PDG notes Flashcards

1
Q

______ was a pararescueman deployed to Afghanistan on March 11, 2004 and earned the Combat Action medal for overrunning a drug kingpin who was funding terrorism.

A

SMSgt Ramon Colon-Lopez

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
What do the following people have in common: 
Maynard "Snuffy" Harrison Smith 
Archibald Mathies 
Henry "Red" Eugene Erwin 
Forest Lee Vosler
A

All were enlisted air crew members to be awarded the Medal of Honor during WWII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ received the AF Cross but 34years later it was upgraded to the Medal of Honor.

A

A1C William H. Pitsenbarger

CMSgt Richard Etchberger also had an upgrade to Medal of Honor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The President appoints the _____ who provides the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff with written policy guidance to prepare and review contingency plans.

A

Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____ was headquartered at Hurlburt Field FL and established 22 May 1990.

A

AF Special Operations Command (AFSOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ is a key doctrine concept that can exploit the principles of mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces are able.

A

Air power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

___ allows airpower to move from one mission to provide air support of friendly troops in contact with enemy troops.

A

Flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ is the ability to employ air power effectively at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of warfare.

A

Versatility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Deviation to the operational rotation policy require Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force (CSAF) approval. This is part of the ____.

A

AEF Generation Construct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ UTCs is based on funded military authorizations on an organizations UMD.
UTCs in bands B thru E have different battle rhythms that may fall outside the base’s two AEF vulnerability periods.

A

Posturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___ is a 3-5 wavering tone or siren meaning an attack or hostile act is imminent or in progress.

A

Attack warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Part of response procedures, response levels will depends on _____.

A

Magnitude of the disaster and degree of damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If you hear alarm black (steady tone) it means ____

A

Attack is over and CBRN contamination and/or UXO hazards are suspected or present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If you hear alarm red (wavering tone) it means ____

A

Attack by indirect fire, air, or missile is imminent or in progress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Members who violate ____ are subject to criminal prosecution and punishment. Criminal prosecution can take place in national or international forum.

A

LOAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ present a more detailed application of LOAC principles tailored to the political and military nature of a mission which are contained in the execution orders, operations plans, and operations orders.

A

Mission specific ROEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Examples of activities that may adversely impact morale, discipline, and respect for authority include __

A

Gambling, partying with subordinates, joint business ventures or soliciting to members junior in rank, grade, or position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gatekeepers have authority to approve/disapprove, schedule, deconflict and eliminate duplication between inspection type activities on behalf or their commander.
Additional responsibilities include:

A

Ensuring the inspection system is able to independently and efficiently inspect units on behalf of the command chain, ensure a commanders priorities take precedence over non-mission essential activities of any unit/org.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Control rosters are a rehabilitative tool commanders may use to establish an observation period for how many months?

A

6 consecutive months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Non judicial punishment is authorized under what Article of UCMJ?

A

Article 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many ranks can be reduced down by 1 grade by a Major?

A

2 - TSgt and SSgt

Captains and Lt may reduce SSgt and below by 1 grade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Etiquette is defined as common everyday courtesy. Simple things like saying please and thank you can ___

A

Can help an organization run smoother because ppl respond more enthusiastically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____ are responsible to ensure members have a retirement ceremony to recognize their contributions.

A

Commanders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are two special ceremonies for military only?

A

Dining in and Order of the Swords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

There are 3 leadership and development levels: tactical, operational, and strategic.
Which level do Airmen and NCOs perfect their primary skills?

A

Tactical level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Failure to obey lawful orders violates what Article of the UCMJ?

A

Article 92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Frequently visit dining facilities to:

A

see how the airman are living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Within the same grade, date of rank, total active federal military service date, pay date, and date of birth determine _______.

A

seniority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

____ are highly trained and skilled technicians.

A

SSGTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Airmanship?

A

Genuine belief of Air Force core values and willingness to fulfill all NCO responsibilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the character traits of effective leaders?

A

Charisma, compassion and courage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

___ must be the chief transformation officers in their organizations and learn everything about change before it even takes place.

A

Leaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

_____ must create an organizational climate conducive to change by explaining the limitations and shortfalls of the present process and the possibilities and benefits of the change.

A

Leaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who is a mentor?

A

A trusted counselor or guide

35
Q

_____ helps prepare people for the increased responsibilities they will assume as they progress in their careers.

A

Mentoring

36
Q

Supervisors should restrict recommendations to recognition of meritorious service, outstanding achievement,etc. for_______.

A

Individuals clearly above his/her peers

37
Q

During counsel sessions questions should be open ended to ___

A

Evoke more than a yes or no response.

38
Q

Crisis counseling is conducted to get Amn thru the initial shock after receiving negative news such as ___

A

Death of a love one

39
Q

What type of counseling is used when an Amn is immature, insecure, or needs guidance? It also works best to correct simple problems, make on the spot corrections, and correct duty performance.

A

Directive

40
Q

What are the three approaches to counseling?

A

Nondirective, directive, combined

41
Q

When is feedback given?

A

Initial - within 60 days when rater begins supervision

Midterm - midway from the date of supervision to projected EPR closeout

42
Q

Airman who do not receive EPRs, a midterm feedback is due ____.

A

180 days after initial session

43
Q

Feedback can be held if the rater determines need for one or within ___ days of request from a ratee, provided that at least 60 days have passed since last feedback.

A

30 days

44
Q

Performance feedback worksheets provide a guide for conducting feedback sessions. What are done with these?

A

Rater gives a copy and keeps one for personal reference

45
Q

Raters submit an EPR when a member is placed or removed from a control roster and ___ days of supervision have elapsed.

A

60 calendar days

46
Q

Raters submit an initial EPR for Amn A1C and below with 20+months of total active federal military service (TAFMS), has not had a report and ___ days of supervision have elapsed.

A

120 calendar days

47
Q

To be a _____, the member must be atleast SSgt and complete applicable mandatory core tasks in the CFETP.

A

Craftsman

48
Q

____ have single most impact on mission accomplishment.

A

Supervisors

49
Q

Leaders begin organizational change by ____, which means going where people feel the pain of poor policies or systems.

A

Unfreezing

50
Q

____ and involvement are methods leaders use to reduce resistance from those affected by change by getting them actively involved.

A

Participation

51
Q

Facilitation and support introduce change gradually if possible as well as

A

Additional training if needed.

52
Q

Stage 3, the final stage of change is ____.

A

Refreezing. You must lock in or refreeze the desired outcome and the new norms so they become permanent.

53
Q

As leaders we must develop effective teams. Healthy teams consist of what?

A

Trust is essential in building a healthy team spirit, ethical behavior, sharing, critical judgement and cooperation.

54
Q

______ involves various systems managers effectively use to establish priorities, choose policies, and act to get desired results and required resources at an acceptable cost.

A

Resource management system

55
Q

Stage 3 in bullet writing -streamline the final product is:

A

Steamlining the final product is refining the bullet statement to make it accurate, brief, and specific

56
Q

The AF manpower requirements determination process systematically identifies _____ for the most effective and economical accomplishment of approved missions and functions within organizational and resource constraints.

A

Minimum essential manpower

57
Q

Primary factors in selecting Airmen for PCS is the Airmen’s ______ to fill a valid manpower requirement and perform productively without regard for color, race, or religious preference.

A

Qualifications

58
Q

Exceptional Family Member Program (EFMP) is based on an Airmen’s :

A

Need for special medical or educational care for a spouse or child that is required long term, possibly permanently.

59
Q

This award is for unnumbered organizations such as MAJCOM headquarters, FOA, DRU, the office of the Chief of Staff and other Air Staff and deputy assistant chief of staff agencies.

A

Air Force organizational excellence award

60
Q

What determines when getting a decoration?

A

Recognition for acts of bravery, outstanding achievement or meritorious service. An individual’s performance above his/her peers.

61
Q

Promotion to ____ is 3 year TIS, 6 months TIG, Promotion Eligibility cutoff date 31 March and test between May-June

A

SSGT

62
Q

Family separation allowance is entitled to members TDY or reside separate for more than ____ days

A

30 days

63
Q

Travelers taking an Atm advance will not obtain one more than ___ in advance of scheduled travel.

A

3 days

64
Q

Sex harassment is:

A

Discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct for conditions of a persons job or pay, or interfering with ones work environment.

65
Q

Who does SARC report directly to?

A

Installation Vice Commander

66
Q

____ allows victims to report allegations of sexual assault without triggering investigation. Also allows increased control over the release of the victims personal info.

A

Confidentiality and Restricted Reporting

67
Q

Who can receive restricted reports?

A

Only military members.

Retired members or dependents are not eligible.

68
Q

In cases of unrestricted reporting of sexual assault information is provided to _____

A

Government or persons with an established need to know. (Law enforcement, commander, first sergeant, legal personnel, SARC, health care provider)

69
Q

Violation of tattos are punishable by what Article of the UCMJ?

A

Article 92

70
Q

Men’s hair must be _____

A

Tapered on sides and back, not to exceed 1 1/4 in bulk or 1/4 inch at natural termination point

71
Q

Women’s hair must be ____

A

A minimum length of 1 inch, not to exceed 3 inches in bulk, hair pins will be hair color (no scrunchies)

72
Q

What can be worn under PT shorts?

A

Black and blue spandex any length

73
Q

Substance abuse treatment team includes ___

A

Commander, supervisor, member’s counselor, medical consultants, other appropriate helping agencies, and the member.

74
Q

Suicide is the ___ leading cause of death among AF personnel.

A

3rd

75
Q

Why do people commit suicide?

A

A lack of belongingness or connectedness to others.
Lack of friends, failed marriage/relationship.
Feeling that they are a burden.

76
Q

What does leadership involvement do?

A

Builds environment to promote healthy behaviors, fosters wingman culture, encourages responsible help-seeking.

77
Q

ACE model for effective suicide prevention stands for what?

A

Ask, care, escort.

About judgmental statements

78
Q

An effective time management tool is __.

A

Developing a task list and prioritizing tasks.

79
Q

AF must protect information systems from Malicious logic attacks such as __

A

Trojan horse, Botnets, virus, or worm

80
Q

Crypto security, transmissions security, and physical security are all part of ____

A

COMSEC

81
Q

End of security checks must be established to ensure the area is secure for activities that store or process classified info. An integral part of the security check system is ___

A

Securing all vaults, rooms and security containers used to store classified info

82
Q

____ involves determining the reliability, trustworthiness, good conduct, and character of individuals before they are assigned sensitive duties or have access to classified info.

A

Personal Security Program

83
Q

Commanders execute Integrated defense with the objective of achieving 9 desired effects:

A
Anticipate
Deter
Detect
Assess
Warn
Defeat
Delay
Defend
Recover
84
Q

Operation Iraqi Freedom had a battle plan based on the psychological destruction of the enemy’s will to fight rather than physical destruction, battle plan called ____

A

Shock and Awe