Misc Flashcards

0
Q

What is POTS syndrome?

A

Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome. It is manifested by a rise on heart rate of greater than 30 beats per minute or by a heart rate of greater than 120 within 10 minutes of being in the upright position symptoms usually include position dependent headaches, abdominal pain, lightheadedness, palpitations, sweating, and nausea. Most patients will not actually pass out but some may if they are unable to lie down quickly. This condition is most common in white females between 15 and 50. They are often hard-working, athletic and otherwise in good health. There is a high correlation between PO TS and chronic fatigue syndrome. There is no single etiology but it is thought to have a genetic predisposition and is often incited after a prolonged viral illness. It also has a component of deconditioning. Recommended initial management is encouraging adequate fluid and salt intake, followed by initiation of regular aerobic exercise combined with lower extremity strength training. Then the use of beta blockers.

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1
Q

List the common types of seafood poisoning and it discuss which one needs more than supportive care

A

Ciguatera, neurotoxic shellfish poisoning, paralytic shellfish poisoning, and scombroid fish poisoning.

Only scombroid poisoning the cars more than supportive care it is a pseudo-allergic condition resulting from ingestion of high levels of histamine and sairine. Symptoms occur within minutes to hours and include flushing of The skin, oral paresthesias, pruritis, urticaria, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, vertigo, headache, bronchospasm, dysphagia, tachycardia, and hypotension. therapy should be the same as for allergic reactions and anaphylaxis and will usually lead to resolution of symptoms within several hours.

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2
Q

What are the common clinical features of Wegener’s granulomatosis?

How is it diagnosed?

A

It typically presents with severe upper respiratory tract findings. These may include paranasal sinus pain and drainage, purulent or bloody nasal discharge, with or without nasal mucosal ulceration. Nasal septal perforation may follow which leads to saddle nose deformity. Serous otitis media may occur as a result of eustachian tube blockage and it may lead to hearing loss. Lung involvement may lead to shortness of breath and hemoptysis. CXR findings may include nodules, infiltrates and areas of cavitation. In about 77% of patients, Wegener’s presents with renal disease, with mild glomerulitis with proteinuria, hematuria, and red blood cell casts. it may also cause eye and skin lesions as well as neuropathy.

ANCA antibodies are found in about 85% of patients with Wegener’s granulomatosis. However the only definitive way to confirm a diagnosis is by biopsy of the affected tissue.

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3
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

What are its clinical manifestations?

A

Wilson disease is also called hepatolenticular degeneration. It is due to a genetic abnormality which causes abnormal cellular copper transport. It leads to the accumulation of copper in several organs, most notably the liver brain and cornea.

It causes liver disease in about 20 to 80% of patients, neurological symptoms in about 20 to 70% of patients, and the psychiatric symptoms in 10 to 100% of patients.

The majority of patients present between ages five and 35. Findings and symptoms vary with the organs affected and the degree of damage. They may include Kayser Fleischer rings, abdominal pain, jaundice, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis and upper G.I. bleeding, hemolytic anemia, dysarthria, gait abnormalities, tremor, Parkinsonism, drooling, cerebellar ataxia, cognitive impairment, depression, personality changes, impulsiveness, irritability, inappropriate behavior, bipolar disorder, psychosis.

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4
Q

Common ocular abnormalities in Wilson disease

A

Kaiser Fleischer rings and sunflower cataracts

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5
Q

Common symptoms and findings in iron overload

A

Weight-loss, joint pain, type two diabetes, fatigue, and a bronze tone of the skin.

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6
Q

What is the classic triad found in hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia.

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7
Q

What is the preferred treatment for upper extremity deep venous thrombosis?

A

Low molecular weight heparin subcutaneously for at least five days, followed by oral warfarin for three months.

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8
Q

What is the treatment for calcium oxalate kidney stones?

A

A low-sodium diet with restricted protein and increased fluid. Oxalate restriction also reduces stone formation. Oxalate containing foods include spinach, chocolate, tea and nuts. Potassium citrate should be taken at mealtime to increase urinary pH and urinary citrate.

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9
Q

What is the treatment for ethylene glycol poisoning and when should it be given?

A

The antidote fomepizole should be given. It should be given when there is a plasma ethylene glycol concentration of greater than 20 mg/dL, a history of ingesting toxic amounts of ethylene glycol within the past few hours , a high osmolal gap of greater than 10, plus at least two of the following: arterial pH of less than 7.3, serum bicarbonate of less than 20 mmol per liter, or urinary oxalate crystals.

If treated early hemodialysis may be avoided, but one severe acidosis and renal failure have occurred hemodialysis is necessary. Afflink like all is rapidly absorbed, and use of ipecac or gastric lavage is therefore not effective. Activated charcoal is also ineffective, as it only binds small amounts of ethylene glycol.

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10
Q

What goals should be set for a patient who has chronic pain?

A
  1. reduce incidence and severity of symptoms
  2. improve function
  3. Foster patient self-management
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11
Q

What factors predispose a patient toward opioid abuse?

A

A family history of substance abuse including alcohol, illegal drugs or prescription drugs. A personal history of substance abuse including the same things. Age between 16 and 45. History of preadolescent sexual abuse. Psychological diseases that include ADD, OCD, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia and depression.

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12
Q

What nonpharmacologic and alternative treatments have been shown to be effective for diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia?

A

Diabetic neuropathy has been shown to respond to percutaneous nerve stimulation, acetyl-L – carnitine, magnetic therapy, and imagery.

Postherpetic neuralgia has been shown to respond to geranium oil and imagery.

Neither has been shown to respond to acupuncture, St. John’s wort, or spiritual healing.

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13
Q

What is PENS?

A

A combination of TENS with electroacupuncture. It has been shown to be effective for neuropathic pain.

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14
Q

Which foods have proteins that cross react with latex proteins and should be avoided in latex allergy?

A

Avocados, bananas, chestnuts, and kiwi.

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15
Q

What conditions are associated with an enlarged tongue?

A

It may be found in developmental conditions such as down syndrome, maybe caused by a tumor such as hemangioma or lymphangioma, metabolic disease such as primary amyloidoses, or endocrine disturbances such as acromegaly or cretinism.

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16
Q

What conditions cause a bald tongue?

A

Xerostomia, pernicious anemia, iron deficiency anemia, pellagra or syphilis.

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17
Q

What is pellagra?

A

Vitamin B3 (thiamine) deficiency

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18
Q

What vaccines should patients receive after they get a splenectomy?

A

Definitely pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines. Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine should be considered as well.

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19
Q

What is severe hyperkalemia? What are its possible treatments?

A

Sodium bicarbonate, glucose with insulin, and albuterol. Total body potassium cab be lowered with sodium polystyrene sulfonate, but this takes longer than these other methods. In the most severe cases acute hemodialysis can be started.

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20
Q

What is osmotic demyelination? When does it occur?

A

It is a process that occurs when hyponatremic is corrected to rapidly, outpacing the brain’s ability to recapture lost organic osmolytes. It can usually be avoided by limiting correction of chronic hyponatremia to less than 10 to 12 mmol per liter in 24 hours and to less than 18 mmol per liter in 48 hours.

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21
Q

What is the treatment for acute mountain sickness or high-altitude cerebral edema?

A

Management of choice is a combination of descent and supplemental oxygen Often a descent of only 500 to 1000 m will lead to the resolution of acute mountain sickness. Simulated dissent with a portable hyperbaric chamber is also effective, but descent should not be delayed while awaiting helicopter delivery. If descent and/or administration of oxygen is not possible, medical therapy with dexamethasone and or acetazolamide may reduce the severity of symptoms. Nifedipine has also been shown to be helpful in cases of high-altitude pulmonary edema where descent and or oxygen are unavailable.

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22
Q

What conditions can cause SIADH?

A

CNS tumors, various infections such as meningitis and pneumonia, and drugs. The drugs include amiodarone, carbamazepine, SSRIs, and chlorpromazine.

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23
Q

How is the diagnosis of Marfan syndrome made?

A

The criteria are complex. If both aortic root dilatation or dissection and ectopic lenses are present a diagnosis of Marfan can be made unless another genetic condition that causes these is present. There is a genetic mutation of a gene called FBN1 that can be tested for. If it is present and aortic dissection or dilatation is also present a diagnosis of Marfan is made. If ectopic lenses are present without anyone aortic problems, there must be a diagnosis of a gene defect associated with Marfan’s for a diagnosis of Marfan’s to be made. If aortic problems are present, ectopic lenses absent and the FBN one status is negative or unknown, the diagnosis of Marfan because it requires systemic findings up with a score of more than seven points. These findings are variously waited into regards to point number but they include: the wrist sign which is that the patient can encircle his or her wrist and overlaps the thumb and little finger, the thumb sign which is that the tip of the thumb protrudes from a clenched fist, pectus carinatum, pectus excavatum or chest asymmetry, hind foot deformity, pes planus, pneumothorax, dural ectasia, Protrusio acetabulae, reduced upper to lower segment ratio, increased arm to height ratio, scoliosis or thoracolumbar kyphosis, reduced elbow extension, typical facial features, skins striae, myopia of greater than 3 dpt, and mitral valve prolapse.

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24
Q

What other diseases are associated with celiac disease?

A

About 7% of type one diabetics have celiac disease. A number of other autoimmune syndromes have been associated with celiac disease, including thyroid disease and rheumatoid arthritis.

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25
Q

Which GFR’s are associated with which stages of chronic renal disease?

A

Stage I there is a GFR over 90, stage II GFR from 60 to 90, stage III GFR from 30 to 60, stage IV GFR 15 to 30, and Staige V GFR less than 15.

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26
Q

What are the blood-pressure goals in patients with chronic kidney disease?

A

Chronic kidney disease stages one through four with proteinuria greater than 1 g per day goal should be less than 125/75. Chronic kidney diseases stages one through four with proteinuria of less than 1 g per day, goal should be less than 135/85. chronic kidney disease stage 5 should be less than 140/90.

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27
Q

According to ATLS, how can a patient’s minimum systolic blood pressure be assessed?

A

If only the patient’s carotid pulse is palpable, this is stolid blood pressure is 60 to 70. It’s carotid and femoral pulses are palpable the systolic blood pressure is 70 to 80. If carotid, femoral and radial pulses are all palpable the systolic blood pressure is above 80.

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28
Q

What are the features of Ménière’s disease?

A

Spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting minutes to hours with associated tinnitus hearing loss and ear fullness.

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29
Q

What is the typical presentation for acoustic neuroma?

A

They usually present with tinnitus and hearing loss. Vertigo is usually minor and is usually a later rather than a presenting complaint.

30
Q

What are the features of vestibular neuronitis?

A

If usually viral or post viral. It involves sudden onset of severe, persistent vertigo; nausea and vomiting; and gait instability. If it occurs with unilateral hearing loss it is called labyrinthitis. It usually lasts one to two days and then resolves. It must be distinguished from cerebellar hemorrhage/infarct.

31
Q

What is Wallenberg’s syndrome?

A

It is a stroke syndrome due to a lateral medullary infarction. It causes vertigo, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral limb ataxia, hoarseness and dysphagia. There is loss of pain and temperature sensation on the ipsilateral face and the contralateral trunk.

32
Q

What are the causes of transient urinary incontinence?

A
Delirium
Infection
Atrophy
Pharmaceuticals
Psychological
Endocrine (most commonly diabetes,                   rarely hypercalcemia)
Restricted mobility
Stool impaction
33
Q

How much urine should be present in a post void residual to diagnose overflow incontinence?

A

150 to 200 mL

34
Q

How much urine do the average person’s kidneys make per minute?

A

About 1 mL per minute.

35
Q

How is benign prosthetic hypertrophy treated according to the AUA symptom scoring index?

A

Mild is a score less than seven and is treated with watchful waiting. Moderate is a score of 8 to 19 and is treated with medical treatment. Severe is a score of 20 or more and is treated with surgery.

36
Q

How long does it take a five alpha reductase inhibitor to reduce the size of the prostate?

A

6 to 12 months.

37
Q

What is the recommended treatment for acute versus chronic bacterial prostatitis?

A

Acute: Tetracycline, TMP – SMX, or a quinolone for 3 to 4 weeks.

Chronic: the same antibiotics but for two months.

38
Q

What are the symptoms of acute versus chronic prostatitis and how is each diagnosed?

A

Acute: symptoms include fever, chills, low back pain, perineal pain, dysuria, urgency, frequency, myalgias, and possibly obstructive symptoms

A prostate exam may be done although vigorous massage should be avoided. The prostate maybe tender, warm, swollen, firm and irregular. The diagnosis is made with urinalysis and CNS without massage.

The symptoms of chronic prostatitis are similar to those of acute. However symptom-free periods alternate with periods of symptoms

Chronic prostatitis is diagnosed with culture and sensitivity on a pre-and post prostatic massage void.

39
Q

What are the major adverse effects of phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors?

A

Vision disturbances, priapism, angina, and sudden, permanent sensorineural hearing loss.

40
Q

If a doctor and patient have mutually agreed on proceeding with prostate cancer screening what are the suggestions for how to do it?

A

For average risk men: should be an annual PSA with or without a DRE starting at age 50 until life expectancy is less than 10 years. The cut off for PSA is four.

For African-American men and men with a family history of prostate cancer: same as above except screening should be started at age 45.

If PSA is less than 2.5 screening can be done every two years.

41
Q

When is laryngoscopy recommended for the evaluation of hoarseness?

A

When it has been present for more than three months, or when a serious underlying cause is suspected.

42
Q

What medication commonly causes hoarseness?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids

43
Q

What is the best test to confirm the presence of protein urea in a child?

A

A spot first morning urine protein to creatinine level. This test correlates well with a 24 hour urine protein, which is very difficult to collect in a young patient.

44
Q

What is the treatment for chronic paronychia?

A

Avoidance of contact irritants, avoiding immersion of the hands in water, and use of emollient. Topical corticosteroids are the medication of choice. A topical antifungal can also be tried in conjunction with the corticosteroid.

45
Q

What is acid laryngitis? What are his symptoms?

A

Acid laryngitis is a group of respiratory symptoms related to gastroesophageal reflux. The symptoms of hoarseness, especially in the morning, I repeated need to clear the throat, and nocturnal or early-morning wheezing may occur singly or in varying combinations, and are believed to be caused by gastric contents irritating the larynx and hypopharynx.

46
Q

What are the indications for laparoscopic bariatric surgery for morbid obesity?

A

I’m BMI of greater than 40, or a BMI of 35 to 40 with significant obesity related Comorbidities. Weight-loss by nonoperative means should be attempted before surgery, and patients should be evaluated by a multidisciplinary team that includes a dietitian and a mental health professional before surgery.

47
Q

There is an FDA warning about a link between gadolinium contrast and what condition?

A

Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis

48
Q

What are the symptoms of hypermagnesia and at what levels do they occur?

A

Magnesium concentrations of 4 to 6 mEq per liter: nausea, Flushing, headache, lethargy, drowsiness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes.

49
Q

What are the possible causes of anosmia?

A

Certain drugs including zinc; deficiencies of vitamin A, B6, B12 and trace metals; rare tumors involving the olfactory region of the brain.

50
Q

What are effective drugs for chronic orthostatic hypotension?

A

Fludrocortisone, midodrine and physostigmine

51
Q

What is DRESS syndrome? What agents is it commonly caused by?Am starting up pg&e trail now.

A

Drug reaction would eosinophilia and systemic symptoms. The hallmark of DRESS syndrome is erythema accompanied by fever, lymphadenopathy, elevation of liver enzymes and eosinophilia. About one third of the time it is caused by seizure medications such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine, and phenobarbital. It may be caused by allopurinol, and allopurinol associated DRESS syndrome has the highest mortality rate.

52
Q

What is cobblestoning of the oral mucosa a sign of?

A

Crohn’s disease.

53
Q

What is diffuse melanin pigmentation of the oral mucosa a sign of?

A

Addison’s disease

54
Q

Painful oral ulcers may be a sign of what conditions?

A

Behcet syndrome apt hours ulcers, pemphigus and pemphigoid.

55
Q

How and when should melatonin be taken to reduce jet lag?

A

It should be only used when crossing anywhere from 2 to 5 time zones in an easterly direction. It should be taken at bedtime starting on the day of arrival. The dosage is .5 to 5 mg at HS, with higher doses being more effective. It should two to five nights.

56
Q

What are the various types of kidney stones and what sorts of dietary recommendations are given for each?

A

About 60% of stones in adults are calcium oxalate. The only recommendation for these stones is to increase fluid intake to about 2 L per day. Decreasing oxalate consumption has not been proved to be effective for the stones.

Uric acid stones account for up to 17% of stones. Cystine stones make up small percentage of stones. Uric acid and cystine stones form in acidic urine. Their formation may be decreased by a diet which produces alkaline urine. This would include eating plenty of fruits and vegetables, and limiting acid producing foods such as meat, grains, dairy products, and legumes. also it is recommended that these patients drink mineral water which is relatively alkaline.

57
Q

What score is used rather than the T score when screening children and premenopausal women for osteoporosis? What is an abnormal score?

A

The Z score is used. The T score is based on a comparison to a young adult at peak bone density, whereas the Z score uses a comparison to persons of the same age as the patient. A Z-score of less than -2.0 indicates osteoporosis and a Z-score of -1.02-2.0 indicates low bone density.

58
Q

What is the first line treatment for interstitial cystitis?

A

Pentosan polysulfate or Elmiron 100 mg TID. It may take several months to become effective and is rated as modestly beneficial in systemic drug review. It is the only FDA approved treatment for interstitial cystitis.

59
Q

What is SORT? What do its various categories represent?

A

Strength of recommendation taxonomy

Category A: recommendation based on consistent and good quality patient oriented evidence.

Category B: recommendation based on inconsistent or limited quality patient oriented evidence.

Category C: recommendation based on consensus, usual practice, opinion, disease oriented evidence-based series for studies of diagnosis, treatment, prevention, or screening.

60
Q

How do you calculate relative risk?

A

It is the ratio of the incidence of the outcome among exposed persons divided by the incidence among the unexposed.

61
Q

How do you calculate absolute risk reduction?

A

It is the event rate in the control group minus the event rate in the experimental group.

62
Q

How do you calculate number needed to treat?

A

It is one divided by the absolute risk rate.

63
Q

How is positive predictive value calculated?

A

It equals the true positives divided by the sum of the true positives and the false positives.

64
Q

How is the negative predictive value calculated?

A

It is the true negatives divided by the some of the false negatives plus the true negatives.

65
Q

As the prevalence of a disease in a population increases what happens with positive predictive value and negative predictive value?

A

The positive predictive value increases and the negative predictive value decreases.

66
Q

As the prevalence of a disease in the population decreases, what happens with positive and negative predictive values?

A

Positive predictive value decreases and negative predictive value increases.

67
Q

Define P-value

A

The P value identifies whether or not a result is statistically significant. A P of less than 0.5 is considered significant. This means there is less than 5% chance that no real difference between the two groups exist.

68
Q

Define type I error or Alpha error

A

Type I error, or Alpha error, is the probability that the study will conclude that there is a difference between the intervention group and the control when in fact no difference exists. This is also known as the P value.

69
Q

Define type II or beta error.

A

Type two error, or beta error is the possibility that a study will conclude there is no difference between groups when in fact a difference does exist.

70
Q

Define Metacritic syndrome. What are some of it’s possible causes?

A

Mephitic syndrome is defined by the presence of hematuria, hypertension, signs of renal insufficiency, and edema. In nephritic syndrome, inflammation is present in the glomeruli. There are both primary i.e. idiopathic and secondary causes of nephritic syndrome. Primary causes include poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis,which is the most common cause of nephritic syndrome. Other idiopathic causes include IGA nephropathy and anti-GBM disease. Secondary causes include SLE, Goodpasture’s syndrome and Wegener’s granulomatosis.

71
Q

Define there nephrotic syndrome and list some of its causes

A

It is a renal disorder in which the kidney allows a significant amount of protein to be lost in the urine. In nephrotic syndrome, there is no inflammation in the glomeruli. In general proteinuria exceeding 3.5 g per day per 1.73 m² body service area is considered nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome can be primary or secondary. Primary causes include minimal change disease, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranous nephropathy, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. Secondary causes include diabetes, certain infections such as HIV and HBV, malignancy, and amyloidosis.

72
Q

Describe the presentation and diagnosis of vitamin B12 and folate deficiency

A

B12 deficiency and folate deficiency both cause macrocytic megaloblastic anemia. B12 deficiency can result from adequate intake or decreased absorption of B12. Pernicious anemia is the most common etiology. Other causes are post-bariatric surgery, dietary deficiency in vegans, and presence of a tapeworm. B12 deficiency can lead to neurologic symptoms including peripheral neuropathy, ataxia, and dementia.

B12 deficiency is diagnosed by measurement of serum B12, presence of methylmalonic acid, and presence or absence of antibodies to intrinsic factor.

Folate deficiency can be caused by insufficient dietary intake, alcoholism, malabsorption such as celiac disease or IBD, and increased demand i.e. pregnancy. Certain medications such as methotrexate and phenytoin can also cause folate deficiency.