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Oral pathology > Pedo > Flashcards

Pedo Flashcards

1
Q

Initiation seen in ______weeks inutero
bell stage- apposition________weeks
cap stage- enamel organ ______weeks inutero

A

6 wweks
14 weeks
9 weeks

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2
Q

Apposition and maturation defects

A

apposition:Defects= enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence
masturation: Defects= enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining

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3
Q
  • Enamel organ
    – Ameloblasts-
  • Dental papilla
    – Odontoblasts-
    – Central cells -
  • Dental follicle
    – Cementoblasts -
    – Osteoblasts -
    – Fibroblasts -
A
  • Enamel organ
    – Ameloblasts à enamel
  • Dental papilla
    – Odontoblasts à dentin
    – Central cells à pulp
  • Dental follicle
    – Cementoblasts à cementum
    – Osteoblasts à alveolar bone
    – Fibroblasts à PDL
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4
Q

Congenitally Missing Teeth:

A

3rd molars>man.2nd pm>max.lat>max.2nd pm
primary max. lat most commonly congenitally missing

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5
Q
  • Enamel organ
  • Dental papilla
  • Dental follicle
    forms in _____stage and ____ weeks inutero
    and defects
A

cap stage and 9 weeks in utero
Defects= cyst, odontoma, gemination, fusion, dens in dente

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6
Q

Dens Invaginatus most common in

A

permanent maxillary lateral

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7
Q

Vertically elongated pulp chamber and short
roots

A

Taurodontism

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8
Q

Blue sclera

A

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

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9
Q

Dentin Dysplasia
* Type I-
Type II-

A
  • Type I- “chevron-shaped” pulps.
    Type II-“thistle tube-shaped” pulps.
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10
Q

Enamel Pearl
* Chunk of enamel blocking attachment of
__________ fibers

A

Enamel Pearl
* Chunk of enamel blocking attachment of
Sharpey’s fibers

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11
Q

Only primary tooth with cusp of Carabelli, oblique ridge, and DL groove

A

Primary Maxillary 2nd Molar

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12
Q

ML “ice cream cone” cusp is highest and sharpest

A

Primary Mandibular 1st Molar

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13
Q
  • MB cusp is largest
A

Primary Mandibular 1st Molar

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14
Q

CEJ dips more on mesial half, resulting in S-shaped cervical ridge

A

Primary Mandibular 1st Molar

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15
Q

Amalgam for Primary Tooth
* ______mm deep

A

Amalgam for Primary Tooth
* 1.5mm deep

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16
Q

Stainless Steel Crown
* For teeth affected by extensive caries especially past the ________angles
* _________mm occlusal reduction

A
  • For teeth affected by extensive caries especially past the axial line angles
  • 1mm occlusal reduction
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17
Q

Strip Crown
indication:

A

For primary incisors with proximal caries that approximates or involves incisal edge

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18
Q
  • Furcation radiolucency is a sign of _________ for a primary pulp
A
  • Furcation radiolucency is a sign of necrosis for a primary pulp
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19
Q

Indirect Pulp Cap cements

A

Calcium hydroxide or RMGI

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20
Q

Calcium hydroxide May cause _____________ root resorption in primary teeth

A

internal root resorption

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21
Q

Pulpectomy Usually contraindicated in __________ because they usually have lots of accessory canals

A

primary first molars

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22
Q

Extraction Only exception may be
for a _________ primary
molar

A

Only exception may be
for a second primary
molar

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23
Q
  • Space management=
  • Space maintenance=
  • Space regaining=
A
  • Space management= proactive
  • Space maintenance= reactive
  • Space regaining= retroactive
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24
Q

Primary Canine Loss (Cs) appliance

A

Lower lingual holding arch or
Nance holding arch from
permanent first molars

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25
Q

Primary First Molar Loss (Ds) appliance

A
  • Band and loop
  • LLHA or Nance
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26
Q

Primary Second Molar Loss (Es) appliance

A
  • Distal shoe from primary first molar to unerupted permanent first molar
  • LLHA or Nance if permanent first molar is already erupted
27
Q
  • Average tooth pierces bone with ______ root formation
  • Average tooth pierces gingiva with ______root formation
A
  • Average tooth pierces bone with two-thirds
    root formation
  • Average tooth pierces gingiva with threefourths root formation
28
Q
  • Primary molar lost before age 7 - eruption of
    premolar
  • Primary molar lost after age 7 - eruption of
    premolar
A
  • Primary molar lost before age 7 - eruption of
    premolar is delayed
  • Primary molar lost after age 7 - eruption of
    premolar is accelerated
29
Q

Space Closure
* Most occurs within the first ______ months after
tooth loss

A

Space Closure
* Most occurs within the first 6 months after
tooth loss

30
Q

Ankylosed Primary Molars more common in

A

Ds than in Es (updated)

31
Q

graft
– Free gingival graft -
– Connective tissue graft-

A

graft
– Free gingival graft -widen band of keratinized tissue
– Connective tissue graft -root coverage

32
Q

Eruption Cyst
* Most common around _______ and _______ teeth

A

Eruption Cyst
* Most common in children* Most common around
incisors and mandibular first molars

33
Q

High Frenum Tx:

A

Tx: close space first, then
frenectomy

34
Q
  • Localized aggressive
    periodontitis
    – Involves ______ and ________ teeth
    – Tx:
  • Generalized aggressive
    periodontitis
    – Tx:
  • Prepubertal periodontitis
    – Involves ______ teeth
    – Tx:
A

Localized aggressive
periodontitis
– Involves first permanent
molars and permanent
incisors
– Tx: surgical intervention and
antibiotics
* Generalized aggressive
periodontitis
– Tx: surgical intervention and
antibiotics
* Prepubertal periodontitis
– Involves primary molars
– Tx: debridement and
antibiotics

35
Q

Dental trauma
* Increased overjet ______mm more often

A
  • Increased overjet (>6mm) more often
36
Q
  • Tetanus coverage
    – Active immunization is three ______, _______-, and
    ________ vaccines during first year, booster at
    _____, _________, and ______ years and then every ________years after
A
  • Tetanus coverage
    – Active immunization is three tetanus, diphtheria, and
    pertussis (Tdap) vaccines during first year, booster at
    1.5, 3, and 6 years and then every 4 to 5 years after
37
Q
  • Radiographs at incident and follow-ups at ___, _________, and ______ months after
A
  • Radiographs at incident and follow-ups at 1, 2,
    and 6 months after
38
Q

Extrusion less than 3mm
Tx:

A

when a primary tooth is extruded less than 3 mm, no treatment is needed and the recommended plan is to follow-up and monitor for spontaneous repositioning.

39
Q
  • If extruded more than 3mm -
  • If patient is seen before formation of periapical blood
    clot -
A
  • If extruded more than 3mm - extract
  • If patient is seen before formation of periapical blood
    clot - reposition carefully, flexible splint for 1-2 weeks, endo treatment
40
Q

Avulsed primary teeth
Tx:

A

avulsed primary teeth are typically not replanted because it can render them susceptible to trauma again or can cause damage to the permanent successor.

41
Q
  • Internal (IRR)= _______ layer in pulp is damaged
  • External (ERR)= __________ layer in PDL is damaged
    – Surface=
    – Replacement=
    – Inflammatory=
    – Cervical (CRR)=
    – Apical (ARR)=
A
  • Internal (IRR)= odontoblastic layer in pulp is damaged
  • External (ERR)= cementoblastic layer in PDL is damaged
    – Surface= normal PDL, small areas
    – Replacement= ankylosis, risk increases with long-term splinting
    – Inflammatory= granulation tissue, radiolucency
    – Cervical (CRR)= biologic width area, pink spot
    – Apical (ARR)= orthodontic forces
42
Q
  • Ages ________ are most commonly abused or
    neglected
A
  • Ages 0 to 3 are most commonly abused or
    neglected
43
Q

Potentially Cooperative
* Defiant=
* Uncontrolled= _______-years old,
* Timid= ________ years old,
* Tense-cooperative= _____- years or older
* Whining=

A

Potentially Cooperative
* Capable of appropriate behavior, but are disruptive in dental setting
* Defiant= any age, spoiled and stubborn, do not like to be advised by adults
* Uncontrolled= 3-6 years old, tantrum
* Timid= 3-6 years old, may hide behind parents (shielding), may deteriorate into uncontrolled
* Tense-cooperative= 7 years or older, white knuckler, want to behave but very nervous
* Whining= continuous, usually no tears

44
Q

Frankl Rating Scale
* 1=
* 2=
* 3=
* 4=

A

Frankl Rating Scale
* 1= definitely negative
* 2= negative resistance
* 3= positive acceptance
* 4= definitely positive

45
Q
  • First dental visit should be by ______ year old
A
  • First dental visit should be by 1 year old
46
Q

Knee-to-Knee Exam
* For infants (________years old)

A

Knee-to-Knee Exam
* For infants (<2 years old)

47
Q

Aversive Conditioning not for _______ children

A
  • Not for timid and tense-cooperative
48
Q

ADHD
* More common in girls/boys
* Most commonly first appears age _____
* Three most common psychostimulant
medications:

A

ADHD
* Inattentive (AD) and hyperactive (HD)
* More common in boys
* Most commonly first appears age 3 to 6
* Three most common psychostimulant
medications:
– Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
– Atomoxetine (Strattera)
– Amphetamine (Adderall)

49
Q

Autism
Condition related to:
symptoms:

A

Autism
* Condition related to brain development that impacts how a person perceives and socializes with others
* Spectrum refers to wide range of symptoms
– Repetitive behavior
– Heightened sense of light and sound

50
Q

Local Anesthesia in Children
* ________ is maximum recommended dose of
anesthetic

A

Local Anesthesia in Children
* 4.4mg/kg is maximum recommended dose of
anesthetic

51
Q

– Fill bag with oxygen and place hood on patient’s nose with flow rate of __________ L/min
* Contraindications
– __________ is most common complication

A

– Fill bag with oxygen and place hood on patient’s nose with flow rate of 4-6 L/min
– Nausea is most common complication
* Contraindications
– <2 years old
– Uncooperative
– Wheezing episode (mild to moderate asthma is okay)

52
Q

Four Plateaus of Stage I Anesthesia

A

Four Plateaus of Stage I Anesthesia
* Paresthesia= tingling
* Vasomotor= warm
* Drift= floating, target analgesia for nitrous
sedation
* Dream= eyes closed, jaw sag

53
Q

fluoride for Children
* <3 years old -
* >3 years old-
* >6 years old -
– ____% NaF solution weekly
– _____% NaF solution daily

A

luoride for Children
* ≤3 years old à fluoride drops, because children
this young have difficulty chewing and swallowing
tablets
* >3 years old à fluoride tablets and lozenges
* >6 years old à fluoride mouth rinse
– 0.2% NaF solution weekly
– 0.05% NaF solution daily

54
Q

Thumbsucking
* Very common up to age ____
* Depends on time per day, duration, and intensity
* Effects are
* Intervention with appliance therapy recommended by age _________
appliances:

A

Thumbsucking
* Very common up to age 3
* Effects are increased overjet, anterior open bite, maxillary
constriction, and posterior crossbite
* Intervention with appliance therapy recommended by age 5 or 6
* Crib= stainless steel fixed reminder appliance in anterior palate
region
* Bluegrass= fixed reminder appliance with roller in anterior palate
region

55
Q
  • Natal teeth=
  • Neonatal teeth=
    associated with _________- disease
A
  • Natal teeth= present at birth
  • Neonatal teeth= erupt within first 30 days
    Associated with * Riga-Fede Disease
56
Q

ECC
* Any dmft on patient younger than age ______
– Infants should drink from a cup as they approach
age _______-
– First dental visit by age ________
children under the age of _______ use an amount of toothpaste the size of a smear of a grain of rice
and a pea-size amount for those ______.

A
  • Any dmft on patient younger than age 6
    – Infants should drink from a cup as they approach age 1
    – First dental visit by age 1
    children under the age of 3 use an amount of toothpaste the size of a smear of a grain of rice and a pea-size amount for those 3 to 6. (updated)
57
Q

all primary teeth should exfoliate by the age of ______

A

12

58
Q

_________is used when there isunilateralloss of aprimary first molar.

A

Aband and loop

59
Q

The tooth most likely to erupt after the permanent mandibular second premolar is the permanent __________.

A

maxillary canine

60
Q

The first permanent tooth to erupt is the ___________.

A

mandibular first molar around 6 years of age.

61
Q

_________ is not acceptable obturation material for primary teeth.

A

Gutta percha

62
Q

The most common age range for dental trauma is _______ years old.

A

8-12

63
Q

The most common cause of pulp calcification in primary teeth is __________.

A

trauma

Oral pathology (14 decks)

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