Peds Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

_____ urethras in peds gu system

A

shorter

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2
Q

renal system includes

A

kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra

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3
Q

All nephrons present at birth but _____

A

immature

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4
Q

Less urine output per day but more ____

A

voids

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5
Q

Immature structure and function until _____

A

puberty

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6
Q

One of the most common pediatric infections, Bacteria enter urethra and ascend to bladder.

A

UTI

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7
Q

involves urethra or bladder

A

cytitis

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8
Q

kidney infection involving ureters, renal pelvis, or renal parenchyma

A

pyelonephritis

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9
Q

incomplete bladder emptying

A

stasis

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10
Q

factors that place children at risk for UTI’s

A

age, gender, hygiene, stasis (fluid retention)

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11
Q

Sexual intercourse in adolescents promotes “______” of bacteria from perineum and vagina

A

milking

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12
Q

upper urinary tract infections are located where

A

kidneys or ureter

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13
Q

what is the primary function of the renal system

A

maintain fluid balance

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14
Q

what should urine output of a normal child be

A

1-2ml/kg/hr (30ml/hr for adult)

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15
Q

the characteristics of urine are

A

color, odor, clarity

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16
Q

how do you measure urine output in a diaper wearing child

A

weigh the diaper before u put it on ad after it is soiled

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17
Q

what is a sensitive indicator of daily fluid loss and gain

A

weight/ girth

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18
Q

the amount of fluid retention makes a difference in

A

BP and HR

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19
Q

the amount of solute in urine is referred to as

A

specific gravity

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20
Q

the AMOUNT of solute in urine is:

A

1.016-1.022

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21
Q

2 things that help keep bacteria at bay in the urinary tract

A

acidity and flow

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22
Q

Incontinence of urine past the age of toilet training

A

Enuresis

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23
Q

diurnal

A

daytime

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24
Q

lower urinary tract infections are located where

A

bladder or urethra

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25
Q

upper urinary tract infections are located where

A

kidneys or ureter

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26
Q

factors that place children at risk for UTI’s

A

age, gender, hygiene, stasis

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27
Q

interruption of sleep to void

A

timed voiding

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28
Q

antidiuretic hormones

A

desmopressin

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29
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants

A

imipramine

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30
Q

Anticholinergics

A

oxybutynin

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31
Q

Fluid accumulation in the scrotal sac.

A

hydrocele

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32
Q

Transillumination of the scrotum to confirm ______ ______

A

fluid collection

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33
Q

If hydrocele persists beyond __ to __ months, likely noncommunicating and require surgical repair.

A

12 and 18

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34
Q

Testicle rotates and twists the spermatic cord, cutting off blood supply to the scrotum.
-Caused by excessive mobility of the testes, impact injury, vigorous activity, cold temp., growth spurt
EMERGENCY

A

testicular torsion

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35
Q

Bladder extrudes through lower abdominal wall, Displaces umbilicus and separates rectus muscles.

A

Bladder Exstrophy

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36
Q

Treat bladder spasms with ________.

A

antispasmodics

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37
Q

for bladder exstrophy: Cover exposed bladder with plastic wrap or sterile plastic bag to keep ____.

A

moist

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38
Q

Surgical intervention for bladder exstrophy __-__ hours after birth.

A

48-to-72

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39
Q

Retrograde flow (backflow) of bladder urine into one or both ureters during voiding
- Reflux occurs because the ureters are implanted in the bladder wall at an abnormal angle

A

Vesicoureteral Reflux (VUR)

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40
Q

Management of VUR

A

continuous antibiotic prophylaxis (CAP)

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41
Q

what age group is most effected by UTI

A

2-6

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42
Q

what gender is more effected by UTI

A

female

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43
Q

name a behavior symptom of a UTI in infant

A

crying more, especially during urination

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44
Q

fever, not eating, uninterested, diarrhea, urine characteristics are different

A

physiologic symptoms of UTI in infant

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45
Q

indicate damage to the glomeruli;

A

nephrotic syndrome

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46
Q

result in the release of too much protein from the body (albumin) into the urine;

A

nephrotic syndrome

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47
Q

lead to a fluid shift from the intravascular spaces to tissue (interstitial space).

A

nephrotic syndrome

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48
Q

urinary retention, urinary frequency, urinary urgency

A

signs and symptoms of UTI in a toddler

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49
Q

How can you help a UTI without meds

A

no iced tea/soda, cranberry juice (more with e.coli), cleanliness of genital area and keeping well hydrated

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50
Q

what is something that can cause a UTI that is internal

A

constipation

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51
Q

How can you prevent constipation

A

high fiber/fluid intake, exercise

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52
Q

wetting the bed

A

enuresis

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53
Q

when is wetting the bed considered abnormal

A

when it occurs past the age of bladder control (5+)

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54
Q

what are some requirements to be diagnosed with enuresis

A

2-3 times a week, 3+ months

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55
Q

enuresis occurs more in females or males?

A

males

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56
Q

What is considered a sufficient bladder volume to be able to hold all night

A

300-350 mL

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57
Q

psychological factors that can cause enuresis

A

divorce, hospitalization, family stress and tendencies (siblings such as twins)

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58
Q

how can enuresis be treated

A

medications, bladder training, fluid restriction in the evening, waking up in the middle of the night to urinate, or conditioned reflex response device

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59
Q

Inflammation and impairment of the glomeruli not caused by direct infection of the kidneys.
- followed by exposure to bacterial infection

A

Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
(APSGN)

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60
Q

what is the BEST form of treatment for enuresis that cures it in about 2-3 weeks

A

conditioned reflex response device (wired underwear)

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61
Q

what are some drugs used to treat enuresis

A

trofanil, oxybutrinine/ditropan (they use a bed pan), DDADP

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62
Q

abnormal defect where the urine flows backward due to misshaped entrance angle of the ureters to the bladder

A

vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)

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63
Q

diagnosis by cystourithrogram, long term antibiotics (grades 1-2) and surgical procedures (grades 4-5) for grade 3 you attempt to treat with antibiotics and if it doesn’t work surgery is needed

A

managing VUR

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64
Q

Symptoms include gross hematuria (cloudy, dark tea-
colored urine), periorbital edema, anorexia, proteinuria,
and hypertension.

A

Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
(APSGN)

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65
Q

what kind of drain do they often use after surgical intervention for VUR

A

jackson pratt

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66
Q

Acute renal disease characterized by thrombocytopenia,
hemolytic anemia, and acute kidney injury.

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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67
Q

Main cause of acute kidney injury in early childhood, usually caused by e. coli

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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68
Q

Presents with subtle onset with vomiting, abdominal pain,
anorexia, and ascites.
-toxins enter the bloodstream and destroy red blood cells
-Breakdown of red blood cells clog the kidneys

A

HUS

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69
Q

refers to temporary or permanent damage to the kidneys that results in loss of normal kidney function.

A

renal failure

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70
Q

_____ infections are cause of majority
of acute illnesses in children

A

respiratory

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71
Q

Oronasopharynx, pharynx, larynx, and trachea

A

upper resp tract

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72
Q

Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

A

lower resp tract

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73
Q

have protection due to maternal antibodies

A

infants under 3 months

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74
Q

infection rate increases at what months

A

3-6

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75
Q

high rate of viral infections; the incidence of these infections decreases by age __.

A

5

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76
Q

what are some airway obstruction risks in infants

A

the airway is very small
the airway is short in length so it has increased risk for infection and inflammation
infants have immunologic immaturity
infants can not support their head to open their airway when they can’t breath well

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77
Q

Older than __ years: increase in Mycoplasma pneumonia and beta-strep infections

A

5

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78
Q

it pushes down on their airway when they lay down and can impede breathing

A

problem with babies fat necks

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79
Q

Mycoplasmal infections more common in what seasons

A

fall and winter

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80
Q

Asthmatic bronchitis more frequent in ____ weather

A

cold

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81
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) season considered to be

A

winter and spring

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82
Q

newborn resp. per min

A

30-55

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83
Q

1 year resp. per min

A

25-40

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84
Q

3 year resp. per min

A

20-30

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85
Q

7 year resp. per min

A

16-22

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86
Q

10 year resp. per min

A

16-20

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87
Q

17 year resp. per min

A

12-20

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88
Q

Tonsils become inflamed/reddened, Report of sore throat/difficulty swallowing

A

tonsilitis

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89
Q

why are babies not good coughers?

A

they have immature chest musculature

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90
Q

Caused by numerous viruses, common cold

A

Nasopharyngitis

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91
Q

nasopharyngitis symptoms

A

◦ Fever
◦ Nasal inflammation and secretions
◦ Irritability, restlessness*
◦ Decreased appetite and fluid intake
◦ Vomiting and diarrhea

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92
Q

“Strep throat” (bacterial)
-Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS)

A

Streptococcal Pharyngitis

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93
Q

Characterized by hoarseness, “barking” cough, inspiratory stridor, and varying degrees of respiratory distress
-Affect larynx, trachea, and bronchi

A

croup syndromes

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94
Q

Most common croup disorder (viral)
-Low-grade fever, restlessness, hoarseness,
barky cough, dyspnea, inspiratory stridor,
retractions, fear and anxiety over dyspneic state

A

acute Laryngotracheobronchitis
(LTB)

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95
Q

infant symptoms of cute Laryngotracheobronchitis
(LTB)

A

nasal flaring, intercostal retractions,
tachypnea, and continuous stridor

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96
Q

Also called spasmodic croup, midnight croup
- Paroxysmal attacks of laryngeal obstruction
- Occurs chiefly at night, sudden; transient

A

acute spasmodic laryngitis

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97
Q

Serious obstructive, inflammatory process
-Potential for complete respiratory obstruction/failure – medical emergency! (Go to the ER!)

A

Bacterial Epiglottitis

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98
Q

Prevention of bacterial epiglottis

A

Hib vaccine

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99
Q

Predictive signs of bacterial epiglottis

A

Absence of cough, drooling, and agitation

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100
Q

diagnostic signs of bacterial epiglottis

A

Tripod position*, steeple sign

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101
Q

Also called tracheobronchitis
-Associated with an upper respiratory infection, usually viral, and inflammation of the trachea,
bronchi, and bronchioles

A

Bronchitis

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102
Q

bronchitis symptoms

A

Persistent dry, hacking cough as a result of inflammation; chest pain; thick sputum; may vomit
thick mucus

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103
Q

babies are ______ breathers

A

nose

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104
Q

what should be assessed to evaluate respiratory function in children

A

oxygenation
work of breathing
airway clearance ability
temperature

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105
Q

What can you use to assess oxygenation

A

cap refill, pulse ox, skin color, LOC, restlessness, anxiety, ABG

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106
Q

What can you look at to assess work of breathing

A

nasal flaring, accessory muscle use, are they grunting, head bobbing

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107
Q

How can you assess adequate airway clearance

A

can they cough (productive/nonproductive)
what do their lungs sound like
how often are they coughing

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108
Q

what causes obstructive emphysema

A

mucus build up in the alveoli

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109
Q

how long does nasopharyngitis typically last

A

10 days

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110
Q

what is a common cause of nasopharyngitis

A

viral: rhinovirus, respiratory syncytial virus, adenovirus

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111
Q

what is the treatment regimen for nasopharyngitis

A

fluid, rest, decongestants

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112
Q

Acute viral infection, affects infants
-Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) or other viruses

A

RSV/Bronchiolitis

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113
Q

Caused by seasonal reaction to allergens most often
in the autumn or spring

A

allergic rhintis

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114
Q

what is the most common age for a Peds patient to get nasopharyngitis

A

under 5

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115
Q

what helps filter and protect the respiratory system and GI tract?

A

tonsils

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116
Q

Infection or inflammation in lower airways

A

bacterial pneumonia

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117
Q

requirements for tonsil removal are

A

at least 7 beta strep infections in one year or 5 infections in 2 years with really high fever; OR peritonsilar absess OR massive hypertrophy

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118
Q

If the tonsils are removed what does the nurse need to assess for after surgery

A

bleeding

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119
Q

when is a tonsillectomy patient at most risk for bleeding

A

right after surgery 7-10 days post-op

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120
Q

how can you tell if a tonsillectomy patient is bleeding

A

frequent swallowing, blood in vomit

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121
Q

ear pain

A

otalgia

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122
Q

The “flu” is a viral respiratory illness that is most
prevalent during fall and winter months

A

influenza A and B

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123
Q

whooping cough
Common cold manifestations: runny nose, congestion, sneezing, mild fever, mild cough

A

pertussis

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124
Q

what are the 3 types of croup syndromes

A

laryngotracheo-bronchitis, acute spasmodic croup, epiglottitis

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125
Q

how can laryngotracheo-bronchitis be treated

A

decadron, nebulized epinephrine ( both reduce airway edema)

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126
Q

very harsh cough that occurs mostly at night and is more likely in mid oct- mid april

A

acute spasmodic croup

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127
Q

Lung infection with acid-fast bacilli, spread by airborne droplets

A

tuberculosis

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128
Q

how can you provide short term relief for acute spasmodic croup

A

steamy shower or cold night air

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129
Q

helps keep alveoli open

A

grunting

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130
Q

assist with ventilation

A

retractions, head bobbing

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131
Q

increases diameter of air passages

A

nasal flaring

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132
Q

opens the airway

A

Hyperextension of head and neck

133
Q

Type of respiratory failure
-Acute, diffuse, and inflammatory lung injury
-Allows fluid to leak into the lungs

A

acute resp. distress syndrome (ARDS)

134
Q

the _____ swells and causes obstruction of the airway

A

epiglottis

135
Q

what gender is epiglotitis more prevalent in

A

males

136
Q

what does the cough of a epiglottitis patient sound like

A

frog like

137
Q

When the lumens of the bronchioles fill with mucus and it can not be cleared. ends up resulting in obstructive emphysema.

A

bronchiolitis

138
Q

what does the respiratory rate have to be for a baby to have tachypnea

A

80

139
Q

what is the peak age for bronchiolitis

A

2-6 months

140
Q

what can a nurse give to a patient with bronchiolitis to reduce inflammation

A

steroids/albuterol

141
Q

what are the names of the 3 stages of pertussis

A

catarrhal, paroxysmal, convalescent (CPC)

142
Q

pertussis stage that happens in the first 2 weeks and the child is most infectious

A

cattarhal

143
Q

pertussis stage that involved a loud bark cough and can last 3-4 weeks

A

paroxysmal

144
Q

pertussis stage when the child gradually begins to get better and cough decreases

A

convalescent

145
Q

what are some stimuli that can trigger and asthma attack?

A

pollen, dust, pollution, weather changes, second hand smoke, dietary allergen, mold, pet dander

146
Q

what gender is more likely to have asthma until adolescent stage

A

boys

147
Q

what gender is more likely to have asthma after adolescent stage

A

girls

148
Q

what accounts for the bronchial obstruction associated with asthma

A

mucus, inflammation, bronchospasm

149
Q

what is an NSAID that can be helpful in the prevention management of asthma

A

singulair

150
Q

Most common chronic condition

A

asthma

151
Q

what is a common steroid given to children with asthma

A

decadron or albuterol

152
Q

what is the most common lethal genetic illness among caucasians

A

cystic fibrosis

153
Q

what is the avg life expectancy of someone with cystic fibrosis

A

31

154
Q

what is unique about the chance of getting cystic fibrosis

A

it is a recessive gene so both parents must be a carrier and there is still only a 1/4 chance their child will get it

155
Q

what are the major systems effected by cystic fibrosis

A

resp and GI

156
Q

fat in the stool as a result of cystic fibrosis

A

steatorrhea

157
Q

protein in the stool as a result of cystic fibrosis

A

azotorrhea

158
Q

coughalator, nebulizers, chest PT, administering pancreatic enzyme (if not given they would have 6-7 loose stools a day)

A

nursing management for a cystic fibrosis patient

159
Q

what are some side effects of nephrotic syndrome

A

proteinuria
hypoalbuminemia
hyperlipidemia
edema

160
Q

what is a characteristic of urine unique of nephrotic syndrome

A

frothy like beer, still normal color

161
Q

what usually precedes nephrotic syndrome

A

viral illnesses

162
Q

edema that hangs out in the abdomen is called

A

ascites

163
Q

what is the hallmark sign for peritonitis

A

rigid abdomen

164
Q

what diseases put you at risk for UTI

A

diabetes and renal failure

165
Q

why do epiglotitis patients drool so much

A

hurts to swallow

166
Q

site for blood oxygenation

A

placenta

167
Q

Umbilical vein carries __________ blood to
body

A

oxygenated

168
Q

at birth, Pressures higher in the _____ ventricle than
_____

A

left than the right

169
Q

Pressures higher in pulmonary artery than
_____

A

aorta

170
Q

at birth, Alveoli expand reducing _______
pressure

A

pulmonary

171
Q

Deoxygenated blood returns from body to
right side of the heart via RA, Transported to lungs via RV, Returns from the lungs to LA, LV pumps oxygenated blood to body

A

post-natal circulation

172
Q

normal child urine output

A

1-2 mL/kg/hr

173
Q

congestive heart failure consists of:

A

Decreased cardiac output, decreased tissue perfusion, activity intolerance

174
Q

Decreased blood flow to organs results in
failure to meet ______ needs.

A

metabolic

175
Q

Tachycardia, Gallop rhythm, Diaphoresis, Poor perfusion, Restlessness, Fatigue are signs of

A

impaired myocardial infarction in kids

176
Q

tachypnea, dyspnea, accessory muscle use, nasal flaring, grunting noise, orthopnea are signs of

A

pulmonary congestion

177
Q

in systemic venous congestion what side of the heart is weak?

A

right side

178
Q

what is a nursing intervention for a child with systemic venous congestion

A

have them sit up at a 90 degree, especially if they are retaining fluid so the fluid doesn’t put pressure on their organs. fluid restriction

179
Q

abnormal number of heart sounds (3-4 audible sounds)

A

gallop rhythm

180
Q

difficulty breathing while laying down

A

orthopnea

181
Q

what is the area of greatest pressure in the heart after birth

A

left ventricle

182
Q

only vein in the post-birth body that carries oxygenated blood

A

pulmonary vein

183
Q

what organs are affected by CHF

A

all of them - problems in the heart mean problems everywhere

184
Q

the fetal heart structure that becomes a ligament. it connects the pulmonary artery with the aorta

A

ductus arteriosus

185
Q

the fetal heart structure that connects the inferior vena cava with the umbilical vein

A

ductus venous

186
Q

the fetal heart structure that is an opening between the right atrium and the left atrium

A

foramen ovale

187
Q

what side of the heart has higher pressure while the baby is in utero

A

right side

188
Q

what is different about a baby’s lungs while in utero

A

they are collapsed

189
Q

how does a fetus receive oxygen

A

through umbilical veins

190
Q

Hepatomegaly, Edema, Weight gain, Distended neck veins (only in older children) are signs of

A

Systemic Venous Congestion

191
Q

meds improving cardiac fn

A

Digoxin, Angiotension-converting enzyme (ACE)
inhibitors (Capoten,Vasotec)

192
Q

med that helps heart pump more blood

A

digoxin

193
Q

Measure oxygen saturations and pressures
in chambers and great arteries, evaluate CO, or visualize defects in blood flow patterns

A

cardiac catheterization

194
Q

how often should you check a patients vitals after they had a cardiac cath

A

every 15 mins for an hr then every 30 mins for 2 hrs

195
Q

What are some things the nurse needs to repeatedly asses post cardiac cath

A

color of extremity distal to the site, pedal pulse, fluid intake , flexion restriction (straight legs for 4-6 hrs)

196
Q

what kind of shunt is an atrial septal defect

A

left - right

197
Q

the CHD where oxygenated blood returns from the lungs through the pulmonary artery and flows through the defect and then back to the lungs

A

atrial septal defect

198
Q

what is a hallmark sign of atrial septal defect on an x-ray

A

increased pulmonary vascular marking

199
Q

what type shunt is a ventricular septal defect

A

left - right

200
Q

what is the most common defect

A

ventricular septal

201
Q

what is unique about pressures in the heart of someone with ventricular septal defect

A

the entire left side of the heart has high pressure not just the ventricle

202
Q

What is common with ventricular septal defects

A

CHF, murmurs

203
Q

a channel is formed between the pulmonary artery and aorta

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

204
Q

what can be done to close the patent ductus arterioles defect

A

prostoglandin inhibitors
surgical ligation
occlusion via cardiac cath

205
Q

desaturated blood exits the heart without going to the lungs

A

right to left shunt

206
Q

4 defects involved in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

ventricular septal defect
pulmonic stenosis
overriding aorta
right ventricular hypertrophy

207
Q

blue spells (because they cause hypercyanosis)
-Pulmonary artery spasm shunting large
amounts of deoxygenated blood into the
circulation.

A

TET spells

208
Q

treatment options for Tet spells

A

knee to chest
oxygen
morphine
IV fluids

209
Q

what age group is rarely effected by tet spells

A

younger than 2 months

210
Q

what are some implications of hypoxia in the tetrology of fallot

A

cyanosis
polycythemia
risk for CVA (stroke)
careful fluid management

211
Q

what type of shunt is coarctation of the aorta

A

right-left

212
Q

why type is shunt is tetrology of fallot

A

right-left

213
Q

what does coarctation of the aorta put the child at risk for

A

neurological disorder because 50% of the brain is developed in the 1st year of life

214
Q

Narrowing results in increased pressure
proximal to the defect and decreased
pressure distal to obstruction

A

coarctation of the aorta

215
Q

what do kids typically complain of when they have CHF as a result of coarctation of the aorta

A

dizzy, headaches, nose bleeds

216
Q

what should you assess for with chest tubes post-op cardiac surgery

A

drainage- not over 3ml/kg/hr for more than 3 hrs or more than 5-10ml/kg in any one hr

217
Q

pulmonary changes that can happen post cardiac surgery

A

atelectasis, pneumothorax, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion

218
Q

collapsed lung

A

atelectasis

219
Q

what are most blot clots due to post cardiac surgery

A

heart/lung bypass machine

220
Q

after surgery, ________ antibiotics need to be administered to prevent infection of open wound

A

prophylactic

221
Q

systemic vascular disease that causes
inflammation of multiple small blood
vessels including the coronary arteries.

A

kawasaki disease

222
Q

what age is kawasaki disease most prevalent

A

under 5, peak is toddlers

223
Q

stage ? of kawasaki disease:
-high fever
-red eyes (conjunctivitis) with NO drainage
-inflamed oral mucosa/ pharynx (strawberry tongue)
-rash
-edema on hands/feet
-irritability

A

stage 1

224
Q

how long does stage one of kawasaki disease last

A

4-5 days

225
Q

stage ? of kawasaki disease:
-peeling fingers/toes
-arthritis
-afebrile
-irritability

A

stage 2

226
Q

Gradual resolution of remaining symptoms
especially joint pain and irritability, Cardiac outcomes range from no damage to myocardial infarction and permanent cardiac damage.

A

convalescent stage of kawasaki

227
Q

how can the nurse prevent cardiac damage of a kawasaki patient

A

High dose IV immunoglobulins, high dose aspirin, no MMR or VAR immunizations for a year after infection

228
Q

What disease should the parents of a kawasaki patient immediately tell the doctor if it is acquired

A

chicken pox

229
Q

signs of myocardial infarction in children

A

complaining of belly pain
vomiting
restlessness
inconsolable cry
pallor
shock

230
Q

what age has the highest prevalence of rheumatic fever

A

5-14

231
Q

cardiac valve damage, joint involvement, non-puritic rash, sub Q nodules, involuntary jerks (chorea) are signs of

A

rheumatic fever

232
Q

if present this indicates a prior strep infection

A

Antistreptolysin

233
Q

they take out the old heart and replace it with a new one

A

orthotopic heart transplant

234
Q

the new heart is place along side the old one as a piggy back pump

A

heterotopic heart transplant

235
Q

what type of heart transplant is very rarely done with children

A

heterotopic

236
Q

what is the most common type of life threatening arrhythmia

A

hypertropic cardiomyopathy

237
Q

what are some causes of CHF

A

volume overload - especially L-R shunts (most common)
pressure overload - resulting from obstruction
decreased contractility - myocardial ischemia
high cardiac demands -body needs more O2 than the heart can pump

238
Q

When is cyanosis usually more apparent

A

<85%

239
Q

what does dehydration in hypoxic kids increase the risk of ?

A

CVA

240
Q

___ bones at birth that ossify to form ___ bones.

A

300, 206

241
Q

Growth plates until early __, Bones are more porous and elastic and less ___.

A

20s, dense

242
Q

Flat feet until __ years old.

A

6

243
Q

Pigeon-toed gait until __ years old

A

8

244
Q

“Knock-knees” until __ years old.

A

7

245
Q

Congenital deformity; ribs and sternum grow inward, severity increases during growth spurts

A

Pectus Excavatum

246
Q

No contact sports for 6 months and physical therapy, pain management, and breathing exercises postoperatively after which surgery?

A

Pectus Excavatum

246
Q

for pectus excavatum, Surgery to reshape ____ and relieve pressure if pulmonary or cardiovascular effects.

A

sternum

247
Q

in pectus excavatum surgery, Metal bars placed during surgery may be removed after __ years (when bones have healed and fused).

A

2

248
Q

Extra digits on the hands and/or feet.

A

Polydactyly

249
Q

Digits are fused and fail to separate (often
involves nerves and muscles).

A

Syndactyly

250
Q

Genetic collagen disorder resulting in fragile bones

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

251
Q

Protein of the body’s connective tissue that bones are
formed around.

A

collagen

252
Q

t/f: females ossify bones first

A

true

253
Q

t/f: When changing diapers, caregivers should lift
children with osteogenesis imperfecta by the hips.

A

true. do not pull on extremities!

254
Q

Disorder of the tibial growth plate that causes inward
turning of the lower legs, which worsens with time, Also known as tibia vara or bowed legs.

A

blount disease

255
Q

blount disease is suspected if leg alignment is not straightened by age __.

A

3

256
Q

Treat blount disease with bracing if younger than __ years old.

A

4

257
Q

Heel tilts in and down, forefoot turns in, and bottom of the foot faces inward or upward, can be bilateral or unilateral, more common in boys and have be genetic

A

Congenital Clubfoot

258
Q

Shorter Achilles tendon and foot and calf on affected side.

A

Congenital Clubfoot

259
Q

-Nonsurgical treatment using serial casting with long leg casts changed weekly (begin early before bones ossify).
-Percutaneous lengthening of Achilles tendon once casting is complete.
-Bracing for 2 to 4 years afterward to maintain correction.

A

congenital clubfoot

260
Q

an infant is born with congenital clubfoot and the nurse
tells the mother that serial casting should be started
soon after birth. The mother asks why treatment must
start so early? Which response, if made by the nurse,
would best explain the need for early treatment?

A

“Early treatment allows the bone to be reformed
before it hardens.”

261
Q

Inadequate coverage of the ball of the socket of the hip joint or dislocation of the ball from the socket.

A

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

262
Q

manifestations of Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

A

limited hip abduction, differing leg lengths,
uneven thigh skin folds, palpable and audible click as femoral head moves (Ortolani/Barlow test), and limping gait.

263
Q

DDH Treatment: Before 6 months of age:

A

bracing (Pavlik harness)

264
Q

DDH Treatment: 6 to 24 months:

A

closed-reduction surgery

265
Q

DDH Treatment: after 24 months:

A

open-reduction surgery

266
Q

Young bone fails to calcify due to vitamin D
deficiency.

A

rickets

267
Q

Usually occurs in children with dark skin and limited
exposure to sunlight who are exclusively breastfed
and do not receive vitamin D supplementation.

A

rickets

268
Q

treatment for rickets

A

vitamin D supplementation (or food), correction
of skeletal deformities. avoid magnesium
products

269
Q

Ball at the head of the femur slips off the neck of the bone at the growth plate.

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

270
Q

for SCFE, Treat with immediate surgical intervention to prevent _______ necrosis of the bone.

A

avascular

271
Q

risk factors for SCFE

A

male gender, obesity, renal disease, thyroid disease, pituitary disorders, and family history.

272
Q

Blood supply to the femoral head is disrupted, causing
necrosis and bone cell death.

A

Legg–Calvé–Perthes Disease (LCP)

273
Q

Manifests with a limp; may or may not have pain, self limiting condition in kids <6, occurs with 4 stages and lasts years

A

Legg–Calvé–Perthes Disease (LCP)

274
Q

treatment for Legg–Calvé–Perthes Disease (LCP)

A

-Surgery to reshape femoral head in older children (>8).
-Casting postoperatively for children >8 or to treat
without surgery for children 6 to 8.

275
Q

inflammation of the bone secondary to bacterial
infection.

A

Osteomyelitis

276
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common bacterial
cause for _________

A

osteomyelitis

277
Q

treat osteomyelitis with ______

A

antibiotics (obtain blood cultures before starting, IV first)

278
Q

Progressive lateral curvature of the spine with rotation of the vertebrae, S shape of spine

A

scoliosis

279
Q

manifestations of scoliosis

A

truncal asymmetry, uneven shoulders, raised
hips, and rib hump.

280
Q

for scoliosis, Bracing prevents further curving and must be worn __ to __ hours per day and be properly fitted; avoid skin breakdown.

A

16 to 23

281
Q

Stretched or torn muscle or tendon.

A

strain

282
Q

Injury to a ligament.

A

sprain

283
Q

Broken bones; varying types, _______ in the growth plate have higher risk for deformity and impaired healing.

A

fractures

284
Q

Handle a wet cast with ____ _____

A

open palms

285
Q

Elevate the cast above the level of the ____ and ice to
prevent swelling.

A

heart

286
Q

Fascia are tight, non-stretching bands that divide the
muscle groups of the body, Swelling and pressure inside one of the muscle group sections (compartments) can impair tissue circulation and cause necrosis.

A

compartment syndrome

287
Q

A child with a newly diagnosed ulnar fracture has a
short-arm cast applied. Which of the following
symptoms would be most concerning for the nurse?

A

uncontrolled, severe pain

288
Q

indirect pulling on the skin
that puts traction on muscle and bone

A

skin traction

289
Q

surgically placed pins through bone to apply pull

A

skeletal traction

290
Q

Microtrauma damage to bone, muscle, or tendon from
repetitive stress without time to heal.

A

overuse injuries

291
Q

__ pairs of cranial nerves (emerge from brain)

A

12

292
Q

__ pairs of spinal nerves (emerge from spinal
cord)

A

31

293
Q

Contract and relax to produce movement

A

muscular system

294
Q

neuromuscular system is fully formed at birth but _______

A

immature

295
Q

Gross and fine motor development of neuromuscular system over first __ years of life.

A

2

296
Q

Reaction to noxious odor

A

CN I (olfactory):

297
Q

Ability to regard a person’s face, maintain eye contact,
reach for an object, and pupillary response

A

CN II (optic):

298
Q

Move a brightly colored toy through the visual fields to
assess tracking, corneal light reflex, and pupillary response

A

CN III (oculomotor):

299
Q

Symmetric eye movements and corneal light reflex

A

CN IV (trochlear):

300
Q

Response to light touch on face

A

CN V (trigeminal):

301
Q

Same as trochlear (CN IV)

A

CN VI (abducens):

302
Q

Facial symmetry during crying (motor) and response to salt solution on tongue (sensory)

A

CN VII (facial):

303
Q

Ability to startle to loud noises and turn to a familiar voice

A

CN VIII (vestibulocochlear):

304
Q

Observe strength and quality of cry, ability to suck and
swallow, and gag reflex

A

CN IX (glossopharyngeal): (same as CN X- vagus)

305
Q

Ability to perform coordinated movements of neck and
shoulders

A

CN XI (accessory)

306
Q

Symmetrical movements of tongue

A

CN XII (hypoglossal)

307
Q

Complex, nonprogressive, and permanent disorder.
-Results from improper development or insult to
brain.
manifestations: increased or
decreased muscle tone, gross and fine motor delays,
feeding difficulties, seizures, and joint deformities.

A

Cerebral Palsy

308
Q

includes brain and spinal cord, Congenital disorders that occur during development of the neural tube, typically 17 to 27 days after conception

A

neural tube defects

309
Q

Most common neural tube defect, Failure for neural tube to fuse in the lower spinal area.

A

spina bifida

310
Q

spina bifida 1 type with no obvious protrusion, intact skin, and hair tuft.

A

occulta

311
Q

spina bifida 1 type with obvious protrusion involving the meninges only.

A

meningocele

312
Q

spina bifida 1 type with meninges and spinal
cord in obvious protrusion.

A

myelomeningocele

313
Q

Cesarean birth to protect the extruded sac

A

spina bifida 2

314
Q

Skull fails to fuse during 3rd or 4th week of
gestation, Brain and cranial membranes protrude along midline of skull.

A

Encephalocele

315
Q

Most common location is the base of the skull

A

encephalocele

316
Q

failure of neural tube to close at cranial end, Function brainstem, but large portions of the skull
and brain are missing.

A

anencephaly

317
Q

Inherited diseases characterized by muscle wasting and
progressive muscle weakness due to muscle fiber
degeneration.

A

Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy

318
Q
  • Loss of motor function throughout all muscles of the
    body due to mutation in the survival motor neuron.
  • Degeneration of the motor neurons in the anterior
    horn cells of the spinal cord.
  • Progressive, symmetrical weakness and atrophy of
    the proximal muscles leading to premature death
A

spinal muscular atrophy

319
Q

Damage to the spinal cord resulting in loss of
physical and/or sensory function.

A

spinal cord injury

320
Q

life threatening medical emergency in pt with spinal cord injury that if delayed can cause seizures, stroke, retinal hemorrhage, cardiac arrest or death

A

autonomic dysreflexia

321
Q

causes of autonomic dysrelfexia

A

bladder distention/ UTI, discomfort, bowel impaction, pressure sore or skin bones, fracture, ingrown toenails

322
Q

symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia

A

increased BP, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, bradycardia, flushed clammy. and goosebumps

323
Q

A child with a history of T3 spinal cord injury
presents to the emergency department with
headache, facial flushing, and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Which of the following conditions would the nurses
suspect?

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

324
Q

Autoimmune response resulting in an attack on the peripheral nervous system and demyelination of the peripheral nerves, Triggered by recent bacterial or viral infections, acute inflammatory demyelinating
polyradiculoneuropathy

A

Guillain–Barré Syndrome

325
Q

May require intubation and respiratory support if
diaphragm and respiratory muscles are impaired.

A

Guillain–Barré Syndrome Treatment

326
Q

A child is admitted to the inpatient unit with Guillain
–Barré syndrome. Which assessment should the
nurse perform first?

A

Respiratory assessment

327
Q

Neuroparalytic illness caused by toxins from Clostridium
botulinum bacteria, Symmetric descending flaccid paralysis of muscles under
autonomic and voluntary control.

A

botulism

328
Q

decreased muscle tone

A

hypotonia