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Peds Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

How far should the child stand away from the Snellen Chart?

A

10 ft

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2
Q

What’s amblyopia?

A

Lazy eye

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3
Q

What can happen if amblyopia is not corrected?

A

Reduced visual acuity in one eye & blindness in one or both eyes

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4
Q

How is amblyopia corrected?

A

Patching the stronger eye for several hours a day
Atropine drops in the stronger eye daily
Vision therapy
Eye muscle therapy

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5
Q

What’s the science behind the amblyopia treatment?

A

You weaken/restrict your stronger eye so the weaker eye can work and get stronger

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6
Q

What does the atropine drop do to the eye?

A

Blurs vision

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7
Q

What causes infantile glaucoma?

A

Obstruction of aqueous humor flow, leading to high intraocular pressure

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8
Q

What’s the patho behind infantile glaucoma?

A

Obstruction of aqueous humor flow -> high IOP -> optic nerve damage due to pressure & retinal scarring due to low aqueous humor

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9
Q

What’s one big assessment finding of infantile glaucoma?

A

Red reflex may appear gray or green

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10
Q

What are some general assessment findings of infantile glaucoma?

A

Keeping eyes closed
Frequent eye rubbing
Spasmodic winking
Excessive tearing or conjunctivitis
Corneal clouding
Enlargement of eyeball (pressure)

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11
Q

How is infantile glaucoma managed?

A

Surgery is the first line management. May need 3-4 surgeries

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12
Q

What are some post-op care for infantile glaucoma?

A

Protect surgical site: eye patch, elbow restraints, distractions

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13
Q

What discharge education is needed for parents with post-op infantile glaucoma patient?

A

How to administer eye medications
No rough-housing or contact sports for 2 weeks

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14
Q

How do you properly administer ear drops in kids age < 3 yrs?

A

Pull ear down & back

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15
Q

How do you properly administer ear drops in kids age > 3 yrs?

A

Pull ear up & back

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16
Q

What’s the patho behind congenital cataract?

A

Optic lens opacity, preventing light from entering into eye
Will lead to severe amblyopia if not treated

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17
Q

What are the 2 assessment findings of congenital cataract?

A

Cloudy cornea
Absent red reflex in affected area

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18
Q

Is cataract surgery earlier the better?

A

Yes. Best outcome if done within 3 months of life; can be done as early as 2 weeks old.

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19
Q

How is congenital cataract managed?

A

Surgical removal of cataract and placement of implantable lens

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20
Q

What are some cataract post-op care?

A

Site protection: eye patching, elbow restraints
Eye patching of good eye may be done after healing to strengthen vision of operated eye

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21
Q

What are some parent education needed for cataract post-op patients?

A

How to administer antibiotic and steroid drops
Wear sunglasses when going outside to protect from UV rays

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22
Q

What are some assessment findings of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?

A

Decreased or no TM movement
Pain (ear rubbing and pulling)
Dull, red, bulging TM
Fever
Lymphadenopathy of head/neck
Purulent drainage may be visible behind TM, or canal if TM ruptured

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23
Q

Which Otitis Media is infectious?

A

Acute Otitis Media; this hurts more

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24
Q

What’s the main goal of Acute Otitis Media treatment?

A

Pain control and infection management

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25
Q

Can you administer ear drops if the TM is ruptured?

A

No

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26
Q

What medications are used to manage Acute Otitis Media?

A

Acetaminophen & ibuprofen for mild - moderate pain
Narcotic if severe pain
Benzocaine (Auralgan) drops for pain if TM not ruptured
Abx therapy - Amoxicillin, Augmentin, Azithromycin or 1 time ceftriaxone IM

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27
Q

How long is abx therapy for Acute Otitis Media?

A

Usually 10-14 days of PO Amoxicillin, Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin), or Azithromycin

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28
Q

What are some assessment findings of Otitis Media with effusion (OME)?

A

Feeling of fullness in the ear
TM dull, opaque, orange discoloration, visible fluid level, air bubbles
Vague findings including rhinitis, cough, diarrhea
Transient hearing loss and balance disturbances

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29
Q

How is Otitis media with effusion managed?

A

Usually spontaneously resolves; but needs to be rechecked every 4 weeks
Do not feed in a supine position and avoid bottle propping

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30
Q

What medications help resolve Otitis Media with Effusion?

A

None that we’re taught of; antihistamine, steroids, an decongestants do not help

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31
Q

Why is hearing important during development?

A

Hearing loss will lead to slow/no speech development

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32
Q

What are some effective communication techniques to use with child with hearing loss?

A

Turn off music/TV
Face child when talking
Use visual cues
Speak clearly, only slightly raised volume

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33
Q

What’s Tympanostomy (PE)/Myringotomy tube?

A

Plastic/metal tube placed into TM to equalized pressure, minimize fluid collection, and drain any fluid

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34
Q

Is post-op pain common after inserting tympanostomy (PE) tubes?

A

No

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35
Q

What’s the indication of Tympanostomy tubes?

A

Frequent OM

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36
Q

What should you do if you noticed drainage from Tympanostomy tube?

A

Report to the provider; drainage means there is an infection, and it needs to be treated

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37
Q

How is tympanostomy tubes removed?

A

It falls out spontaneously after several months with earwax

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38
Q

What are some discharge planning after the placement of tympanostomy tube?

A

How to administer ear drops if prescribed
Wear ear plugs when swimming/bathing, or going underwater
If water enters ear, allow it to drain out

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39
Q

What are the 3 types of hearing loss?

A

Conductive
Sensorineural
Mixed

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40
Q

What causes conductive hearing loss?

A

Transmission of sound through the middle ear is disrupted

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41
Q

What are some examples that cause conductive hearing loss?

A

Frequent OM
Foreign object
Allergies
Ruptured TM
Impacted earwax

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42
Q

Conductive hearing loss is all about

A

Middle ear (TM)

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43
Q

What causes sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Damage to the hair cells in the cochlea or along the auditory pathway

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44
Q

What are some examples that can cause sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Ototoxic medication
Meningitis
Excessive noise
Aging
Auditory tumors

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45
Q

What are some examples that can cause mixed hearing loss?

A

Genetic disorder
Infections
Head trauma

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46
Q

What are some tips for interacting with visually impaired child?

A

Gain child’s attention first before touching them
Name and describe people/objects to make child more aware of what is happening
Discuss upcoming activities
Use touch and tone of voice appropriate to the situation
Simple and specific directions
Use parts of the child’s body as reference points for location of items
Encourage exploration of objects through touch

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47
Q

What are some signs of hearing loss in infants?

A

Wakes only to touch, not room noise
Does not babble by 6 months
Does not startle at loud noise

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48
Q

What are some signs of hearing loss in young child?

A

Does not speak by age of 2
Communication needs through gesture
Focuses on facial expressions when communicating
Does not respond to doorbell or telephone

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49
Q

What are some signs of hearing loss in older child?

A

Often asks for statements to be repeated
Inattentive or daydreams
Poor school performance
Monotone speech

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50
Q

What is a macule?

A

Circular, flat discoloration that is < 1cm. Like a mole

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51
Q

What is a papule?

A

Superficial, solid, elevated that is < 0.5cm. Like a small pimple that’s just red, but no pus in it

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52
Q

What does plaque/annular look like?

A

Ring-like with central clearing

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53
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

Circular collection of free fluid <1cm. Like a small blister.

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54
Q

What’s a pustule?

A

Vesicle containing pus. Like acne that’s filled with nasty yellow stuff

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55
Q

What are the 3 types of inflammatory skin conditions?

A

Contact Dermatitis
Diaper Dermatitis
Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema)

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56
Q

What are the 2 kinds of diaper dermatitis?

A

Non-candida
Candida

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57
Q

What does non-candida diaper dermatitis look like?

A

Red, shiny
Usually affects skin on butt, thighs, abdomen, and waist
Usually not creases or folds

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58
Q

What does candida diaper dermatitis look like?

A

Deep red lesions, scaly with satellite lesions (outside of diaper area)
Usually in creases & folds

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59
Q

Which type of diaper dermatitis can you use standard diaper cream?

A

Non-candida

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60
Q

How do you manage diaper dermatitis?

A

Change diapers frequently
Avoid rubber pants, harsh soaps, and baby wipes with fragrance or preservatives
Topical cream
Keep area dry with warm dryer setting for 3-5 minutes
Have diaper-less period of time daily to allow healing

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61
Q

What kind of topical cream can be used to treat candida diaper dermatitis?

A

Skin barriers (zinc oxide)
Antifungal (nystatin)

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62
Q

Which type of diaper dermatitis can involve oral thrush?

A

Candida diaper dermatitis

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63
Q

What are some physical assessment findings of atopic dermatitis?

A

Inflammation, rash, and extreme itching
Dry, scaly, pruritic, erythematous patches on flexural surfaces
Presence of wheezing

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64
Q

What lab value is elevated in atopic dermatitis?

A

IgE

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65
Q

What causes atopic dermatitis?

A

Allergen or environmental factors like temperature change or sweating
It’s an antigen response

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66
Q

How is atopic dermatitis managed?

A

Avoid hot water
Bathe x2/day in warm water
Avoid soaps containing perfumes, dyes, or fragrances (use mild soap)
Pat dry skin and leave moist while apply moisturizers multiple times daily

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67
Q

What kind of clothing and bed linens should be used in kids with atopic dermatitis?

A

100% cotton
No synthetics and wool

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68
Q

What medications are used to manage atopic dermatitis?

A

Topical corticosteroids & immune modulators (tacrolimus)
Antihistamines at bedtime may assist with itching

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69
Q

How can you prevent kids with atopic dermatitis from itching too much while they are wake?

A

Behavior modification; clickers, distraction, reward

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70
Q

What can parents do to kids with atopic dermatitis to avoid bleeding and infection?

A

Keep fingernails short. Cut & file to not make it sharp

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71
Q

What are some hx that can cause acne vulgaris?

A

Family hx of onset
Hx of endocrine disorder
Use of medication (steroids, androgens, lithium, phenytoin, isoniazid, etc)
Date of LMP

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72
Q

What are some physical cues of acne vulgaris?

A

Onset of lesions
Presence of comedones
Oily skin/hair

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73
Q

What are some medications that are used to manage acne vulgaris?

A

Tretinion
Benzol peroxide (OTC)
Topical antibacterials
Isotretinoin
Oral contraceptives

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74
Q

How does tretinion work?

A

Interrupts abnormal keratinization that causes microcomedones

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75
Q

How does Benzol peroxide work when treating acne vulgaris?

A

It inhibits growth of P. acnes (Propionibacterium acnes)

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76
Q

What’s clindamycin’s drug class?

A

Topical antibacterial

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77
Q

What are the 2 oral antibacterial prescribed to manage acne vulgaris?

A

Tetracycline
Erythromycin

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78
Q

How does Isotretinoin help manage acne vulgaris?

A

By Inhibiting sebaceous gland function. This is a teratogenic drug

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79
Q

How does oral contraceptives work when treating acne vulgaris?

A

Decreases endogenous androgen production

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80
Q

What can we teach patients with acne vulgaris?

A

Avoid oil-based cosmetics and hair products
Headbands, helmets/hats may exacerbate
Eat balanced diet
Clean skin with mild soap and water BID
Shampoo hair regularly
Avoid picking/squeezing comedones

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81
Q

What are some types of skin injuries?

A

Abrasions
Lacerations
Bites
Bruises
Burns

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82
Q

What are some risk factors for nonaccidental skin injuries?

A

Poverty
Prematurity
Chronic illness
Intellectual disability
Parent with abuse hx; unrelated partner
Alcohol/substance abuse
Extreme stressors

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83
Q

What are some suspicious cues of nonaccidental skin injuries?

A

Injuries in uncommon locations
Bruises in infants < 9 months
Multiple injuries other than LEs
Frequent ED visits; delay in seeking care
Inconsistent stories
Unusual caregiver-child interaction

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84
Q

What are some common places of skin injuries when it’s nonaccidental?

A

Butt, back & thighs
Posterior side

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85
Q

What time frame should you not go outside to prevent sun damage?

A

10 am - 4 pm

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86
Q

What kind of sunscreen should you apply to your kids?

A

Broad spectrum (both UVA & UVB)
SPF 15 or higher
Fragrance and oxybenzone free
Zinc oxide products for nose, cheeks, ears, shoulders

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87
Q

True of false: You don’t have to wear sunscreen on overcast days

A

False

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88
Q

How often should you apply sunscreen?

A

30 minutes before sun activity
Reapply at least Q2H
If in water, Q 60-80 min

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89
Q

What age group should you use minimal sunscreen?

A

Infants < 6 months
Have them wear hats and sun shirts instead

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90
Q

How does 1st degree burn look like?

A

Damage to epidermis
Painful, pink to red with no blisters
Blanches

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91
Q

How does 2nd degree burn look like when there is damage to entire epidermis?

A

Painful, moist, red with blisters
Mild to moderate edema
Blanches

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92
Q

How does 2nd degree burn look like when there is damage to entire epidermis + some dermis?

A

Painful, mottled, red to white with blisters
Moderate edema
Blanches

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93
Q

How does 3rd degree burn look like?

A

Damage to entire epidermis, dermis, and some subQ
Red to tan, black, brown or waxy white
Dry, leathery
No blanching

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94
Q

What does 4th degree burn look like?

A

Damage to all layers of skin, muscle, fascia and bones
Color variable
Dull, dry
Charring
Possible visible bone, tendons

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95
Q

Primary assessment of burn consists of

A

ABCs, VS
Airway patency
Assess for signs of airway injury or smoke inhalation
Respiration effort, symmetry of breathing, breath sounds
Pulse ox, ABG, carboxyhemoglobin levels
Skin color, pulse strength, HR, perfusion status, edema
EKG if electrical burn

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96
Q

Secondary assessment of burn consists of

A

Burn depth
Body Surface Area (BSA)
Other traumatic injuries

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97
Q

What are some general nursing assessment done on burn patients?

A

Evaluate immediately for need of intensive management
Provide emergency care if respiratory compromised
Obtain brief hx of date, time and cause of burn
Determine if hx is consistent with injury

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98
Q

What intervention is important during first 24 hours of burn injury?

A

Fluid resuscitation

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99
Q

How is adequacy of fluid replacement determined?

A

By evaluating urinary output;
1-2mL/kg/hr

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100
Q

What kind of fluid is given during the early stage of burn recovery?

A

Isotonic crystalloid solutions (LR)
Dextrose added for small children

101
Q

What is the most common complication of burn injury during the first 24 hours?

A

Hypovolemic shock

102
Q

What are some nursing interventions for burn injuries?

A

Prevent hypothermia
Pain management
Wound care
Prevent infection
Provide nutritional support
Restore mobility
Psychological support

103
Q

What are some ways of preventing hypothermia in burn patients?

A

Warmed IVF
Optimal room temperature
Frequent temp monitoring

104
Q

Initial cleaning of burn consists of

A

Mild soap and water

105
Q

How can you prevent infection in burn patients?

A

Tetanus shot if > 5 years or vaccine status unknown
Abx ointments with dressing change

106
Q

How can you minimize/control pain during wound care in burn patients?

A

Premedicate 30-45 minutes before
Soak prior dressing with warm water before removal

107
Q

What supplements can you expect to give to burn patients?

A

Vitamins A & C for cell growth
Zinc for wound healing

108
Q

Do burn patients require more caloric and protein intake?

A

Yes, for healing

109
Q

What kind of skin barriers are there for a non-candida diaper dermatitis?

A

Zinc oxide
A, D, & E ointments
Petroleum

110
Q

The nurse is caring for an infant with a non-candidiasis diaper dermatitis. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
A) Apply Zinc Oxide to treat affected area
B) Apply Nystatin cream to treat affected area
C) Use alcohol based baby wipes to clean area
D) Apply hydrocortisone cream to reduce redness

A

A) Apply Zinc Oxide to treat affected area

111
Q

Which WBC level is elevated with acute bacterial infection & severe stress?

A

Neutrophil

112
Q

Which WBC level is elevated with allergic reactions, parasitic infestations, or some neoplasms?

A

Eosinophil

113
Q

Which WBC level is elevated with viral infections or chronic bacterial infections?

A

Lymphocytes

114
Q

Which immunoglobulins is the most important component in a primary immune response?

A

IgM

115
Q

Which immunoglobulin presence indicates an active infection?

A

IgM

116
Q

Which immunoglobulin starts producing in infants before IgA?

A

IgM

117
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the 1st line of defense against respiratory, GI, GU pathogens?

A

IgA

118
Q

At what age do infants begin to produce IgA?

A

~3 months of age

119
Q

Which immunoglobulin protects against viruses, bacteria, and toxins?

A

IgG

120
Q

What is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta & transferred via breastmilk?

A

IgG

121
Q

Lack of IgG causes

A

Severe immunodeficiency

122
Q

When do infants start producing their own IgG?

A

~6 month - 1 year of age

123
Q

Which immunoglobulin is referred as “passive immunity?”

A

IgG

124
Q

Which immunoglobulin increases in allergic states, parasitic infections & hypersensitivity reactions?

A

IgE

125
Q

Which immunoglobulin assist in the activation of B cells?

A

IgD

126
Q

What are the history cues of immunodeficiency?

A

4+ new episodes of acute otitis media in 1 year
2+ episodes of severe sinusitis
Treatment with abx for 2 months or longer with little effect
2+ episodes of PNA in 1 year
Failure to thrive in infant
2+ serious infections like sepsis
Persistent oral thrush or skin candidiasis after 1 year of age
Hx of infections requiring IV antibiotics to clear
Family hx of primary immunodeficiency

127
Q

What are some lab cues of infection/immunodeficiency?

A

CBC (WBC count; neutrophil, eosinophil, lymphocyte, etc)
ESR & CRP (inflammation markers)
CD4 (T-helper cells)
Immunoglobulins
Complement - C3

128
Q

Is Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID) a primary or secondary immune deficiency disorder?

A

Primary
Because it’s hereditary/congenital

129
Q

How does secondary immune deficiency disorders occur?

A

As a result of chronic illness, malignancy, immunosuppressive meds, or HIV infection

130
Q

What causes SCID?

A

Absent T and B cell function

131
Q

What is the most important nursing intervention when caring for a SCID patient?

A

Infection prevention.
This patient has no immune system

132
Q

How is SCID managed/treated?

A

IVIG (Exogenous IgG antibodies) to help decrease number of bacterial infections
Bone marrow transplant with HLA matched sibling or donor
IVIG can help but bone marrow transplant is desired

133
Q

What are the functions of B & T cells?

A

B cells produce antibodies while T cells kill infected cells

134
Q

How do infants acquire HIV?

A

Vertically via breastmilk or in utero

135
Q

How do adolescents acquire HIV?

A

Horizontally via sexual activity and IV drug use

136
Q

True or False: HIV is rarely acquired now via blood products

A

True

137
Q

What is the patho behind HIV?

A

HIV infects CD4 (T-helper cells) -> they replicate itself in the CD4 cell then destroys it
If CD4 cells keeps getting infected and destroyed, there will not be enough normal CD4 in the body, resulting in altered T and B cell function = immune deficiency

138
Q

What is the lab criteria for diagnosis of HIV in patients 18 months or older?

A

+ ELISA and + Western blot

139
Q

What is the lab criteria for diagnosis of HIV in infants < 18 months and born to infected mother?

A

+ PCR and viral culture

140
Q

Which lab tests for HIV genetic material (DNA, RNA)?

A

PCR test

141
Q

Which lab tests for antibodies to HIV?

A

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

142
Q

Which lab detects the specific HIV antibodies present in blood proteins?

A

Western blot

143
Q

What determines stage of HIV infection?

A

CD4 counts

144
Q

Which stage of HIV is considered AIDS?

A

Stage 3. Lower the CD4 count, lower the immune function

145
Q

Why is HIV dangerous to children?

A

HIV rapidly invades the CNS in infants and children
Can also lead to HIV encephalopathy

146
Q

19 month old presents to clinic with hx of recurrent infections and fever of 102.4. HIV is suspected. What diagnostic tests would the nurse expect to be ordered for this child?

A

ELISA & Western blot

147
Q

9 month old infant born to a mother with HIV presents to clinic with hx of recurrent infections and fever of 102.4. What diagnostic tests would the nurse expect to be ordered for this child to check HIV status?

A

PCR & Viral culture

148
Q

What is the patho behind Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?

A

An autoimmune disease that causes body to release inflammatory chemicals that attack the synovium
Causes unknown
Used to be called Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

149
Q

What are some assessment findings of JIA?

A

Hx of irritability or fussiness
Withdrawal from play or difficulty getting out of bed
Joint stiffness & pain usually after inactivity, especially in the AM after sleep
Fever
Pale red, nonpruritic, macular rash
Joint edema, warmth, erythema, tenderness
Joints flexed
May affect the eyes or other organs

150
Q

What are the lab findings for JIA?

A

CBC (mild-moderate anemia, elevated WBC)
ESR, CRP elevated
+ antinuclear antibody (ANA)
+ rheumatoid factor (more serious case)

151
Q

What is the goal of JIA management?

A

Inflammation control
Pain management
Promotion of remission
Maintaining mobility
Promoting normal life

152
Q

What medications are used to manage JIA?

A

NSAIDs for pain
Steroids
Antirheumatic drugs like methotrexate but might not be approved for children

153
Q

Why is regular eye exam important in patients with JIA?

A

JIA is systematic; it can affect eyes.
Regular screening is to prevent blindness

154
Q

What exercise is best to maintain mobility?

A

Swimming
Decreases strain on joints while doing ROM and muscle strengthening

155
Q

What are some physical cues of allergic reactions?

A

Hives
Flushing
Angioedema
Mouth/throat itching
Swelling of throat/pharynx/uvula
Runny nose
GI distress
Wheezing (sign of airway compromise)

156
Q

What are some signs of anaphylaxis?

A

Respiratory compromise
Low BP
Skin-mucosal tissue involvement (hives, pruritus, swollen lips, etc)
GI symptoms

157
Q

How are allergic & anaphylactic reactions managed?

A

Administer histamine blockers and Epi pen if anaphylaxis
Airway management
Comfort measures

158
Q

What are some parent education we can do following an allergic/anaphylactic reaction?

A

How to recognize s/s of allergic reaction
Reading food labels and recognizing hidden sources of allergens
Have a written emergency plan for child’s allergy; Epi pen access

159
Q

How is Epi pen administered?

A

Blue to the sky
Orange to the thigh

160
Q

If a person is allergic to latex, they are likely to be allergic to

A

Kiwi, banana, peach, avocado, chestnut, fig, bell pepper, tomato, or white potato

161
Q

What are some most common allergens in first year of life?

A

Eggs, peanuts, tree nuts, fish and shellfish, wheat and soy

162
Q

What should nurse assess for if a person is having a latex allergy reaction?

A

ABCs
VS
Auscultate heart and lungs
Assess oropharynx and skin

163
Q

What type of infection is pertussis?

A

Bacterial

164
Q

Which type of infection is mononucleosis & measles?

A

Viral/exanthems

165
Q

What type of infection is pediculosis capitus?

A

Parasitic

166
Q

What type of infection is pinworms?

A

Helminthic (worm)

167
Q

What’s viral exanthems?

A

A rash/skin eruption caused by a viral infection of the skin in childhood
Distinct rash patterns that assist with diagnosis of virus

168
Q

How is viral exanthems managed?

A

Usually care at home with fever management and comfort measures

169
Q

Precautions are an example of

A

Secondary prevention

170
Q

What are the physical findings or pertussis?

A

Paroxysmal cough (coughing 10-30 times in a row)
Swelling & irritation of airways
Red face
Cyanosis
Protruding tongue
“whooping cough”
Tearing eyes, drooling copious secretions

171
Q

Pertussis patients needs to be in what precaution?

A

Droplet

172
Q

What medications are used to treat pertussis?

A

Macrolides (“mycins”) for infants > 1 mo
Azithromycin if < 1 mo
TMP-SMZ is alternative to macrolides

173
Q

What kind of environment can help pertussis patients?

A

High humidity environment

174
Q

What are the physical cues for Rubeola (Measles)?

A

Maculopapular rash (starts from top (face) to bottom)
Fever
Koplik spots
Cough
Nasal inflammation
Malaise
Conjunctivitis

175
Q

What kind of precaution is required for Rubeola (Measles)?

A

Airborne until 4 days after the onset of rash

176
Q

How is Rubeola managed?

A

Antipyretics, bedrest, fluids, humidification
Post-exposure vaccine within 72 hours or IgG within 6 days may reduce severity

177
Q

What supplement/medication can be given to hospitalized Rubeola children 6 months to 2 years or immunocompromised?

A

Vitamin A

178
Q

What are the physical findings of Lyme Disease?

A

Hx of tick bite
Firm, discrete, pruritic nodule
Urticaria or localized edema
Redness
Bulls eye rash
There are 3 stages; symptoms get more and more systemic as it progresses

179
Q

How is Lyme Disease managed?

A

Abx as ordered; be sure to instruct to take the full regimen until completed

180
Q

How long is the Lyme Disease treatment?

A

14-28 days

181
Q

What abx is used to treat Lyme Disease in kids age >8?

A

Doxycycline
This can discolor teeth

182
Q

What abx is used to treat Lyme Disease in kids age <8?

A

Amoxicillin
Cefuroxime if allergic to penicillins

183
Q

When should you reassess temperature after antipyretic is given?

A

30 to 60 minutes after

184
Q

Why is assessing fluid intake and encouraging oral intake or administering IVF per order important when managing fever in children?

A

They lose hydration with heat. It’s like boiling water.
We have to keep them hydrated

185
Q

True or false: Acetaminophen & Ibuprofen is used to treat fevers in infants & children of all age

A

False
Ibuprofen is to be used > 6 months

186
Q

How often should you assess temperature when a child is having a fever?

A

At least 4 - 6 hours

187
Q

What are some assessment findings of pediculosis capitis (head lice)?

A

Nits or lice seen behind ears or at nape of neck
Extreme pruritus
Small red bumps on scalp
White specks attached to hair shaft

188
Q

How is pediculosis capitis managed?

A

Follow directions exactly on pediculicide (Permethrin, Lindane)
Comb out hair every 2-3 days
Soak combs and hairbrushes in treatment solution, hot water, or shampoo
Treat all items in environment with hot water; dry cleaning may be needed or sealing in plastic bags

189
Q

What kind of precaution is needed for pediculosis capitis?

A

Contact

190
Q

Why is it important to follow directions exactly when using pediculicides (Permethrin, Lindane)?

A

To get rid of lice effectively
Those solutions are neurotoxic

191
Q

What is the primary prevention for communicable diseases?

A

Immunizations

192
Q

Contact precaution is used when

A

Diseases can be transmitted when in close proximity to patients or their environment

193
Q

Droplet precaution is used for

A

Diseases caused by large droplets, generated by coughing, sneezing or talking

194
Q

Airborne precautions is used for

A

Infectious pathogens that remain suspended in the air & can travel great distances

195
Q

What are some pre-op nursing actions for brain tumor?

A

Monitor for increased ICP & manage
Steroids to decrease intracranial swelling
Emotional support

196
Q

What are some post-op nursing actions for brain tumor?

A

Monitor for increased ICP & manage
I&Os
Frequent VS with pupil and LOC checks
Pain management
Position on unaffected side at level ordered by provider
JP drain monitoring & care
Keep head midline
Treat fever and headache

197
Q

With brain tumor, why do we want to postpone/prolong radiation therapy as long as possible?

A

Because their little brain is still growing. Radiation will have a big impact & cause permanent damage

198
Q

What history cues are found in Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hx of immunodeficiency, frequent infections, Epstein-Barr infection
Family hx of lymphoma
Unintentional weight loss, loss of appetite
Reports of night sweats

199
Q

What are some physical signs of Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Painless, enlarged supraclavicular or cervical lymph nodes (“sentinel nodes”)
Unexplained fever
Pruritis
Splenomegaly/hepatomegaly
Cough, SOB

200
Q

How is Hodgkin lymphoma diagnosed?

A

Lymph node biopsy + for Reed-Sternberg Cells

201
Q

What is Wilm’s tumor?

A

Malignancy that occurs in the abdomen (kidneys), usually unilateral and deep in the flank
Most common on R side

202
Q

What are some physical cues of Wilm’s tumor?

A

Firm, nontender abdominal swelling/mass
Hematuria
HTN
Abd asymmetry or visible mass
Abd pain, N/V, anorexia
Reported weight loss
Hx of UTIs

203
Q

What lab test/diagnostics are done to diagnose Wilm’s tumor?

A

24 hour urine NEGATIVE for homovanillic acid (HVA) and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
This is to rule out other tumors
CT/MRI of abd
Abd ultrasound

204
Q

What is the most important pre-op nursing intervention for Wilm’s tumor?

A

Do not palpate abd; can rupture tumor
Sign above the bed and outside the door

205
Q

What is the most common childhood cancer?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

206
Q

What is the patho behind ALL?

A

Over production of immature WBC with neoplastic characteristics which leads to infiltration of organs and tissues

207
Q

What are the history cues of ALL?

A

Persistent or intermittent fevers
Recurrent infections
Reports of join & bone pain, abd pain, N/V

208
Q

What are the physical cues of ALL?

A

Low-grade fever
Signs of infection
Pallor
Bruising/petechiae/purpura
Hepatomegaly
Enlarged lymph nodes
Pancytopenia

209
Q

What is the most definitive lab cue for ALL?

A

Bone marrow aspirate (BMA)
Will determine if lymphoid or myeloid and cell type

210
Q

What other labs are used for ALL?

A

CBC (Low Hgb, Hct, RBCs, Platelets & low/normal/high WBC) -> since ALL attacks bone marrow
Blood smear
LP
Kidney function to help guide chemo dosage
CXR to detect PNA or mediastinal mass

211
Q

What is the most common bone used for bone marrow aspirate?

A

Posterior or anterior iliac crest

212
Q

Post op BMA

A

Apply pressure for 5-10 minutes then apply pressure dressing
Monitor for bleeding & infection

213
Q

What position should the patient be in for BMA?

A

Prone

214
Q

What kinds of medications are used for BMA?

A

Local/topical anesthetic & conscious sedation meds (fentanyl, versed)

215
Q

Pre-op BMA

A

Explain procedure
Provide comfort
Infection prevention

216
Q

Neutropenic precautions consists of

A

Private room
Meticulous hand hygiene before and after
VS Q4H
Assess s/s of infection Q8H
Nothing up the ass, foley or any invasive procedures
Restrict visitors
Mask on child when outside the room
No raw fruits, veggies, fresh flowers, or live plants

217
Q

What is the focus of ALL treatment?

A

Pain management
Prevent infection, bleeding
Treat anemia

218
Q

What is a major a/e of chemo?

A

Myelosuppression (bone marrow suppression) -> pancytopenia

219
Q

What are some more common a/e of chemo?

A

Mucosal ulceration
Neuropathy
N/V/anorexia
Alopecia
Cognitive defects

220
Q

What is a common complication of radiation therapy?

A

Altered skin integrity

221
Q

What can be used to manage itching from radiation therapy?

A

Diphenhydramine or hydrocortisone cream

222
Q

How do you calculate absolute neutrophil count (ANC)?

A

ANC = (Segs + bands) * WBC * 10

223
Q

How can you manage N/V/anorexia caused by chemo?

A

Bland, dry foods
Small, frequent meals
Offer ice, carbonated drinks, popsicles throughout the day

224
Q

What are some assessment findings of iron deficiency anemia?

A

Pallor
SOB (bc O2 not carried by hgb)
Spooning of nails
Splenomegaly
Irritability, headache
Unsteady gait, weakness, fatigue
Pica

225
Q

What are the diagnostic findings for iron deficiency anemia?

A

Low RBC, Hgb, Hct, MCV, MCH, Rerritin
High RDW

226
Q

How is iron deficiency anemia managed?

A

Feed only Fe+ fortified formula
Encourage breastfeeding moms to increase Fe+ in their diet
Limit cow’s milk in children > 1 yr
Fe+ supplements
Encourage Fe+ rich food

227
Q

What are some s/e of Fe+ supplements?

A

Teeth staining (place behind teeth/rinse mouth after)
Constipation (increase fluid)
Dark, green stool

228
Q

What are the risk factors of lead poisoning?

A

Age
Live in older home (paint, pipes, soil)
Live near busy road
Toys/imported products
Poverty/malnutrition
Pica

229
Q

What are some physical assessment findings of lead poisoning?

A

Irritability
Abd pain/cramping
Poor appetite
Vomiting
Ataxia
hematuria
New onset seizures

230
Q

What blood lead level should you start chelation therapy?

A

> 45 mcg/dL

231
Q

What is chelation therapy?

A

Removes lead from soft tissue & bone then excreted via kidneys

232
Q

What medications are used in chelation therapy?

A

PO or IV Succimer/Dimercaprol/Adetate calcium disodium

233
Q

What nursing intervention is done during chelation therapy?

A

Ensure adequate fluid intake
Monitor I&Os

234
Q

What is the patho behind sickle cell disease?

A

Cells sickle usually from a trigger -> blood become viscous from clumping and cause tissue hypoxia -> prevents normal blood flow to tissues through capillaries -> ischemia & infarction

235
Q

What are some assessment findings of sickle cell disease?

A

Extreme fatigue or irritability
Pain
Cough, increased work of breathing, fever, tachypnea, hypoxia
Splenomegaly
Jaundice (from hemolysis) or pallor
Swollen joints

236
Q

What are some lab findings in sickle cell disease?

A

Low Hgb, Hct, ESR
High Platelets, Reticulocyte count, bilirubin (from hemolysis)

237
Q

What are 2 sickle cell disease complications?

A

Acute chest syndrome
Splenic sequestration

238
Q

What’s acute chest syndrome?

A

Vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature

239
Q

What’s splenic sequestration?

A

Sickled cells obstruct spleen from draining & trapping RBCs, enlarging spleen

240
Q

How is sickle cell vaso-occlusive episodes managed?

A

Pain control
Hydration to flush sickled cells out
Treat hypoxia but don’t over oxygenate

241
Q

What is the patho behind hemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII is essential for platelets to clot; however, hemophilia A patients have deficiency of factor VIII

242
Q

How much IVF is used in sickle cell vaso-occlusive episode?

A

Double maintenance fluid
150mL/kg/day

243
Q

When is oxygen given during sickle cell vaso-occlusive episode?

A

When SpO2 <92%

244
Q

What are some physical cues of hemophilia?

A

Swollen or stiff joints (hemarthrosis)
Multiple bruises
Hematuria
Bleeding gums
Bloody sputum or emesis
Black tarry stools
Chest/abd pain (internal bleeding)

245
Q

What coagulability lab value is abnormal in hemophilia?

A

Only PTT is abnormal (prolonged); PT & platelets are normal

246
Q

When a patient comes in with swollen joint & they are known to have hemophilia, what should you do first?

A

Factor VIII administration (slow IV push)
Both acute & prophylactic regimen

247
Q

What medication can be used for mild cases of hemophilia?

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)
Triggers the endothelium of blood vessels to release Factor VIII

248
Q

What should you do when hemophilia patient is having a bleeding episode externally?

A

Apply direct pressure

249
Q

What should you do when hemophilia patient has joint bleeding?

A

Apply ice or cold compress and elevate extremity unless contraindicated by causing further damage

Nursing Struggle Bus (11 decks)

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