Pediatrics Flashcards

0
Q

What are the features of slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

It usually occurs between the ages of eight and 15 and is more common in boys and overweight or obese children. It presents with limping and pain, and limited internal rotation of the hip is noted on physical exam.

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1
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia in children less than two?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae is one of the most common etiologies in this age group and high-dose amoxicillin is the drug of choice.

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2
Q

Typical presentation for intussusception

A

Usually children under 2, most common cause of intestinal obstruction from 6-36 months. presents with paroxysms of colicky abd pain, with drawing the legs up toward the abdomen. Vomiting may follow episodes, it may become bilious. Palpable RUQ mass in about 2/3 of pts. About 70% of pts stool contains occult or gross blood, +/- current jelly appearance.

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3
Q

Age at presentation of pyloric stenosis

A

4-6 wks

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4
Q

Presentation of choledochal cyst

A

Classic triad of RUQ pain, jaundice and palpable mass

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5
Q

Typical presentation for Meckel’s diverticulum in children

A

Painless lower GI bleeding

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6
Q

What tinea infection in children always requires systemic antifungal therapy?

A

Tinea capitis. It requires systemic therapy to penetrate the affected hair shafts.

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7
Q

What are the most common causes of isolated protein urea in children?

A

Transient proteinuria is the most common cause of a positive urinary dipstick for protein in children. It is associated with fever, the Griss exercise, or exposure to extreme cold, which may act by altering renal hemodynamics. This benign condition is distinguished from orthostatic proteinuria because it resolved when the underlying condition is no longer present. Orthostatic proteinuria, also called benign postural proteinuria, is the most common cause of non-transient proteinuria in children.

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8
Q

How is the diagnosis of orthostatic protein urea made?

A

The simplest way is to collect two urine specimens for urinary protein to creatinine ratio. The first is collected after the child has been recumbent during the night and is collected as a first morning specimen. The second is collected after the child has been upright for it at least 40 to 60 minutes. An increased protein to creatinine ratio in the upright specimen and normal in the recumbent specimen establishes the diagnosis.

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9
Q

Deliberate suffocation rather than SIDS should be suspected in what circumstances?

A

When the child is older than six months, if there were previous similar deaths in siblings, simultaneous twin deaths, or evidence of pulmonary hemorrhage. There is usually no history of recurrent apnea or cyanosis in cases of SIDS; when such reported events have only been witnessed by one caretaker, deliberate suffocation should be suspected.

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10
Q

Should infants be given vitamin D supplementation? Which infants? When? How much?

A

Infants who take less than 1 L of formula per day and breast-feeding infants should receive vitamin D supplementation. They should be given 400 IU of vitamin D daily. The supplementation should be started within the first two months of birth.

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11
Q

What is the likely etiology of a homogeneous beefy red rash in the perineal area of a child, especially if it does not respond to treatment for Candida?

A

Group A Streptococcus pyogenes

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12
Q

At what level of fluoride in water is fluoride supplementation in children unnecessary?

A

Greater than 0.6 ppm

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13
Q

At what age should a lumbar puncture be performed to rule out meningitis in a febrile child with a fever?

A

Children less than 18 months of age. Over 18 months of age the child would be expected to demonstrate meningeal signs and symptoms or clinical findings suggesting an intracranial infection.

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14
Q

What is the age breakdown regarding when children who may have an infection should be admitted to the hospital?

A

Any child younger than 29 days old with a fever and any child who appears toxic, regardless of age should undergo a complete sepsis workup and be admitted to the hospital for observation until culture results are known or the source of the fever is found and treated. Observation with close follow-up follow-up is recommended for nontoxic infants 3 to 36 months of age with a temperature of less than 39.0 Celsius or 102.2 Fahrenheit. Children who are 29 to 90 days old who appear to be non-toxic and have negative screening laboratory studies including a CBC and urinalysis, can be sent home with precautions and with follow up in 24 hours.

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15
Q

When should testing for neonatal herpes simplex virus infection be considered?

A

In patients with risk factors which include: maternal infection at the time of delivery, use of fetal scalp electrodes, vaginal delivery, cerebrospinal spinal fluid pleocytosis, or herpetic lesions. Testing should also be considered when a child does not respond to antibiotics.

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16
Q

What are the pediatric recommendations for oral intake prior to surgery?

A

No solid food for eight hours, no formula for six hours, no breastmilk for four hours, and no clear liquids for two hours prior to the surgery.

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17
Q

How does Kawasaki disease present?

A

It is most common under the age of five. To diagnose the disease, fever must be present for five days or more with no other explanation. In addition at least four of the following must be present: 1) non-exudative conjunctivitis that spares the limbus 2) changes in the oral membranes such as diffuse erythema, injected or fissured lips, or strawberry tongue 3) erythema of palms and soles, and/or edema of the hands or feet followed by periungual desquamation 4) cervical adenopathy in the anterior cervical triangle with at least one node larger than 1.5 cm in diameter and 5) and erythematous polymorphous rash, which may be target like or purpuric and 20% of cases. It untreated it can cause heart failure, coronary artery aneurysm, myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, or occlusion of peripheral arteries.

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18
Q

What is the treatment of Kawasaki disease?

A

Hospitalization for treatment with I V immunoglobulin. In addition aspirin should be used for both its anti-inflammatory and it’s antithrombotic effects. Prednisone is considered unsafe in Kawasaki disease as a previous study showed an extraordinarily high rate of coronary artery aneurysm with its use.

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19
Q

What is the appropriate schedule for rotavirus vaccine?

A

The usual schedule is two months, four months and six months. The first dose should be given between six and 12 weeks of age, with additional doses given at 4 to 10 week intervals. The vaccine cannot be initiated after 12 weeks of age and should not be administered after 32 weeks of age, due to concerns about intussusception

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20
Q

What are the risk factors for, and the clinical findings in transient tachypnea of the new born?

A

TTN is the most common cause of neonatal respiratory distress. It is a benign condition due to residual pulmonary fluid remaining in the lungs after delivery. Risk factors include Caesarian delivery, Macrosomia, male gender, and maternal asthma and or diabetes.

Clinical findings include tachypnea without hypoxemia. Chest radiograph shows diffuse parenchymal infiltrates and fluid in the pulmonary fissures. The symptoms resolve without treatment within 24 hours.

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21
Q

Who should get two doses of influenza vaccine?

A

Children under the age of nine years unless they have been vaccinated previously. Children 3 to 8 years of age should receive one or 2 .5 mL doses of split virus vaccine intramuscularly.

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22
Q

What is the most common congenital infection? What are the risk factors for transmission?

A

Cytomegalovirus or CMV is the most common congenital infection and occurs in up to 2.2% of newborns. It I s the leading cause of congenital hearing loss it is transmitted by contact with infected blood, urine, or saliva, or by sexual contact. Risk factors for CMV include low socioeconomic status, birth outside North America, first pregnancy prior to age 15, history of cervical dysplasia, and a history of sexually transmitted diseases.

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23
Q

What supplement should play breast-feeding infants get as well as older children who are not breast-feeding?

A

Infants should have 400 international unit of vitamin D per day starting in the first few days of life if they are exclusively breast-feeding. Older children through adolescence should also be getting 400 international units of vitamin D per day. This is equivalent to 1 L of formula or milk per day– if they are drinking less than that they need to be supplemented in addition.

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24
Q

What is an acceptable percentage of weight loss in the first two weeks of life?

A

Up to 10%. Infants should regain their birth weight by two weeks of age.

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25
Q

What is the most common cause of cyanosis in a neonate? How about in a toddler?

A

In neonates it is transposition of the great vessels. In toddlers it is tetralogy of Fallot.

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26
Q

What is the cut off level of Billy Rubin the crying transfusion in a neonate who is 24 hours old?

A

11.7/

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27
Q

What is the difference between breast-feeding jaundice versus breastmilk jaundice?

A

Breast-feeding jaundice has early onset at 2 to 5 days of age, is transient and lasts only about up to 10 days. It is an exaggeration of physiologic jaundice and is essentially a starvation jaundice. it is due to insufficient frequency of feeds and is associated with infrequent stools.

Breast milk John just has a later onset at 5 to 10 days of age. It persists for more than one month. It is a prolongation of physiologic jaundice which is caused by a factor in human milk. These infants have normal frequent feeds and normal stooling. There serum bilirubin level eventually returns to normal without stopping breast-feeding.

If it persists for more than a month and there is question about whether some other process might be going on breast-feeding can be stopped for 24 to 48 hours and formula substituted. If the jaundice improves or resolves the diagnosis is clinched.

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28
Q

Mike when should a newborn have their first stool? When should you begin to consider abnormalities and what are they?

A

70% of infants pass meconium in the first 12 hours of life. After 24 hours secondary causes of failure to stool should be considered which include: Hirschsprung’s, imperforate anus, and cystic fibrosis. Another possibility is necrotizing enterocolitis, which is the most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction and septic abdomen neonates.

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29
Q

Define failure to thrive. What is its most common cause?

A

Inadequate physical growth diagnosed by observation of growth over time using a standard growth chart. The child’s weight falls below the 5th percentile or crosses two major percentile lines.

It is most commonly caused by inadequate caloric intake or some other form of parental neglect.

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30
Q

What is the most common malignancy seen in children?

A

Leukemia is the most common malignancy. The most common solid tumor is brain tumor.

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31
Q

How is lacrimal duct obstruction managed in a child?

A

There is limited evidence that milking or massaging the duct may help. Antibiotics or steroids are not indicated. It usually resolves by six months. If it has not resolved by one year a referral should be made for Dr. dilatation.

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32
Q

Briefly describe Wilms tumor

A

It is an embryonal neoplasm of the kidney and it commonly occurs between ages one and three.

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33
Q

Briefly describe retinoblastoma in children

A

It presents as a white instead of a red reflex. It may also present with strabismus. It is most common age 13 to 18 months.

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34
Q

Briefly describe neuroblastoma and children.

A

It is the second most common solid tumor after brain in children. one half Are found before the age of two and most have metastasized.

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35
Q

Briefly describe rhabdomyosarcoma on children

A

It is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children. It usually occurs in ages 2 to 5; head and neck are the most common area.

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36
Q

When should the first pediatric dental visit occur?

A

At age one

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37
Q

What parental guidance issues should be discussed at 2 to 4 weeks of age?

A

Sleep position, feeding, crying, response, growth. Car seats, exposure to smoking and shaking baby.

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38
Q

What parental guidance issues should be discussed at two months of age?

A

Sleep position, feeding, growth. Safety including Burns, sun exposure, smoking, car seats, and shaking baby.

39
Q

What parental guidance issues should be discussed at four months of age?

A

Introducing food, sleep, talking to baby, falling and car seats.

40
Q

What parental guidance issues should be discussed at six months of age?

A

Led to screening, food. Safety including childproofing house, poisons, walkers and car seats.

41
Q

What parental guidance issues should be discussed at nine months of age?

A

Table food, using cup, teeth. Safety including drowning, burns and car seats.

42
Q

Parental guidance is she should be discussed at 12 months of age?

A

Weaning, brushing teeth, daycare, playing with baby. Safety including childproofing house, choking and car seats

43
Q

What parental guidance issue should be discussed at 15 months of age?

A

Nutrition, feeding self, development. Safety including falls and car seat.

44
Q

What parental guidance issues should be discussed at 18 months of age?

A

Nutrition, TV, toilet training, language development. Safety including guns, lifejackets, traffic, poisons and matches.

45
Q

What parental guidance issue should be discussed at 24 months of age?

A

Talking with child, toilet training, TV, games, language. Safety including guns, lifejackets, traffic, poisons, matches.

46
Q

What parental guidance issue should be discussed at 36 months of age?

A

Nutrition, handwashing, talking, TV, peers, dentist. Safety including home safety, car seat and helmets.

47
Q

What is the average age for toilet training in girls versus boys?

A

In girls about age 2, and in boys about age 3.

48
Q

Compare and contrast nightmares and night terrors.

A

Nightmares occur during the second half of the night. The child can often be comforted after they have one. Night terrors, sleepwalking and confusional arousals occurring during the first half of the night. They occur during very deep sleep and the child usually does not remember them. The child should not be awakened. A technique for handling night terrors is to awaken the child several nights in a row about 15 minutes before the night terror usually occurs. This will often end bouts of night terrors.

49
Q

Describe growing pains.

A

Benign nocturnal limb pain within hours of falling asleep. It usually involves children ages 4 to 6. The pain involves the knees, shins, calves and sometimes thighs. Exam is normal and the treatment is reassurance only.

50
Q

What are the current recommendations for car seats and children?

A

Car seats should be backward facing until two years of age and 20 pounds. They should be forward facing until four years of age or 40 pounds. A booster seat should be used until eight years of age or 60 to 80 pounds.

51
Q

What is the number one cause of accidental death in children under five?

A

Drowning

52
Q

Normal development at one month

A

Looks at face, responds to voice, moves extremities equally, lifts head.

53
Q

Normal development at two months

A

Vocalizes, smiles, follows to midline, responds to sounds.

54
Q

Normal development at four months

A

Holds head at 90°, laughs, follows past midline, no persistent fist clenching.

55
Q

Normal development at six months

A

No head lag, bears weight on legs, rolls over, turns toward voice, transfers hand to hand.

56
Q

What is the average age of first true smile?

A

Six weeks

57
Q

Normal development at nine months

A

Sits without support, stands holding on, cruises, imitates speech, thumb finger grasp, dada and mama, peekaboo

58
Q

Normal development at one year

A

Stands alone, walks with help, specific dada and mama, responds to “no”, pincer grasp, waves bye-bye, bangs two blocks together

59
Q

Normal development at 18 months

A

Walks backwards, knows two body parts, drinks from cup, imitates household chores, uses 20 words, scribbles, stacks two blocks, understands simple commands.

60
Q

Normal development at two years

A

Kicks ball, takes off clothes, put two words together, knows 50 words, understands two part command, uses own name, stacks four blocks, knows six body parts.

61
Q

Normal development age 3

A

Washes hands, draws vertical line, understands tired and hungry, throws a ball, pedals a tricycle, asks why.

62
Q

Normal development at four years

A

Dresses self, plays games such as tag, says what to do when tired, hungry, or cold; knows first and last name, goes up and down stairs alternating feet, balances on either foot for two seconds, draws a circle.

63
Q

When should visual acuity first be checked in a child. At what visual acuity’s should referrals be made and at which ages?

A

Visual acuity should be attempted between threes it a visual acuity should be attempted between ages three and five. Usually three-year-olds are unable to cooperate, but occasionally they can. Most often visual acuity checking is first done at 4 to 5. A visual acuity of less than 20/50 at age 3, or less than 20/30 at age 5 should be referred.

64
Q

What is the normal timing of tooth eruption in children?

A

At 12 months a child you have four teeth. Then about one tooth per month should erupt until the child has 20 teeth at 28 months.

65
Q

What children should receive prescription oral fluoride at what ages?

A

Oral fluoride should be prescribed for children over six months of age whose primary water source is deficient in fluoride.

66
Q

When might lead to screening be started in children? What levels are abnormal and what is the treatment for them?

A

Screening is usually done at 9 to 12 months. A level of 10 to 20 mcg/dL should be repeated and followed. A level of 20 to 45 mcg/dL should cause a health department check of the house. I level greater than 45 micro grams per deciliter is grounds for a drug cure ration, over 70 µg is grounds for chelation with two drugs.

Be aware that the USPSTF recommends against screening asymptomatic children at average risk.

67
Q

At what age can DEET be used? And what concentration should be used?

A

DEET can be used for children over two months of age. The formula used to should have 10 to 30% concentration of DEET. The efficacy of DEET peaks at 30%, and stronger formulas are no more effective.

68
Q

What are the phases of adolescence with regards to thinking about health?

A

Early, 8 to 13 years: concrete thinkers, unable to clearly understand how actions relate to health.

Middle, 14 to 17 years: able to think more abstractly and capable of complex, logical thinking; experimentation with risky behaviors.

Late, 18 to 19 years: more longitudinal understanding of how behaviors can affect their health; further counseling on substance abuse, violence, sexual behaviors, etc.

69
Q

What are the most common reasons for hospitalizations in adolescents?

A

Pregnancy related issues, accidents, and mental health diagnoses.

70
Q

What vaccines should be given at about age 10 to 11 and what screening should be done at that time?

A

Tdap, meningitis, and HPV. A BIHEADS screening should be performed which includes body image, home and health, education and employment, activities, drugs and depression, and safety and sexuality.

71
Q

What does BIHEADS stand for?

A

Body image, home/health, education/employment, activities, drugs/depression, safety/sexuality

72
Q

At what age should children be screened for depression?

A

At 12 to 18. There is insufficient evidence to recommend screening prior to age 12.

73
Q

What percent of suicide deaths occur on the first attempt?

A

Two thirds

74
Q

In what situations is the consent of a parent unnecessary in order to treat a minor?

A

Contraception, STDs, rape, incest; drug or alcohol treatment; if the minor is emancipated, married, a parent, or living independently; in an emergency where delay in treatment could cause harm.

75
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa?

A

Refusal to maintain a body weight of 85% of expected. Intense fear of gaining weight. Distorted body image. Absence of three consecutive periods.

76
Q

How is overweight and obesity defined in children and adolescents?

A

From ages 2 to 18 weight status is determined by BMI percentile rather than plain BMI. If a child falls between the 85th and 95th BMI percentile they are overweight. If they fall above the 95th percentile they are obese.

77
Q

What are the most common types of malignancies in adolescents?

A

Leukemia and lymphoma are the most common malignancies. I still say that is the most common malignant tumor. Primary brain tumors are the second most common type of cancer in adolescents. Ewings sarcoma, which is the second most common bone tumor in adolescents and children, and testicular cancer also occur.

78
Q

What are the Tanner stages in a male?

A

Tanner I: pre-pubertal with a testicular volume less than 1.5 mL, small penis of 3 cm or less,typically aged nine or younger. No pubic hair at all.

Tanner II: testicular volume between 1.6 and 6 mL; skin on scrotum thins, reddens and enlarges; penis length unchanged. Small amount of long downy hair with slight pigmentation at the base of the penis and scrotum.

Tanner III: testicular volume between six and 12 mL; scrotum enlarges further; penis begins to Lincoln to about 6 cm. hair becomes more course and curly and begins to extend laterally.

Tanner IV: testicular volume between 12 and 20 mL; scrotum enlarges further and Darkence; penis increases and length to 10 cm and also in circumference. Adult like hair quality, extending across pubis but sparing the medial thighs.

Tanner V: testicular volume greater than 20 mL; adult scrotum and penis of 15 cm. hair extends to medial surface of the thighs.

Scrotal enlargement begins at ages 9 to 13. There is a growth spurt of 5 to 7 inches between stages three and four. Ejaculation begins during stage III. Strength peaks between stages four and five.

79
Q

What are the Tanner stages in a female?

A

Tanner I: no glandular tissue: Areola follows the skin contours of the chest, typically aged 10 and younger. No pubic hair at all.

Tanner II: breast bud forms, with small amount of surrounding glandular tissue; areola begins to widen. Small amount of long downy hair with slight pigmentation on the labia majora.

Tanner III: breast begins to become more elevated, and extends beyond the borders of the areola, which continues to widen but remains in contour with the surrounding breast. Hair becomes more course and curly and begins to extend laterally.

Tanner IV: increased breast size and elevation; areola and papilla form a secondary mound projecting from the contour of the surrounding breast. Adult like hair quality, extending across the pubis but sparing the medial thighs.

TannerV: breast reaches final adult size; areola returns to contour of the surrounding breast, with a projecting central papilla. Hair extends to medial surface of the thighs.
Breast bud development begins at age 8 to 13. There is a growth spurt is about 4 inches during stage too. Menarche usually begins about age 12. Acne is coming during stages three and four.

80
Q

What is the typical clinical picture for SIDS?

A

It is the most common cause of death during the first six months of life in the US, with the peak incidence at 2 to 4 months of age and a quick drop off by the age of six months. the diagnosis is supported by the history of quiet death during sleep in a previously healthy infant younger than six months of age. Evidence of terminal activity may be present such as clenched fist or a serious sanguinous, blood tinged, or mucoid discharge from the mouth or nose. Lividity and mottling are frequently present in dependent areas.

81
Q

What are the current recommendations for treatment otitis media in a child?

A

If the child is under two and the diagnosis is certain, the child should receive a 10 day course of antibiotics. If the diagnosis is not certain and the illnesses not severe, there’s an option for observation with follow-up. For children over the age of two, the recommendation is still to treat if the diagnosis is certain, but there is an option for observation and follow up if the illness is not severe and follow-up can be guaranteed.

Amoxicillin is first-line therapy at a recommended dose of 80 to 90 mg per kilogram per day into divided doses. Azithromycin because it is broader spectrum and potential for causing resistance is not considered the treatment of first choice, but it is used a treatment regimen ranging from 5 to 7 days is appropriate for selected children over the age of five.

83
Q

What test should be ordered to tool out Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and in what patients should it be ordered?

A

A serum creatinine kinase level should be ordered in male children who are slow to walk.

84
Q

What is the most common neuromuscular disorder of childhood? What is its inheritance pattern?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy. It is X linked.

85
Q

What is the earliest and most specific sign of autism?

A

Delayed attainment of social skill milestones. Delayed or odd use of language language is a common but less specific early sign. Compared with social and language impairments, restricted interests and repetitive behaviors are less prominent and more variable in young children. Self- injurious behaviors are associated with autism but not specific for it.

86
Q

What are red flags suggesting the need for immediate evaluation for language disorder in children?

A

No babbling in a 12 month old, not saying mama or dada at 18 months, a vocabulary of less than 25 words at age 2, and a vocabulary of less than 200 words at age 3. Children should be able to follow two-step commands by two years of age.

87
Q

When a murmur is detected in a child or adolescent, what findings should lead to consideration of evaluation for structural heart disease?

A

Increased intensity with standing, a holosystolic murmur, a grade of three or higher, a harsh quality, an abnormal S2, maximum intensity at the left upper sternal border, A diastolic murmur, or a systolic click.

88
Q

In the neonatal resuscitation, chest compressions should begin if the heart rate drops below a threshold of what?

A

60 beats a minute

90
Q

What is the second line treatment for head lice in a child under two who has failed permethrin treatment?

A

Repeating permethrin is not suggested, nor is using pyrethrin as they have the same spectrum of resistance. Benzyl alcohol lotion or Ulesfia would be the first choice. (note that it is not recommended under six months of age.). Malathion 0.5% can be used in children over the age of two years. There are two preparations: spinosad and topical ivermectin not currently available in the US but both appear to be effective. Topical ivermectin can be used in children over six months and Spinosad only in children over four.

91
Q

What treatment has been shown to benefit children with even mild croup?

A

A single dose of oral dexamethasone.

93
Q

When is the optimal time to repair symptomatic pectus excavatum?

A

Ideally repair should be postponed until adolescence as this approach allows for completion of growth and reduces the chance of recurrence. Younger children with severe cardiopulmonary problems may also be candidates for surgery, but repair at too early and age can result in improper growth of the chest wall and increases the risk of recurrence. Adult repair is also feasible.

94
Q

When should rotavirus vaccine be given?

A

Rotavirus vaccine is recommended to be given at two, four, and six months of age. The first dose should be given between six and 12 weeks of age and subsequent doses should be given at 4 to 10 week intervals, but all three doses should be administered by 32 weeks of age.

95
Q

What happens with the height for age curve and with bone age in children with constitutional growth delay?

A

Bone age may be delayed in children with constitutional growth delay. The growth curve will fall but after 24 months of age it remains parallel to the 3rd percentile.

96
Q

What is Edwards syndrome?

A

Trisomy 18. There’s a 3 to 1 female to male ratio among affected infants. the major phenotypic features include IUGR, hypotonia, prominent occiput, small mouth micrognathia, pointy ears, short sternum, horseshoe kidney, and flexed fingers with index overlapping third and fifth overlapping fourth. Congenital heart disease occurs in about 50%, the G.I. system is involved in about 75%. Clubfoot or rocker bottom foot is common, Nearly all of these children die in utero or within the first year of life. Occasionally children live to school age. Severe intellectual disability is apparent in survivors over one year of age.

97
Q

Describe Patau syndrome

A

Trisomy 13. Major phenotypic features include holoprosencephaly, absence of olfactory nerve or bulb, sloping forhead, severe eye defects especially microopthalmia and coloboma, deafness, and cleft lip or palette. Other defects may include omphalocele, genitourinary abnormalities superficially hemangiomashemangiomas, scalp defects, polydactyly, narrow convex finger nails, and rocker bottom feet and congenital heart defects.

The majority of these intense Diane utero. Approximately 80% of affected infants died within the first month of life, and only 5% survive the first six months. With intensive treatment infants survive a median of 24 months, but they have severe intellectual disability, seizures, and failure to thrive.

98
Q

Describe caput succedaneum, cephalohematoma, and subgaleal hemorrhage

A

Caput succedaneum is the presence of edema that crosses suture lines. It is caused by trauma during the birth process and is a benign condition that requires no treatment and resolves on its own in the first week of life.

Cephalohematoma is characterized by scalp swelling that does not cross suture lines. It is caused by rupture of subperiosteal blood vessels due to birth trauma or as a complication of instrument assisted delivery. Jaundice and anemia are possible complications. They usually resolve on their own, however occasionally phototherapy is needed to treat jaundice.

Subgaleal hemorrhage is usually a complication of vacuum extraction. It presents as a boggy occipital mass that appears 12 to 72 hours after delivery. Subgaleal hemorrhage has the potential to lead to significant blood loss and should be monitored closely.

99
Q

Describe Apgar scoring.

A

Heart rate: two points for greater than or equal to 100 beats a minute, one point for less than 100 bpm, zero for no heart rate

One maturity: two points for regular breathing, one point for irregular breathing and zero points for no breathing.

Muscle tone and movement: two points for active, one point for moderate, zero points for limp.

Skin color/oxygenation: two points for pink, one point for bluish extremities, zero points for totally blue.

Reflex response to irritable stimuli: two points for crying, one point for whimpering, zero points for silence.

7 to 10 points is considered normal 0 to 6 points is considered distress and less than three indicates a critically ill newborn. The five-minute Apgar is considered more indicative of long term prognosis.