Patho Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

A

Pain

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2
Q

Pain that results from injury to tissues

A

Nociceptive pain

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3
Q

Two types of nociceptive pain

A

Somatic and visceral

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4
Q

Injury to somatic issues (bones joints muscles)

A

Somatic pain

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5
Q

Injury to visceral organs (small intestines)

A

Visceral pain

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6
Q

Results from injury to peripheral nerves, response poorly to opioids

A

Neuropathic pain

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7
Q

Conscious experience of pain

A

perception

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8
Q

Pain impulses are enhanced by ______

A

prostaglandins, substance P (make nerve endings more sensitive to pain)

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9
Q

Brain suppresses pain by using endogenous opioid compounds such as:

A

endorphins/ enkephalins

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10
Q

what integrates and interprets pain sensations

A

parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex

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11
Q

what governs the emotional response to pain

A

cingulate gyrus

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12
Q

relay station- (to and from periphery)- “OUCH! thats a 10 on pain scale!”

A

thalamus

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13
Q

learning and memory- “don’t forget you did that, idiot”

A

hippocampus

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14
Q

treating the excruciating pain with narcotics not only activates the pain control system but also activates the dopaminergic reward system

A

Amygdala/nucleus accumbens

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15
Q

sudden onset pain, usually subsides once treated

A

acute pain

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16
Q

persistent or reoccurring, lasts 3-6 months, often difficult to treat

A

chronic pain

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17
Q

Areas of skin that send their sensory
information into specific spinal cord segments, visceral structures share these sensory afferents with skin areas

A

dermatomes

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18
Q

maximal intensity of the visceral pain are in the _____/______ areas, up neck, down inner arm

A

retrosternal/ percordial

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19
Q

Arises from internal organs such as the
intestine, bladder and heart, tumor involvement or obstruction

A

visceral pain

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20
Q

radiated from origin to different site

A

referred pain

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21
Q

drugs that relieve pain without causing the loss of consciousness

A

analgesics

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22
Q

most effective pain relievers available

A

opioids

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23
Q

Increasing the dose beyond the upper limit provides no greater analgesia

A

Analgesic ceiling

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24
Q

most dangerous acetaminophen interaction

A

alcohol

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25
Q

hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen can be reversed with ________

A

acetylcysteine

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26
Q

Works by preventing the hepatotoxic metabolites of acetaminophen from forming

A

acetylcysteine

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27
Q

Bad-tasting with odor of rotten eggs, Vomiting of oral dose common, Available in IV

A

acetylcysteine

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28
Q

overdose of acetaminophen

A

hepatic necrosis

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29
Q

hepatic necrosis symptoms

A

hepatic failure, coma, death
early symps: N/V, diarrhea, sweating, abdominal pain

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30
Q

Inhibits cyclooxygenase and has antiinflammatory,
analgesic, and antipyretic actions

A

ibuprofen

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31
Q

Adverse effects of NSAIDs

A

heartburn, ulceration and GI bleeding, acute renal failure, CV risk, MI, Stroke, thrombotic event

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32
Q

Opium was used primarily as a sedative and
as a

A

treatment for diarrhea

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33
Q

3 classes of opioid receptors

A

Mu, Kappa, Delta

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34
Q

Mu receptors:

A

Analgesia, respiratory depression,
euphoria, sedation, decrease GI motility and
physical dependence

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35
Q

Kappa receptors:

A

Analgesia, decrease GI motility
and sedation

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36
Q

the prototypical opioid and is used as
the standard of comparison for all other opioids

A

morphine

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37
Q

Other strong opioid agonists :

A

Fentanyl, Hydromorphone

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38
Q

moderate to strong opioid agonists:

A

Codeine, oxycodone, hydrocodone

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39
Q

Relieves pain without affecting other senses (for
example, sight, touch, smell, and hearing), no loss of conciousness

A

morphine

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40
Q

AE of morphine

A

resp. depression, constipation, orthostatic hypotension, urinary retention, cough suppression, increased ICP, Euphoria/dysphoria, sedation

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41
Q

State in which an abstinence syndrome will occur if the dependence-producing drug is abruptly withdrawn; it is NOT equated with addiction

A

Physical dependence

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42
Q

Drug use that is inconsistent with medical or social norms

A

abuse

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43
Q

Behavior pattern characterized by continued use of a psychoactive substance despite physical, psychologic, or social harm

A

addiction

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44
Q

Large organ behind stomach, Exocrine & endocrine gland, Role in regulation of
glucose homeostasis

A

pancreas

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45
Q

Hormone secreting part of pancreas

A

islets of Langerhans

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46
Q

4 Types of cells: pancreas

A

alpha, beta, delta, F cells

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47
Q

make & secrete glucagon

A

alpha cells

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48
Q

make and secrete insulin

A

beta cells

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49
Q

alpha cells, breakdown for energy

A

glucagon

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50
Q

beta cells, storage of excess energy

A

insulin

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51
Q

glucagon secreted
from pancreas (alpha)

A

hypoglycemia

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52
Q

Provides fuel through glycogenolysis,
breakdown of glycogen into glucose, Causes liver to release glucose to
tissues, increases BG

A

glucagon

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53
Q

aka dextrose, Primary source of energy in body, simplest form of carb, circulates in blood to meet requirements for quick energy

A

glucose

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54
Q

low BG level, Confusion, irritability,
tremors, sweating; coma and death

A

hypoglycemia

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55
Q

high BG level, polyuria, polydipsia,
polyphagia, weight loss, fatigue

A

hyperglycemia

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56
Q

Secreted from pancreas, Goes to liver, Breaks down glycogen into
glucose

A

glucagon

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57
Q

Storage of glucose in the liver

A

glycogen

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58
Q

Source of energy, Stored in liver as glycogen

A

glucose

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59
Q

Daily secretion of insulin

A

40-50 U

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60
Q

Increased _____ release when food is
digested

A

insulin

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61
Q

Balance of glucagon & insulin fail, Issues with insulin supply or poor use of available insulin

A

diabetes mellitus

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62
Q

Leading cause of adult blindness, end stage renal disease, & lower limb amputation, More that half have hypertension & high cholesterol

A

DM

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63
Q

Hgb A1C 6.5% or HIGHER=
- random glucose of 200mg/dL or HIGHER

A

DM

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64
Q

Measures glycosylated hemoglobin as a percentage of total Hgb

A

hemoglobin A1C

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65
Q

ADA normal < ____%

A

5.7%

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66
Q

ADA hgbA1C goal for patient
with diabetes < __-__%

A

6.5-7%

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67
Q

Autoimmune disorder, antibodies developed against b cells, Lack of insulin production/ production of defective insulin, B cell destruction for months before symptoms

A

Type 1 DM

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68
Q

Type 1 DM: 3 P’s

A

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

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69
Q

Body cannot get glucose; breaks down
fat & protein- attempt for energy

A

weight loss in DM type 1

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70
Q

Body cells lack needed energy from
glucose

A

weakness/fatigue in Dm type 1

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71
Q

insulin resistance and/or inadequate insulin secretion, Combination of inadequate insulin secretion,
insulin resistance, ineffective use of insulin, pancreas makes SOME insulin

A

type 2 Diabetes mellitus

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72
Q

Distinction between type 1 and type 2 = presence of ______ ___

A

endogenous insulin

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73
Q

S/S of hyperglycemia- appear when 50-
80% of Beta cells are
no longer secreting
insulin

A

type 2 DM

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74
Q

autoimmune destruction, No endogenous insulin, Juvenile onset; < 20, normal insulin receptors and insulin treatment

A

Type 1 DM

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75
Q

overweight, age, family hx,
genetic, Normal to high insulin; then reduced, Decreased or defective receptors
treatment of weight loss, diet/exercise, oral meds, maybe insulin

A

type 2 DM

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76
Q

_____ restores patient’s ability to:
* Metabolize carbs, fats, & proteins
* Store glucose in the liver
* Convert glycogen to fat stores

A

insulin

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77
Q

number of units of insulin per milliliter

A

concentration

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78
Q

Deliver long and rapid/short acting insulin

A

basal-bolus insulin

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79
Q

long – acting insulin to keep BG from
fluctuating

A

basal

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80
Q

Rapid acting insulin to mimic burst
insulin in response to ↑ BG levels

A

bolus

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81
Q

2 different insulins: 1 intermediate & 1
rapid/short acting

A

fixed-combination insulins

82
Q

Simulate varying levels of endogenous
insulin that occur naturally, mealtime and basal coverage

A

fixed-combo

83
Q

when mixing insulin,

A

first draw up regular or rapid acting insulin (clear), then intermediate or NPH insulin (cloudy)

84
Q

Method to correct blood glucose levels;
Sub-q doses of rapid/short acting insulin
adjusted based on BG levels

A

sliding-scale insulin

85
Q

main cause of uncomplicated, community-acquired UTIs and cause of less than 50% of hospital-acquired UTIs

A

E. coli

86
Q

blood flow to kidneys through _____ artery, out though ____

A

afferent, efferent

87
Q

80-85% of nephrons lie in _____ cortex

A

renal

88
Q

basic functioning unit of kidney, 1.5 million per
kidney in normal birth weight individuals

A

nephron

89
Q

_____ artery arises from the aorta, dividing into smaller branches, all forming an ______ arteriole

A

renal, afferent

90
Q

Afferent arteriole divides into a capillary
network:

A

glomerulus

91
Q

80% of electrolytes get reabsorbed at the ______

A

Proximal convoluted tubule:

92
Q

at the descending Loop of Henle, ____ gets reabsorbed

A

water, some sodium, urea, other solutes

93
Q

at the ascending Loop of Henle, _____ gets reabsorbed

A

chloride, sodium

94
Q

causes are factors external to kidneys that reduce renal blood flow (cause is BEFORE kidneys)

A

prerenal

95
Q

prerenal causes:

A

severe dehydration, heart failure, decrease CO

96
Q

t/f: acute kidney failure is typically reversible

A

true

97
Q

Decreases glomerular filtration rate, causes oliguria, Autoregulatory mechanisms attempt to preserve blood flow

A

prerenal

98
Q

Causes include conditions that cause direct damage to kidney tissue, (occurs IN the kidney)

A

intrarenal

99
Q

____ Results from prolonged ischemia- can cause acute
tubular necrosis.

A

intrarenal

100
Q

Inflammation of glomerulus usually autoimmune

A

intrarenal

101
Q

Results from ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. epithelial cells that dont get oxygen, they start to slough off causing obstruction

A

acute tubular nephrosis

102
Q

_____ causes include Benign prostatic hyperplasia, Prostate cancer, Calculi, Trauma, Extrarenal tumors
(occurs AFTER kidneys)

A

postrenal

103
Q

First line drugs for all patients with volume overload. Watch electrolytes!!

A

diuretics

104
Q

Furosemide (Lasix) is a _____ diuretic

A

loop

105
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide is a _____ diuretic

A

thiazide

106
Q

Spironolactone is a _____ diuretic

A

potassium-sparing

107
Q

works at ascending loop of henle, puts sodium and chloride back into tubule system, causing ostmotic effect because water (and electrolytes) always follows sodium

A

Furosemide diuretic

108
Q

most of electrolytes taken back in (reabsorbs the most), produces most diuresis

A

proximal convuluted tubule

109
Q

distal convoluted tubule only takes back in ___% of electrolytes

A

10%

110
Q

Blockade of sodium and chloride
reabsorption into body, allow into tube then into toilet

A

diuretics

111
Q

Acts on ascending loop of Henle to block reabsorption

A

furosemide

112
Q

if given furosemide PO, ___ mins, IV, ___ mins

A

60, 5

113
Q

uses of furosemide

A

Pulmonary edema, Edematous states, Hypertension

114
Q

Adverse effects of furosemide

A

Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, dehydration, Hypotension, Hyperuricemia, ototoxicity

115
Q

Hormone produced by the adrenal gland; functional unit of the kidney it’s job is to conserve sodium and water and excrete potassium.

A

aldosterone

116
Q

produced by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary in response to osmoreceptors
located in the hypothalamus, fluid is held back (restricted)

A

Antidiuretic Hormone

117
Q

t/f: Adh turns on by itself at night to stop from urinating all night long

A

true, if no Adh at night: nocturia

118
Q

____ receptors on the distal tubule and collecting duct

A

Adh

119
Q

kicks in around midnight with water conservation and reduced urination at night

A

Diurnal rhythm

120
Q

excess hydrogen ions in blood=

A

acidic

121
Q

bicarb level:

A

22-26

122
Q

if kidney fails, Retention of water— causing what?

A

edema, weight gain, HTN

123
Q

if _____ fails, also retention of urea (BUN), creatinine, Na+ (HTN), K+ (hyperkalemia, life threatening cardiac arrythmias), phosphorus(hyperphosphatemia)

A

kidney

124
Q

plasma (serum) creatinine level:

A

0.5-1

125
Q

Urea is a commonly used marker for the diagnosis of renal failure/kidney injury; by-product of protein metabolism (not produced at a constant rate)

A

BUN

126
Q

BUN level

A

8-18 mg/dL

127
Q

reasons for elevated BUN

A

decreased GFR, dehydration

128
Q

is released from skeletal muscle at
a relatively constant state, is freely filtered at
the glomerulus, and is not reabsorbed or
metabolized by the kidneys

A

creatinine

129
Q

if the kidneys are not filtering properly, ______ will be retained and the ____ ______will be
increased

A

creatinine, serum creatinine

130
Q

Can be influenced by age, gender, muscle mass, diet,
concomitant diseases, & drugs

A

serum creatinine

131
Q

The NIH Consensus recommends that
patients with chronic kidney disease be
referred to a renal team when the

A

serum creatinine begins to elevate.

132
Q

determination of how much the glomerulus
filters; can be determined by how much
creatinine is CLEARED into the toilet (also
known as creatinine clearance)

A

glomerular filtration rate

133
Q

5 fn of kidneys

A

-maintain fluid/electrolye balance
-maintain acid-base balance
-Vitamin D and calcium metabolism
-RBC production via hormone erythropoietin
-main BP via renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

134
Q

a GFR of less than ___ mL/min represents a loss of more than half of normal kidney function

A

60

135
Q

The kidney converts the vitamin D from
the skin and diet to the active form of vitamin D, also called

A

calcitriol

136
Q

________ __ is necessary for the absorption
of calcium from the GI tract

A

vitamin D

137
Q

Calcium and phosphorus must always be
“__ _____” in the blood

A

in balance

138
Q

Normal Phosphorus level:

A

2.4-4.4mg/dL

139
Q

Normal Calcium level:

A

8.6 -10.2 mg/dL

140
Q

hypocalcemia causes:

A

Neuromuscular Excitability:
- tetany, paresthesias, hyperactive
DTRs, Trousseau’s sign,
Chovstek’s sign, seizures

141
Q

contraction of the hand and finger when blood flow occluded

A

Trousseau’s sign

142
Q

elicited by tapping the facial nerve

A

Chovstek’s sign

143
Q

Serum level greater than10.2 mg/dL

A

hypercalcemia

144
Q

hypercalcemia causes:

A

malignancy and hyperparathyroidism, bone loss related to immobility

145
Q

Manifestations of ________: Loss of cell membrane
excitability: fatigue, weakness, lethargy,
incoordination

A

hypercalcemia

146
Q

when phosphorus levels go to high, _____ goes low

A

calcium

147
Q

Most abundant intracellular cation, Extracellular concentrations are low

A

potassium

148
Q

potassium level:

A

3.5-5

149
Q

potassium lives inside or outside cell?

A

mostly inside, because levels are only 3.5-5

150
Q

Conducting nerve impulses, Maintaining the electrical
excitability of muscle, Regulating acid-base balance

A

potassium

151
Q

regulation of potassium levels Primarily by the ______

A

kidneys

152
Q

Renal excretion increased by _______, also most diuretics

A

aldosterone

153
Q

insulin is key to the ____, puts poatssium back into them

A

cells

154
Q

Potassium uptake enhanced

A

alkalosis

155
Q

Potassium exits cells

A

acidosis

156
Q

Serum potassium levels less than 3.5 mEq/L

A

hypokalemia

157
Q

Dosages for prevention: oral potassium

A

16-24 mEq/day

158
Q

Dosages for deficiency: oral potassium

A

40-100 mEq/day

159
Q

dont push ______, unless cannot take PO and if IV needed, dilute it and push SLOWLY

A

potassium

160
Q

NEVER push _____ ________, results in cardiac arrest

A

potassium chloride

161
Q

Contraindications to potassium (treatment for hypokalemia): do not use in patients predisposed to

A

hyperkalemia (severe renal impairment)

162
Q

Excessive elevation of serum
potassium

A

hyperkalemia

163
Q

causes of _______:
Severe tissue trauma
Acute acidosis (draws potassium out
of cells)
Misuse of potassium-sparing
diuretics
Overdose with IV potassium

A

hyperkalemia

164
Q

Disruption of electrical activity of the
heart is a consequence of
- mild elevation:
severe elevation:

A

hyperkalemia
- 5-7
- 8-9

165
Q

Noncardiac signs of hyperkalemia

A

Confusion, anxiety, dyspnea,
weakness or heaviness of legs,
numbness/tingling of hands/feet/lips

166
Q

hyperkalemia treatment:

A

no food or meds with potassium

167
Q

***Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
(Kayexalate) should not be given to a
patient with a ______ ____ because
bowel necrosis can occur. Auscultate
bowel sounds prior to administration.

A

paralytic ileus

168
Q

Concentration within the cells much
higher than outside the cell. Plasma
Mg levels 1.5-2.4mEq/L

A

magnesium

169
Q

Most bound to protein uncharged, Helps regulate neurochemical transmission and excitability of
muscle, Obtained from food, excreted in urine and stool

A

magnesium

170
Q

Serum level less than 1.3 mg/dL

A

hypomagnesium

171
Q

Causes of hypomagnesium

A

alcoholism, GI losses, enteral or parenteral
feeding deficient in magnesium, medications, burns

172
Q

Manifestations of hypomagnesium

A

neuromuscular irritability, muscle
weakness, tremors, ECG changes and dysrhythmias,
alterations in mood and level of consciousness

173
Q

Second most common infection, in sexually active young women and older adults in nursing homes

A

UTI

174
Q

upper UTI in _______
-Acute pyelonephritis
-Acute bacterial prostatitis

A

kidneys

175
Q

upper UTI in _______
-Acute pyelonephritis
-Acute bacterial prostatitis

A

kidneys

176
Q

lower UTI in _____ and _____
-Acute cystitis
-Acute urethral syndrome

A

bladder and urethra

177
Q

When the bladder fills, the distal end of the
______ closes to prevent urine from backing up
into the kidney

A

ureter

178
Q

If this mechanism is not working properly
bacteria can reflux into the ureters and up to the
kidneys—

A

vesicoureteral reflux

179
Q

Lower urinary tract infections

A

cytisis

180
Q

Frequently the treatment of choice for oral
therapy of UTIs

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
(TMP/SMZ)

181
Q

Suppress bacterial growth by
inhibiting tetrahydrofolic acid, a
derivative of folic acid or folate

A

sulfonemides and trimethoprim

182
Q

Moderate
infection (treatment at home with
oral antibiotics)

A

mild pyelonephritis

183
Q

Requires
hospitalization and IV antibiotics

A

severe pyelonephritis

184
Q

Inflammation of the prostate caused by local
bacterial infection
- high fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, localized
pain, dysuria, nocturia, urinary urgency,
urinary frequency, urinary retention

A

Acute Bacterial Prostatitis

185
Q

total inability to pass urine.

A

acute urinary retention

186
Q

incomplete bladder emptying
despite urination.

A

chronic urinary retention

187
Q

AE of trimethroprim/sulfamethoxazole

A

N/V, GI, rash, hyperkalemia

188
Q

found on heart muscle; increases HR and strength of contraction

A

B1

189
Q

skeletal muscle, bronchioles of lungs, arteries of legs, pilorection

A

B2

190
Q

arteriole smooth muscle

A

a1

191
Q

regulates CNS output of SNS; hypothalamus

A

a2

192
Q

alpha-1 receptors
are also located on the smooth
muscle of the ______ gland

A

prostate

193
Q

normal pH

A

7.35-7.45

194
Q

normal CO2

A

35-45

195
Q

normal bicarb

A

22-26

196
Q

2 things that control pH

A

respiratory and metabolic; because kidneys hold onto bicarb, resp holds onto CO2

197
Q

ROME:

A

Resp
Opposite
Metabolic
Equal

198
Q

resp acidosis common for

A

COPD, CO2 builds up

199
Q

drug OD, CO2 builds up, also

A

resp acidosis

200
Q

too much CO2 let out, ex anxiety attack

A

resp alkalosis

201
Q

breathe out/lose CO2, become

A

alkali