

DM: 1 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: raises head from prone
Fine motor: eyes follow to midline, tight grasp (hands closed)
Language: alert to sound, spontaneous smile
Social: face regard
Safety/AG: FT infants regain body weight by 2 weeks, vitamin D if breast fed, discuss colic

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53
Q

DM: 2 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: holds head in midline, lifts chest up when prone
Fine motor: eyes follow past midline (180 degree), hands open 50% of the time
Language: smiles in response, could start cooing
Social: recognizes parent, social smile
Safety/AG: fever = 102, SPF 15 when in sun, avoid being in sun (until at least 6 mo)

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54
Q

DM: 4 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: rolls over, supports on wrists, shifts weight, no head lag when pull to sit
Fine motor: conjugate gaze, reaches with arms in unison, brings hands to midline, hands open 75% of time
Language: laughs, orients to voice
Social: enjoys looking around
Safety/AG: put down to sleep, awake/bedtime routine, introduce solid food (no honey or corn syrup until 1 year), no walkers

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55
Q

DM: 6 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: sits up, rolls over in both directions, puts feet in mouth in supine position
Fine motor: unilateral reach, raking grasp, transfers objects hand to hand
Language: may babble, turns to sound/voice, lateral orientation to bell
Social: recognizes people as strangers, feed self ( 5mo)
Safety/AG: double birth weight, parachute reflex (6-9 mo), child proof home

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56
Q

DM: 9 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: pivot when sitting, crawls well, pulls to stand, cruises (11 mo)
Fine motor: immature pincer grasp, probes with forefinger, holds bottle, throws objects
Language: says “mama” or “dada”, waves bye bye, understands “no”, localizes sound in all directions
Social: exploring environment, plays gesture games (pat-a-cake)
Safety/AG: introduce finger foods, avoid chokables, staircase gates, reinforce childproof

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57
Q

DM: 12 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: walks w one hand out (without help 13 mo, well 15 mo)
Fine motor: mature pincer grasp, whole palmar grasp (make crayon mark), puts block in cup (11 mo)
Language: uses 1-2 other words, jargoning, one step command with gesture
Social: imitates actions, comes when called, cooperates with dressing, drink from cup 13 mo
Safety/AG: triple birth weight, table food, wean from bottle, infant car seat (rear facing until a year and 20 lbs)

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58
Q

DM: 15 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: creeps up stairs, walks backward independently, plays ball, gives/takes toy
Fine motor: scribbles in imitation, builds tower of two blocks in imitation, points, drinks from cup, makes line with crayon
Language: uses 4-6 words, follows one step command without gesture
Social: starts to use spoon and fork
Safety/AG: discuss tantrum management, toddler safety: falls, drowning, burn

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59
Q

DM: 18 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: runs, walks up stairs with hand held, throws objects from standing
Fine motor: scribbles spontaneously, builds tower of three blocks, turns 2-3 pages at a time
Language: mature jargoning (intelligible words), 7-10 word vocab, knows two body parts
Social: imitates household tasks, plays in company of other children, removes clothes (10 mo), feeds self with spoon
Safety/AG: discuss toilet training readiness

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60
Q

DM: 24 Month

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: walks up and down stairs without help, runs well, kicks ball, jumps with two feet, throws ball overhand
Fine motor: imitates stroke with pencil, turns pages one at a time, stacks tower of cubes (6-8 cubes)
Language: inappropriate, follows two step commands, 50 word vocab, 2-3 word sentences, 5 body parts
Social: parallel play
Safety/AG: after two years, annual growth until adolescence (2 in/yr), minimize screen time

61
Q

DM: 3 year

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: can alternate feet going up steps, pedals tricycle, balance on one foot
Fine motor: copies a circle, undresses completely, dresses partially, dries hands if reminded, stacks tower of 10 cubes
Language: minimum 250 words, 3-word sentences, uses plurals, knows all pronouns, repeats two digits
Social: group play, shares toys, takes turns, plays well with others, knows full name
Safety/AG: start BP screening, birth length doubles by 3-4 yrs

62
Q

DM: 4 year

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: hops on one foot, skips, alternates feet going down steps
Fine motor: copies a cross, square at 4 yrs, draws a simple person, does buttons and dresses self completely, catches ball
Language: knows colors, says songs or poem from memory, 4-5 word sentences, asks questions, counts 4 objects
Social: tells stories/tales, plays cooperatively with group of kids, counts, sings, says why
Safety/AG: can switch to lap belt if 4 yrs and 40 lbs

63
Q

DM: 5 year

gross motor, fine motor, language, social, safety/AG

A

Gross motor: skips alternating feet, jumps over low obstacles
Fine motor: copies triangle, ties shoes, spreads with knife, draws person with 6 body parts
Language: prints first name, asks what a word means, names 4 colors, distinguishes fantasy vs reality
Social: plays competitive games (board games), abides by rules, likes to help in household tasks
Safety/AG:

64
Q

what are contraindications to breast feeding?

A

milk protein allergy, colitis, active HIV infection, HSV lesions on breast, meds (chemo, street drugs, lithium), alcohol, galactosemia

65
Q

When do you give a child vitamin D supplementation?

A

all breast fed infants and infants on formula eating less than 500 mL/day (30 ml/oz, 16 oz) should start receiving supplementation during first week of life
400IU per day

66
Q

When do you give a child iron supplementation?

A

iron supplements start between 4-6 months (baby should have enough iron stores until about 4 months old, correlates with when baby should start eating more solid foods with iron)
dose: 1 mg/kg/day = full term
dose: 2-4 mg/kg/day = premature
puréed meats, iron-fortified infant cereal, iron-rich vegetables, liquid iron supplement

67
Q

when do you give a child flouride supplementation?

A

at the six month age mark if the child isn’t drinking bottled water or has well water without fluoride
**six month mark is when kids start developing teeth
fluoride toothpaste or fluoride drops

68
Q

if a mom is vegan, what vitamin supplements should a baby be given?

A

iron and B12

69
Q

what should a child be fed from birth to one year old?

A

Breast milk from birth to 4-6 months
Start introducing solid foods at 4-6 months: foods such as iron-fortified rice cereal, try a new food once every 3 days
at 6 months, start to give small amounts of water in sippy cup (no water before 6 mo for risk of hyponatremia and seizure possibility)
at one year old, infant should start the transition to whole milk (2 8 oz cups per day)

70
Q

what is the extrusion reflex and why is it important?

A

“Tongue-thrust reflex”
tongue is touched or depressed in any way by a solid and semisolid object which causes a tongue thrust to prevent the object from entering
**reflex has to disappear before introducing kids to solid food (4-6 mo)

71
Q

what is the weight gain pattern of a child from birth to one year old?

A

0-3 month: 30 g or 1 oz per day (1 lb every 2 weeks)
**baby will lose 10% of birth weight within the first few days and regain it by two weeks old
3-6 mo: 20 g/day (baby should double weight by 6 mo)
6 mo-1 yr: 10 g/day (baby should triple weight by 1 year)

72
Q

what are the BMI percentiles for a child?

A

<5% = underweight/failure to thrive
5-85% = normal
>85 % but under 95% = overweight
>95 % = obese

73
Q

what is jargoning?

A

runs several unintelligible words together with tone or inflection

74
Q

at what age does a kid ride a bike without training wheels?

A

6 years old

75
Q

immunizations given at birth

A

Hep B (1st dose)

76
Q

screening tests completed at birth

A

newborn hearing screen, newborn metabolic screen (depends on state)

77
Q

2 month immunizations

A

Pediatrix (1) : Dtap, IPV (inactivated polio), Hep B
Hib (1)
Prevnar (1)
Rotateq (1): Rotavirus

78
Q

4 month immunizations

A 
Dtap, IPV (2) 
(could have Hep B here but usually birth, 2 mo, 6 mo)
Hib (2)
Prevnar (2)
Rotateq (2): Rotavirus
79
Q

6 month immunizations

A

Pediatrix (3) : Dtap, IPV, Hep B
*sometimes have 3rd Hib with 4th at 12 mo, or skip this month and have 3rd Hib
Prevnar (3)
Rotateq (3): Rotavirus

80
Q

9 month immunizations

A

NONE

81
Q

12 month immunizations

A

Hib (either 3rd or 4th dose )
Prevnar (4)
LIVE: MMR, varicella

82
Q

15 month immunizations

A 
DTap (4)
Hep A (1)
83
Q

18 month immunizations

A

NONE

84
Q

24 month immunizations

A

Hep A (2)

85
Q

3 year old immunizations

A

NONE

86
Q

4-6 year old immunizations

A

Kinrix: DTAP (5) and IPV (4) combo

Proquad (LIVE): MMR (2) and varicella (2)

87
Q

7-8 year old immunizations

A

NONE

88
Q

9 year old immunizations

A

HPV (1)

89
Q

10-11 year old immunizations

A

Tdap (1) about age 11
HPV (2)- 6-12 mo in-between first and second dose
Meningococcal

90
Q

12-18 year old immunizations

A

Meningococcal age 15-16 (before college)

HPV if started after 15 (0, 2, 6 mo)

91
Q

from what child ages do you screen for maternal depression?

A

birth to 6 month old

92
Q

fluoride screening should occur at what well visits?

A

starting at six months to 4-6 years old

93
Q

what well visit do you screen for hip dysplasia and refer to XR as needed?

A

6 month old

94
Q

what are the four LIVE vaccines?

A

MMR, varicella, rotavirus, intranasal influenza

95
Q

what vaccine does every pregnant woman get?

A

Tdap- because want to give baby passive immunity against pertussis

96
Q

what happens if a child younger than 12 months old gets exposed to measles or chicken pox?

A

you can give them the vaccine early, but 9 months at the earliest
** still have to revaccinate at 12 months (original start date)

97
Q

what is the three dose series for HPV?

A

if a child starts to get the vaccines after 15 years old:

0, 1-2 mo later, 6 mo later

98
Q

at what well visit should you start BP, vision, and hearing screens?

A

age 3 and every year afterwards

99
Q

at what well visits do you screen for anemia and lead?

A

12 month, 24 month, 4-6 years (POC)

additional Hgb screen: every 2 years between ages 7 and 18 (yearly once girl starts menarche)

100
Q

at what well visits do you screen for autism using the MCHAT

A

18 month, 24 month, 30 month

101
Q

at what well visits do you use the ages and stages questionnaire?

A

9 month, 18 month, 24 month, 30 month

102
Q

at what well visits do you do a cholesterol screen?

A

9 years, 10-11 years

103
Q

at what age well visit do you start the depression screening?

A

age 11 and continue every year until 21

104
Q

at what age can children start getting the influenza vaccine?

A

at six months

105
Q

for adolescents, what should be further assessed during their physical examination?

A

ages 11-21
Examine back and hip alignment for scoliosis
Examine for acne, acanthosis nigricans, nevi, piercings, self-injury
Consider pelvic exam for appropriate females

106
Q

what are the intervals between Hep B shots for infants?

A

hospital (right after birth), 1-2 months later, and then 3rd dose around 6 months of age

107
Q

palmar grasp reflex and age of occurrence

A

placing finger against baby’s palm causes baby to flex fingers to grasp your finger
birth-3-4 months

108
Q

plantar grasp reflex and age of occurrence

A

touching the sole at the base of the toes causes the toes to curl
birth to 6-8 months

109
Q

rooting reflex and age of occurrence

A

stroking the perioral skin at the corners of the mouth causes the mouth to open and baby will turn head to that side and start sucking
birth to 3-4 months

110
Q

moro reflex (startle) and age of occurrence

A

hold baby supine and abruptly lower the entire body- arms should abduct out, hands open, and legs flex
birth to 4 months

111
Q

Asymmetric tonic neck reflex and age of occurrence

A

in supine position, turn baby’s head to one side and hold jaw over shoulder. arm and leg on head turned side extend and other side extremities flex
birth to two months

112
Q

landau reflex and age of occurrence

A

suspend the baby prone with one hand and the baby will lift the head and straighten the spine
birth to 6 months

113
Q

Trunk incurvation or Galant’s reflex and age of occurrence

A

support the baby prone with one hand and stroke one side of the back (1 cm from midline) from shoulder to butt and spine will curve towards stimulated side
birth to two months

114
Q

parachute reflex and age of occurrence

A

suspend the baby prone and slowly lower head towards a surface, baby will extend extremities to protect themselves
8 months and doesnt disappear

115
Q

positive support reflex and age of occurrence

A

hold the baby and lower them to “standing’ on a surface, the baby will bear some weight by standing and sag after 20-30 seconds
birth or two months until 6 months

116
Q

placing and stepping reflexes and age of occurrence

A

hold baby upright same as positive support reflex and have one sole touch the table, hip and knee of that foot will flex and the other foot will step forward (baby will alternate stepping)
birth to variable ages

117
Q

what week of pregnancy are women screened for GBS? how is it treated to prevent neonatal infection?

A

between 35-37 weeks (vaginal or rectum swab)
Intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (PCN G IV) administered at least four hours before delivery, PCN allergic must be true allergy and either chlindamycin or erythromycin depending on sensitivity

118
Q

when should B12 supplementation be given?

A

recommended for breastfed infants of strict vegan mothers (ie, those who avoid eggs and dairy products in addition to meat) if the mother is not taking supplemental vitamin B12 while lactating OR formula-fed infants whose parents provide a strictly vegan complementary diet
- 0.4 mcg per day for infants between birth and six months and 0.5 mcg per day for infants between 7 and 12 month

119
Q

child with baker’s yeast allergy should not have which vaccine?

A

Hep B

120
Q

child with neomycin or streptomycin should not have which vaccines?

A

MMR and IPV

121
Q

child with gelatin allergy should not have which vaccines?

A

varicella and influenza

122
Q

Tanner stage 2 for females: breast and pubic hair

A

breast: breast buds palpable, areola enlarges
pubic: minimal straight hair

123
Q

Tanner stage 1 for females: breast and pubic hair

A

No changes

124
Q

Tanner stage 3 for females: breast and pubic hair

A

Breast: elevation of areola
pubic: increased pubic hair (dark and course), lateral extension

125
Q

Tanner stage 4 for females: breast and pubic hair

A

Breast: secondary mound of areola and papilla
Pubic: adult like, extends across pubis

126
Q

Tanner stage 5 for females: breast and pubic hair

A

Breast: adult breast contour
Pubic: adult appearance, extends to medial thigh

127
Q

Tanner stage 1 for males: pubic hair

A

No changes

128
Q

Tanner stage 2 for males: pubic hair

A

Pubic: straight pubic hair at base of penis

129
Q

Tanner stage 3 for males: pubic hair

A

Pubic: course dark and curly hair

130
Q

Tanner stage 4 for males: pubic hair

A

Pubic: hair is almost completely full

131
Q

Tanner stage 5 for males: pubic hair

A

Pubic hair looks like adult

132
Q

Tanner stages correlate with roughly what ages

A 
Tanner stage 1: before 11
Stage 2: 11 in females, 11-12 in males
Stage 3: 12 in females, 13 in males
Stage 4: 13 in females, 14-15 in males
Stage 5: 14 in females, 16-17 in males
133
Q

what is reye’s syndrome and what can cause it?

A

syndrome that leads to cerebral edema and fatty accumulation in the liver
-unknown cause but usually occurs after a viral infection or aspirin use in children

134
Q

symptoms of reye’s and what are they due to

A

sudden persistent vomiting
nausea
combative/irritable personality
altered mental state that can lead into LOC, seizures, com
* due to drop in blood suagr, cerebral edema and fatty deposits in organs

135
Q

how to treat reye’s

A

ICU hospitalization usually
Hypoglycemia: IV fluids with glucose/electrolytes
Increased ICP: mannitol, steroids
Blood clotting probs: vitamin K, plasma, platelets

136
Q

what are the two main causes of vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

pernicious anemia: lack of intrinsic factor due to antibodies so B12 can’t bind to it and travel to duodenum to be absorbed
decreased intake: VEGANS (lack of meat consumption)

137
Q

clinical symptoms of B12 deficiency

A

anemia symptoms: fatigue, HA, pallor, exercise intolerance

PLUS NEURO SXS: symmetric paresthesias, ataxia, weakness, DECRE DTRS, vibration or sensory deficits

138
Q

how do you diagnose B12 deficiency?

A

CBC: shows macrocytic anemia (hypersegmented neutrophils)

decreased serum B12 levels, increased homocysteine, INC METHYLMALONIC ACID (difference between folate deficiency)

139
Q

treatment of B12 deficiency

A

B12 replacement orally or by injection

**ORAL replacement if due to dietary deficiency

140
Q

bulimia criteria

A

recurrent episodes of binge eating (eating a lot within 2 hour period) at least weekly for 3 months PLUS purging (vomiting, laxative abuse) or non purging (restricting caloric intake) behavior

141
Q

only medication to treat bulimia

A

Fluoxetine (prozac)

142
Q

describe weight of someone with bulimia

A

usually maintain normal weight and may even be overweight

143
Q

which psych condition has the highest mortality rate and why

A

anorexia because of arrhythmias it can cause

144
Q

what are the two types of anorexia?

A

restrictive (reduced caloric intake, dieting, fasting) and binge eating/purge (self induced vomiting and laxative abuse)

145
Q

what is the BMI for a person with anorexia

A

17.5 or less (OR body weight <85% of ideal body weight)

146
Q

what are the three main criteria for anorexia

A

restriction of caloric intake, intense fear of gaining weight/being fat, and distorted body image

147
Q

what type of medications might help with anorexia?

A

SSRIs

148
Q

go to treatment for typical and atypical CAP in children

A

typical- amoxicillin (S. pneumo)
atypical- macrolides (Mycoplasma) erythro, claritho
could use FQ after

Clinical Skills (15 decks)

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