Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Peds Final > Peds Cardiology -Junkins > Flashcards

Peds Cardiology -Junkins Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate and heart rate for a 12?

A

12: R 12-16, HR 60-100 (adult value)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a described mechanism of tachycardia?
Increased phase 4 depolarization (e.g. sympathetic stimulation)
A. Acquired phase 4 depolarization
B. Prolonged action potential duration
C. Unidirectional block plus slowed conduction
D. Decreased phase 4 depolarization (e.g. parasympathetic stimulation)

A

D. Decreased phase 4 depolarization (e.g. parasympathetic stimulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

*What are the differences in Peds EKGs?

A
  • Heart rates are faster
  • Conduction intervals are SHORTER due to the smaller cardiac size PR interval ( may look like a right axis deviation, dominant R wave in V1 and T-wave inversions in V1-3 (“juvenile T-wave pattern”)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

*What are the differences in Peds EKGs?

A
  • Heart rates are faster
  • Conduction intervals are SHORTER due to the smaller cardiac size PR interval ( may look like a right axis deviation, dominant R wave in V1 and T-wave inversions in V1-3 (“juvenile T-wave pattern”)
  • Rightward QRS axis > +90°
  • RSR’ pattern in V1
  • Slightly peaked P waves
  • Slightly long QTc (≤490ms in infants≤6 months)
  • Q waves in the inferior and left precordial leads
  • Marked sinus arrhythmia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is sinus arrhythmia normal in children?

A

yes –> benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common symptomatic dysrhythmia in kids?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia (due to an accessory pathway –> WPW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
According to the Lilly text, the incidence of Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome is closest to which of the following?
A. 1 in 1,000 people
B. 1 in 100,000 people
C. 1 in 10,000 people
D. 1 in 100 people
A

A. 1 in 1,000 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All are acceptable non-pharmacologic maneuvers to reverse a patient who is in clinically stable supraventricular tachycardia, EXCEPT?
A. Carotid massage
B. Coughing while sitting with the upper body bent forward
C. Momentarily plunging infant’s face into a bath of ice water
D. External cardioversion
E. External defibrillation

A

E. External defibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

*What are the 2 familial causes of Long QT Syndrome and their modes of inheritance?

A

-Jervell-Lange-Nielson Syndrome: Autosomal recessive
(also has bilateral sensorineural hearing loss)

-Romano-Ward syndrome: Autosomal Dominant (most common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the treatment for Torsades de Pointes?

A

IV Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the dangerous symptoms associated with syncope?

A
  • Syncope especially with EXERTION or EXCITEMENT- anger, fear, startle
  • Cardiac arrest with exercise or excitement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

*What are the physical findings commonly seen with Marfan’s Syndrome? What is the mode of inheritance?

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Hindfoot valgus
  • Pneumothorax
  • Dural extasia
  • Pectus excavatum
  • Arachnodactyly –> close hand and see thumb on the other side
  • dilation of the aorta
  • scoliosis
  • reduced elbow extension
  • skin striae
  • myopia > 3 diopters
  • mitral valve prolapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

*What causes the ductus arteriosus to close after a baby is born?

A

After birth, PGE1 levels drop as O2 tension rises -> causes the ductus arteriosus to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

**What medication can be given to close a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Indomethicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common cyanotic heart disease? What is the primary developmental defect?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot
-abnormal anterior and cephalad displacement of the conal septum, resulting in an enlarged aorta and obstructed pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

*What is the most common cyanotic heart disease? What is the primary developmental defect?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot
-abnormal anterior and cephalad displacement of the conal septum, resulting in an enlarged aorta and obstructed pulmonary artery

17
Q

What are the 4 features of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. VSD
  2. Subvalvular pulmonic stenosis
  3. Overriding aorta that receives blood from both ventricles
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
18
Q

*What congenital heart disease is associated with a “boot-shaped” heart on x-ray?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

19
Q

True or False: Diastolic murmurs can be a normal finding in an infant

A

FALSE

Diastolic murmurs are never innocent

20
Q

*Which heart condition is associated with a continuous machine-like heart murmur?

A

PDA

21
Q

*Which heart condition is associated with a loud 4-5/6 , harsh holosystolic murmur, middiastolic rumble and a loud P2?

A

VSD

22
Q

*Which heart conditions are associated with a holosystolic murmur? (2)

A

Tricuspid regurgitation, mitral regurgitation

23
Q

*Which heart condition is associated with a wide, fixed S2, Systolic murmur at upper LSB +/- mid-diastolic murmur?

A

ASD

24
Q

*Which heart condition is associated with a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur with radiation to the neck, Murmur is often preceded by a systolic click?

A

Aortic stenosis

25
Q

*Which heart condition is associated with an accentuated S2 (not normally very prominent)?

A

Transposition of the Great Arteries

26
Q

*Which heart condition is associated with a holosystolic murmur that may have a crescendo and decrescendo quality or a continuous murmur may be present?

A

Tricuspid atresia

27
Q

*Which heart condition is associated with a loud P2, absent murmur?

A

Eisenmenger syndrome

28
Q

*What cardiac defects are associated with Down’s Syndrome?

A

ASD, VSD, AV septal defect (endocardial cushion defect)

29
Q

*What congenital defect is associated with a diabetic mother?

A

Transposition of great vessels

30
Q

**What are the possible complications of Kawasaki Disease?

A
  • Coronary artery (CA) aneurysms
  • Depressed myocardial contractility
  • Heart failure
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Arrhythmias
  • Peripheral arterial occlusion
31
Q

**What is the diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki Disease?

A

-Fever > 5 days and 4/5 CREAM criteria:

  • bilateral Conjunctival injection without exudate
  • polymorphous Rash
  • changes in Extremities (reddening of palms or soles,edema of hands or feet,desquamation of skin)
  • cervical Adenopathy (> 15 mm, usually unilateral, single, painful)
  • Mucosal involvement: changes in lips and mouth (reddened, dry, or cracked lips,strawberry tongue)
32
Q

Regarding Kawasaki’s disease, which of the following is not considered part of the diagnostic criteria?
A. Fever, greater or equal to 5 days duration
B. Bilateral conjunctival injection
C. Strawberry tongue
D. Cervical lymphadenopathy
E. Desquamation of the hands and feet
F. Diffuse petechial rash

A

F. Diffuse petechial rash

33
Q

Regarding Kawasaki’s disease, which of the following is not considered part of the diagnostic criteria?

A. Fever, greater or equal to 5 days duration
B. Bilateral conjunctival injection
C. Strawberry tongue
D. Cervical lymphadenopathy
E. Desquamation of the hands and feet
F. Diffuse petechial rash
A

F. Diffuse petechial rash

34
Q

The benefits of IVIG in the treatment of Kawasaki’s disease include which of the following:

A. Eliminates the development of coronary artery aneurysms
B. If combined with high dose ASA before day 10 of illness, symptoms and fever should improve within 36 hours
C. If administration is started on day 14 of illness, no benefit is seen
D. The risks of IVIG use has been shown to outweigh the benefits in children

A

B. If combined with high dose ASA before day 10 of illness, symptoms and fever should improve within 36 hours

35
Q

What are the major and minor criteria for Rheumatic fever?

A 
JONES (major) CAFE PAL (minor) 
Joint involvement
O=heart=myocarditis 
Nodules
Erythema marginatum 
Sydenham chorea 
CRP inc. 
Arthralgia 
Fever 
Elevated ESR 
Prolonged PR interval 
Anamnesis of Rheumatism 
Leukocytosis

(2 major or 1 major and 2 minor needed)

Peds Final (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions