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Atlas > PC Oral Question Bank Rev 3 > Flashcards

PC Oral Question Bank Rev 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the wingspan of the 744/8?

A

744: 213 feet
748: 224.5 feet

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2
Q

What is the minimum width of pavement required for a 180 degree turn for the 744/8?

A

744: 153 feet
748: 172 feet

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3
Q

What happens when you rotate the oxygen mask Emergency/Test selector to ‘Emergency’?

A

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes to protect against smoke and vapors

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4
Q

With the Emergency lights switch ‘Armed’ when do the emergency lights illuminate?

A

If DC power fails or is turned off

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5
Q

What is the electrical power source for the emergency lighting system, and how long does it last?

A

Remote batteries for 15 minutes

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6
Q

Where is the portable ELT located on the 744?

A

Upper deck lavatory (OSHA) wall

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7
Q

Name the Immediate Action Items on the QRC.

A

Cabin altitude rapid depressurization
Engine 1,2,3,4 autostart aborted engine start
Engine limit or surge or stall
IAS disagree airspeed unreliable
Fire engine 1,2,3,4 engine severe damage or separation
Multiple engine flameout or stall

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8
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component for the 744/748/LCF?

A

744: 15 knots
748: 15 knots
LCF: 10 knots

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9
Q

What is the maximum headwind component for an auto land?

A

25 knots

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10
Q

What are the maximum and minimum glide slope angles for an ILS auto land?

A

Max: 3.25 degrees
Min: 2.5 degrees

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11
Q

What VNAV limitation applies to level off within 2,000 feet after changing the altimeter setting from QNE to QNH, or QNH to QNE?

A

Do not use VNAV for the level off if the QNH is less than 29.70 in/1006 hPa

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12
Q

Without LAND2 or LAND3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below what RA altitude?

A

100 feet RA

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13
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed for the 744/748?

A

744: 290-310 knots or 0.82-0.85 mach, whichever is lower
748: 310 knots or 0.83 mach, whichever is lower

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14
Q

What is the minimum in flight fuel temperature for the 748:

A

-48 degrees C

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15
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?

A

20,000 feet

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16
Q

Are operations allowed when the reported braking action is NIL?

A

No

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17
Q

Where can you find the maximum takeoff and landing weights for the aircraft you are operating?

A

OFP - page 1

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18
Q

What is the difference in the Basic Operating Weight on the OFP and the Sable Load Sheet?

A

OFP: includes weight of all cockpit and cabin crew
Sable: includes only two crew

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19
Q

Calculate pitch attitude and N1…

A

Go to QRH

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20
Q

What BTMS number on the gear synoptic display will cause an EICAS advisory message of ‘Brake Temp’?

A

5 or more

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21
Q

Calculate Vref…

A

Go to QRH

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22
Q

Calculate flap maneuvering speed…

A

Go to QRH

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23
Q

The Final Upper Deck/Cockpit procedure on the 744/748/LCF requires the FO to do what with the smoke barrier door?

A

Ensure the door is closed and all three security locks are moved to the locked position

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24
Q

In the normal mode, what does the EEC use as the controlling parameter for GE and PW engines

A

GE: N1
PW: EPR

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25
Q

What protection features are provided in the EEC normal mode?

A

Thrust limiting
Constant thrust
Overspeed protection

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26
Q

What occurs with the auto throttle system when any EEC control is switched to alternate mode?

A

The auto throttles disconnect, but they can be reconnected when all EECs have been switched to alternate mode

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27
Q

What EEC normal mode protection feature is not available in alternate mode?

A

Thrust limiting at maximum N1

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28
Q

When does the EEC select approach idle?

A

Nacelle anti ice on
Flaps in a landing position
Continuous ignition on
Thrust reverser operation

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29
Q

What action should be taken prior to manual selection of EEC alternate mode?

A

Decrease thrust lever position

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30
Q

What happens when you turn the continuous ignition switch on?

A

Selected igniters operate continuously
Commands approach idle

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31
Q

What two engine indications are displayed full time on the primary EICAS for a GE engine?

A

N1
EGT

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32
Q

What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start or takeoff limit is reached?

A

Red

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33
Q

If the airborne vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source of vibration, it will display ‘BB’. What does this mean?

A

Broadband - the average vibration detected

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34
Q

What three items will the autostart system protect the engine from during start that will also result in an ENG 1,2,3,4 AUTOSTART EICAS message?

A

Hot start
Hung start
No EGT rise

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35
Q

How is reverse thrust actuated on an GE engine?

A

Pneumatically

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36
Q

How is reverse thrust actuated on a PW engine?

A

Hydraulically

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37
Q

How is reverse thrust actuated on a GENx engine?

A

Hydraulically

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38
Q

With an engine shut down, what does ‘X-BLD’ indicate when displayed next to the N2 indication?

A

Cross bleed air is recommended for an in-flight start

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39
Q

When is the ignition selected for all engines?

A

Trailing edge flaps are out of the up position
Continuous ignition is on

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40
Q

How many igniters are selected for a ground start, and for an in-flight start?

A

Ground: 1
In-flight: 2

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41
Q

What are the engine warm up requirements for oil temperature before takeoff for a PW engine?

A

Above the lower amber band

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42
Q

GENx engine EECs command ice crystal anti icing when ice crystal icing conditions are detected at altitudes higher than?

A

30,000 feet

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43
Q

GENx engine ice crystal anti icing cycles continue for how many minutes, or until the aircraft descends below what altitude?

A

15 minutes
28,000 feet

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44
Q

When does a GENx engine select minimum or approach idle?

A

Engine anti ice on
Landing gear down
Flaps 20
Flaps in a landing position
Thrust reverser operation

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45
Q

Under what conditions on the ground will the GENx engine EEC shutdown an engine to provide protection against thrust asymmetry due to a control malfunction?

A

Thrust lever at or near idle
Engine above commanded N1 speeds and not decelerating normally

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46
Q

During engine start, when will the GENx engine provide an additional 40 seconds of motoring time at 20% N2?

A

Engine has been shutdown between 30-360 minutes
EGT is greater than 30 degrees C

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47
Q

During engine start the GENx engine EEC will attempt corrective action for what conditions?

A

Hot start
Hung start
No EGT rise
Compressor stall

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48
Q

GENx engine in-flight start attempts will increase the EGT limit by 25 degrees C after 4 start attempts, and will repeat this action on subsequent reattempts until?

A

Engine start is achieved
EGT limit is reached

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49
Q

When does the EICAS message ‘APU RUNNING’ display?

A

When the APU selector is on and the APU N1 RPM exceeds 95%

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50
Q

Is electrical power available from the APU in-flight?

A

No

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51
Q

Can the APU be operated in-flight?

A

Yes - if left running for takeoff it can be used up to 20,000 feet

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52
Q

How long should you wait before turning the battery switch off after the APU selector is rotated to off, and why?

A

Two minutes
Allows for a complete shutdown sequence with fire detection capability

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53
Q

What are the main AC electrical power sources on the LCF?

A

4 IDGs
2 External

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54
Q

What is the function of the Standby Power switch in the auto position?

A

Allows the main and APU standby buses to be powered from available sources

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55
Q

What does the ‘AVAIL’ light indicate on the external and APU power switches?

A

The related power source is plugged in
The power quality is acceptable

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56
Q

When is the main cargo deck handling bus powered?

A

When the ‘AVAIL’ light is displayed on the APU 2 or external 2 switches

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57
Q

What electrical power sources enable lower lobe cargo handling, fueling, and AUX 4 hydraulic pump operation?

A

External 1 or APU 1 available or on, powering the ground handling bus

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58
Q

What equipment is powered by the utility buses?

A

5 fuel pumps
Galley equipment

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59
Q

What happens when you push a Generator Drive Disconnect switch?

A

Disconnects the IDG from the engine
Opens the related Generator Control Breaker (GCB)

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60
Q

What condition would automatically disconnect the IDG?

A

Excessively high oil temperature

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61
Q

What does a Bus Isolation light indicate when illuminated?

A

Bus Tie Breaker (BTB) is open
AC Bus isolated from the synchronous bus

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62
Q

How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?

A

You don’t - call maintenance

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63
Q

How is the electrical system configured during an automatic ILS approach (auto-land)?

A

AC and DC buses 1,2,3 are isolated from the synchronous bus
AC bus 4 powers the synchronous bus

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64
Q

What are the main AC electrical power sources for the 744, 748?

A

4 IDGs
2 APU
2 External

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65
Q

What does the hydraulic system fault light indicate when illuminated?

A

Low system pressure
Low reservoir quantity
Excessive fluid temperature

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66
Q

What does a hydraulic demand pump low pressure light indicate when illuminated?

A

Demand pump position is off or aux
Demand pukp is operating and output pressure is low

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67
Q

When will the hydraulic demand pumps be commanded to operate if the selector is in the auto position?

A

All pumps:
Respective engine pump output pressure is low
Respective engine fuel control switch is in cutoff
—
Pumps 1/4:
Trailing edge flaps are in transit on the ground
Continuously when flaps extended past 1 in-flight

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68
Q

On GE -400 aircraft, which hydraulic demand pumps are air driven, and which are electric motor driven?

A

1&4: air driven
2&3: electric driven

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69
Q

On N480MC, N445MC, N446MC, which hydraulic demand pumps are air driven, and which are electric motor driven?

A

All pumps are air driven

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70
Q

What does a magenta ‘RF’ mean when displayed next to a hydraulic quantity indicator?

A

Refill

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71
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic auxiliary pump?

A

Ground handling operations

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72
Q

When is the engine driven hydraulic pump pressurized?

A

Respective engine running
Respective engine pump switch is on

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73
Q

What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of 0.95 mean?

A

Percentage of normal service

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74
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 1?

A

Nose and body gear steering
Nose and body gear hydraulic extension and retraction
System 1 alternate brake source
Inboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
Left outboard elevator
Center autopilot

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75
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 4?

A

Wing gear hydraulic extension and retraction
System 4 normal brake source
Auto-brake
Outboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
Right outboard elevator
2 inboard spoiler panels on each wing

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76
Q

How many engine fire extinguishers are there?

A

4 total, 2 on each wing

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77
Q

Pressing the forward cargo fire arm switch causes what actions?

A

Turns off 2 packs
Arms lower cargo compartment extinguishers
Equipment cooling goes to override mode
Airflow and heat shutoff to lower cargo compartments
Master trim air valve closes

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78
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments on the 744?

A

4 - two bottles discharge immediately and two discharge after a delay or upon touchdown

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79
Q

How many APU fire bottles are there?

A

One

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80
Q

What discharges the APU fire bottle?

A

Rotating the APU fire handle, or using the panel in the right body gear wheel well

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81
Q

Can you shut down the APU from outside the airplane?

A

Yes, using the panel in the right body gear wheel well

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82
Q

Is there smoke detection in the crew rest areas?

A

Yes, smoke detectors are installed

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83
Q

What happens when you push the cargo fire depressurization switch with the main deck fire switch armed?

A

Turns off 2 packs
Enables main deck fire suppression
Equipment cooling goes to closed loop mode
Airflow to main deck shutoff
Airflow and heat shutoff to lower cargo compartments
Master trim air valve closes

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84
Q

What unlocks an engine fire switch?

A

A fire warning
A fuel control switch is in cutoff
Pushing the override button

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85
Q

Is the engine fire and overheat detection system a single or dual loop system?

A

Dual loop

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86
Q

What does arming the forward cargo fire switch do on a passenger aircraft?

A

Turns off pack 3
Arms cargo fire extinguisher
Equipment cooling to override mode
Airflow and heat shutoff to forward cargo compartment
Nitrogen generation system shutoff

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87
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments on the 748?

A

6

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88
Q

How is center wing tank fuel scavenged for the 744, 748? At what fuel level does scavenge begin?

A

4 jet pumps feed main tanks 2 and 3
Main tank 2 or 3 quantity around 27,200 kgs

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89
Q

Which cross feed valves are controlled by the fuel system management logic when setting takeoff flaps?

A

2 and 3

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90
Q

At what center wing tank quantity are you required to select the center wing fuel pumps on for the 744, 748, LCF?

A

744: 7,700 kgs
748: 7,700 kgs
LCF: 17,000 lbs

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91
Q

Main tank 2 and 3 override/jettison pumps can operate to what standpipe level for the 744, 748, LCF?

A

744: 3,200 kgs
748: 3,450 kgs
LCF: 7,000 lbs

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92
Q

How does the fuel quantity indication change upon termination of fuel jettison?

A

Fuel to remain indication changes from magenta to white
Fuel to remain indication flashes for 5 seconds

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93
Q

How is center wing tank fuel scavenged for the LCF? At what fuel level does scavenge begin?

A

Electric pump feeds main tank 2
Main tank 2 or 3 quantity below 40,200 lbs

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94
Q

What happens when you select the fuel jettison switch to A or B?

A

Arms the jettison selector
Displays preselected fuel to remain on EICAS

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95
Q

What is the impact of an excessive fuel imbalance?

A

CG
Drag
Fuel economy

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96
Q

When do the fuel system management cards open the reserve transfer valves on the 744, 748, LCF? Where does the fuel transfer to/from?

A

744: main tank 2 or 3 quantity approximately 18,200 kgs
748: main tank 1 or 4 quantity approximately 6,100 kgs
LCF: main tank 2 or 3 quantity approximately 40,200 lbs
—
744: reserve tanks 2 and 3 to related main tank
748: reserve tanks 1 and 4 to related main tank
LCF: reserve tanks 2 and 3 to related main tank

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97
Q

In which tank is fuel temperature measured?

A

Main tank 1

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98
Q

How would you handle an excessive fuel imbalance?

A

Refer to the QRH and supplemental procedures
Open/close cross feed valves and turn on/off fuel pumps

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99
Q

Which fuel tanks do reserve tanks 1 and 4 transfer to on the 748?

A

Main tanks 1 and 4

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100
Q

On the 748, at what fuel quantity will the fuel jettison stop with the selector in the MLW position?

A

Maximum landing weight plus 3,000 kgs

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101
Q

During fuel jettison on the LCF, transfer valves open when fuel quantity in tanks 2 or 3 decrease to what level?

A

20,000 lbs

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102
Q

What happens when nacelle anti ice is turned on?

A

Nacelle anti ice (NAI) valve opens
Engine pressure relief valve opens when NAI is open
Selected engine igniters operate continuously

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103
Q

What does the EICAS message ‘BLD LOW TEMP’ indicate on the 748?

A

Engine bleed air too low for sufficient wing anti icing

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104
Q

Does the nacelle anti ice work on the ground when in the auto position?

A

No - auto only works in-flight

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5
Perfectly
105
Q

How many ice detector probes are there? Where are they located?

A

2
Forward fuselage

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106
Q

How many angle of attack probes are there? When are they heated?

A

2
Electrically heated when any engine is running

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107
Q

How many pitot-static probes are there? When are they heated?

A

4
Electrically heated when any engine is running

108
Q

Which flight deck windows are provided anti-ice/anti-fog protections by the window heat?

A

Forward left and right windshields

109
Q

What indications are displayed on EICAS when the nacelle and/or wing anti-ice valves are open on the 744?

A

NAI: nacelle anti-ice
WAI: wing anti-ice

110
Q

What indications are displayed on EICAS when the nacelle and/or wing anti-ice valves are open on the 748?

A

EAI: engine anti-ice
WAI: wing anti-ice

111
Q

Is wing anti-ice effective with the leading edge flaps extended?

A

No

112
Q

Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on the ground?

A

No

113
Q

When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?

A

One or more engines on each wing is running

114
Q

On the ground, when is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard?

A

Engines are off
Equipment cooling selector is in the NORM position
Ambient air temperature is moderate to high

115
Q

Equipment cooling provides cooling air for what compartment and systems?

A

Flight deck
Electrical and Equipment (E&E) racks

116
Q

How can you manually configure the equipment cooling system for flight?

A

Position the equipment cooling selector to STBY

117
Q

What is the function of the lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate selector?

A

Provides conditioned air to the forward and aft cargo lobes

118
Q

What happens if a pack temperature controller (PTC) detects a fault in a pack channel?

A

Control of the respective pack switches to the other PTC

119
Q

How many pack temperature controllers are there?

A

2, A and B

120
Q

On the 748, what is the temperature zone target with the forward/aft lower lobe temperature selectors in the off position?

A

68F

121
Q

On the 748, the nitrogen generation system converts bleed air to nitrogen enriched air for what purpose?

A

Reduce center wing tank fuel flammability

122
Q

On the 748, what does the alternate ventilation system provide with packs off and the airplane depressurized?

A

Outside air to the flight deck

123
Q

On the 748, in what position are the main deck forward/aft temperature selectors normally placed during preflight?

A

Off

124
Q

On the 748, in what position is the lower lobe aft cargo heat selector placed during preflight?

A

Low

125
Q

On the 748, what does the TEMP DEV CGO HI/LO message indicate?

A

HI: 9F higher than selected temperature
LO: 9F lower than selected temperature

126
Q

On the 748, what temperature is maintained with the lower lobe aft cargo heat selector in low/high?

A

Low: 40F
High: 50F

127
Q

On the 748, for which temperature zones is left and right trim air provided?

A

Left: flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, aft main deck
Right: forward main deck, forward/aft lower lobe

128
Q

Will the cabin altitude controllers program a positive or negative pressurization at touchdown?

A

Positive (slightly)

129
Q

What would allow manual operation of the pressurization system?

A

Turning both outflow manual switches to ‘ON’

130
Q

When do the cabin altitude controllers switch?

A

Automatically between flights
Automatically if one controller fails

131
Q

How many cabin altitude controllers are there?

A

2, A and B

132
Q

How can you set the landing altitude manually?

A

Push the landing altitude switch

133
Q

What does the zone system fault light indicate when illuminated?

A

Zone duct overheat
Zone temperature controller fault
Master trim air valve failed closed
Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow

134
Q

When would high pressure air be used?

A

Descent, and other low power settings

135
Q

How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event a bleed duct leak is detected?

A

Close the respective isolation valve
Close the respective engine bleed air valves

136
Q

What does a bleed duct isolation valve light indicate when illuminated?

A

The isolation valve position disagrees with the switch position

137
Q

When bleed air pressure is available, the engine bleed air switches control which valves by system logic?

A

Pressure regulating valve (PRV)
High pressure bleed air valve (HP)
Engine bleed air valve

138
Q

What does the pressure regulating valve do?

A

Prevents damage to downstream ducting and equipment by limiting bleed air pressure

139
Q

When would intermediate pressure air be used?

A

High power settings

140
Q

How is the hydraulic system affected with the right bleed air duct isolated?

A

Refer to the QRH…

Hydraulic demand pump 4 is off
Hydraulic systems 3 and 4 have no reservoir pressure

141
Q

Will nacelle anti-ice be available with an EICAS message of ‘starter cutout 1,2,3,4’? for the respective engine?

A

No

142
Q

How will leading edge flap operation be affected with a right bleed air duct isolated?

A

Refer to the QRH…

Right leading edge flaps move in secondary mode
Flaps primary message

143
Q

Which roll mode does the outer bank limit selector apply to?

A

Heading select

144
Q

How do you reengage the auto-throttles when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S or G/S?

A

Push the speed switch

145
Q

How do you reengage the auto-throttles when the pitch mode is VNAV or FLCH SPD?

A

Cycle the auto-throttle switch from off back to arm

146
Q

How can you manually select climb thrust after takeoff or a go around?

A

Push the thrust switch

147
Q

What function is operating if the thrust switch light is illuminated/extinguished?

A

Illuminated = auto-throttle function
Extinguished = thrust limit function

148
Q

How can you deselect the approach mode after the localizer and glide slope have captured?

A

Select TOGA or disengage the autopilot and turn off both flight directors

149
Q

Can the glide slope be captured prior to localizer intercept?

A

No

150
Q

What does an amber horizontal line through an active pitch or roll mode indicate?

A

A flight mode fault has been detected

151
Q

Will the auto-throttles engage if TOGA is not selected prior to 50 kts on takeoff?

A

No - they will automatically engage above 400 feet when VNAV captures

152
Q

When will VNAV activate during takeoff?

A

400 feet above the runway elevation

153
Q

Which pitch mode does not provide auto-throttle speed protection with the auto-throttle and autopilot engaged?

A

Vertical speed

154
Q

When is TOGA terminated after takeoff?

A

Activation of LNAV/VNAV or selecting any other pitch and roll mode

155
Q

How can you disarm LNAV, LOC, VNAV and APP modes once armed but prior to capture?

A

Push the mode switch a second time

156
Q

In-flight, when is TOGA armed?

A

Flaps greater than zero or glide-slope capture

157
Q

For auto-land, what controls are used by the AFDS to steer the airplane on the localizer centerline after touchdown?

A

Rudder and nose wheel steering

158
Q

On approach, with the first push of the TOGA switches, what auto-throttle mode would display with the auto-throttle armed? With the second push?

A

1st: thrust
2nd: thrust ref at full go-around thrust

159
Q

When does the auto-throttle annunciation change to hold during takeoff?

A

65 kts

160
Q

What climb rate is set during a go-around with one push of the TOGA switches?

A

2,000 feet per minute

161
Q

What altitude will the electrical buses isolate for auto-land operations?

A

Below 1,500 feet radio altitude

162
Q

When does the flare mode activate during auto-land?

A

Around 50 feet radio altitude

163
Q

What pitch is commanded by the AFDS when TOGA is selected in a wind shear recovery?

A

15 degrees nose up, or slightly below the pitch limit indicator, whichever is lower

164
Q

When would VNAV ALT display as the pitch mode?

A

When there is a conflict between the VNAV profile and the MCP selected altitude

165
Q

What is the maximum intercept angle that the localizer will capture with the approach or localizer mode armed?

A

120 degrees

166
Q

What action normally disconnects the auto-throttles during an auto-land approach?

A

A thrust lever is raised to reverse idle

167
Q

When does the rollout mode activate during auto-land?

A

Below 5 feet

168
Q

How are mode changes emphasized on the FMA?

A

A green box surrounds the mode for 10 seconds

169
Q

How would you deactivate the LOC or FAC modes once they have captured on the 748?

A

Push TOGA or…
Disconnect the autopilot and turn both flight directors off, or…
Select a roll mode other than LNAV

170
Q

When will ‘no auto-land’ display if LAND 2/3 hasn’t been annunciated?

A

600 feet

171
Q

What does the roll mode ‘FAC’ indicate when armed on the 748?

A

The approach switch is selected and the AFDS is set for an IAN procedure

172
Q

What minimum maneuver capability is provided at the top of the amber bar on the PFD airspeed display?

A

1.3g

173
Q

If the display selector panel fails, how can you select the synoptic displays for lower EICAS?

A

Through the respective CDU

174
Q

What indicates you are 1/3 of a dot deviation from the localizer?

A

At low radio altitudes with the AP or FD engaged the localizer scale turns amber and flashes

175
Q

How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?

A

Through the respective CDU

176
Q

What source selector would you move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag on the PFD?

A

Air data

177
Q

When does the Pitch Limit Indication show?

A

When flaps are not up

178
Q

How is the airspeed range for acceptable VNAV path indicated on the PFD on the 748?

A

VNAV speed band

179
Q

On the 748, Actual Navigation Performance bars change to what color if the Navigation Path Pointer moves into the bar area for how long?

A

Amber
5 seconds

180
Q

On the 748, when do the Vertical Anticipation Cues display?

A

Within 60 degrees of the final approach course
Within 25nm of the missed approach point
Below 6,000 feet field elevation

181
Q

On the 748, when do the IAN Scales display?

A

LNAV/VNAV are not active
An approach is in the active flight plan
FMC is in the descent mode
150nm from the destination or 50nm from the T/D

182
Q

On the 748, what will show if the Integrated Standby Flight Display initialization does not complete within six minutes?

A

ATT:RST

183
Q

On the 748, what does the Vertical Situation Display represent?

A

A profile view of the airplane and its environment along the current track

184
Q

On the 748, Vertical Situation Display swath is inhibited under what conditions?

A

6nm of the runway
Below 3,000 feet field elevation

185
Q

On the 748, electronic checklist Open Loop items require what action?

A

Manual completion with the cursor control

186
Q

What does the IRS ON Battery (BAT) light indicate?

A

The IRS is operating on backup electrical power

The APU Hot Battery bus

187
Q

When is a full alignment of the IRS required?

A

Every 18 hours

188
Q

What CDU pages are available during Alternate Navigation?

A

Legs, Progress, Radio

189
Q

Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?

A

No

190
Q

How many FMCs are there?

A

Two, left and right

191
Q

What determines “ECON” speed?

A

Cost index

192
Q

What VNAV pitch mode would you expect during climb out on a climb via clearance? What mode would you expect with altitude constraints?

A

VNAV SPD, VNAV PTH

193
Q

If you are flying an approach with the FMC on “approach logic” and the airplane rises more than 150 feet above the path, what VNAV pitch mode will show?

A

VNAV SPD

194
Q

When does approach logic begin on the a Legacy FMC?

A

When the initial fix on an approach sequences
When the runway is the active waypoint and it is within 25nm

195
Q

When does approach logic begin on a NG FMC?

A

FMC descent with the flaps out of up
When the first waypoint of an active approach sequences
When the runway or the MAP is the active waypoint and it is within 25nm

196
Q

Are there VMCG issues when applying additional thrust manually during an assumed temperature takeoff?

A

No, because the assumed temperature thrust setting is not a limitation and VMCG is calculated from the full engine rated thrust

197
Q

Are there VMCG issues when applying additional thrust manually during a TO1 or TO2 fixed de-rate takeoff?

A

Yes, possible loss of directional control following an engine failure

198
Q

When does “insufficient fuel’ display on the CDU?

A

When the estimated fuel at the destination is less than the fuel reserve entered on the PERF INIT page

199
Q

Can ATC monitor the aircraft position on the ground when the transponder is in STBY?

A

No

200
Q

Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?

A

No

201
Q

What happens when an active database expires in-flight?

A

It is used until the active database is changed after landing

202
Q

How is the reference thrust changed from TO to CON following an engine failure in-flight?

A

Automatically when the airspeed exceeds Vref+98 and the flaps are up, or…
Pushing the THR switch on the MCP, or…
Selecting CON in the CDU thrust limit page

203
Q

What databases are contained in the FMC?

A

Aero Engine (performance)
Navigation
OPC
MAGVAR Tables

204
Q

When will the FMC fail to sequence to the active waypoint?

A

When more than 21nm from the active route and not on an offset route

205
Q

On the 748, what operational modes are available for the weather radar?

A

Manual
Automatic

206
Q

On the 748, does the weather radar provide turbulence detection?

A

Yes, with sufficient precipitation magenta displays for moderate to severe turbulence

CAT cannot be detected

207
Q

When armed for takeoff, when does VNAV activate?

A

400 feet

208
Q

If the FMC cruise altitude is FL250 and the clearance altitude of FL190 is set in the MCP, what VNAV pitch mode would you expect reaching FL190?

A

VNAV ALT

209
Q

What VNAV pitch mode would you expect on a departure with altitude constraints?

A

VNAV PTH

210
Q

What is the difference between RNP and Actual? Where is it displayed?

A

RNP = Required Navigation Performance
Actual = Actual Navigation Performance
—
FMC POS REF page

211
Q

What is a conditional waypoint?

A

A waypoint based on time or altitude, not a land reference

212
Q

How many groups of leading edge flaps are there? How is each normally powered?

A

3; inboard, midspan, outboard
Normally pneumatically powered from the bleed air duct

213
Q

How many groups of trailing edge flaps are there? How is each normally powered?

A

2; inboard, outboard
Inboard normally powered via hydraulic system 1
Outboard normally powered via hydraulic system 4

214
Q

Is there asymmetry protection in the alternate flap mode?

A

No

215
Q

How are the trailing edge flaps normally powered?

A

Hydraulically

216
Q

How long does the flap indication display remain after all flaps are up?

A

10 seconds

217
Q

What protections do the FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in the primary mode?

A

Asymmetry
Load relief
Flap position

218
Q

How many FCUs are there?

A

3

219
Q

What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in alternate mode?

A

25

220
Q

What EICAS advisory message displays if all FCUs fail?

A

Flaps Control

221
Q

How does alternate flap mode work?

A

Bypasses FCUs
Can be manually selected
All flaps are extended/retracted via electric motors

222
Q

Is there asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?

A

No

223
Q

What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or midspan leading edge flap group?

A

Both groups change to alternate mode

224
Q

When do the spoiler panels extend to the ‘up’ position during landing if the speed brake is not armed?

A

Main landing gear on the ground
Thrust levers 1 & 3 near idle
Thrust levers 2 & 4 pulled up to the idle detent

225
Q

On the 748, to improve takeoff performance and to reduce noise, at which flap settings do the outboard ailerons droop, and return to neutral? For the inboard ailerons?

A

Outboard ailerons droop at flap 10 or 20, they return to neutral at flap 25 or 30
Inboard ailerons droop at flap 10 or greater

226
Q

Describe how the STAB trim cutout switches work when in the ‘auto’ position.

A

They supply hydraulic power for the stabilizer trim, and shut off the related hydraulic system if unscheduled trim is detected

227
Q

What happens to the flap system during reverse thrust actuation?

A

Inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract automatically

228
Q

What control surface moves with STAB trim actuation?

A

Leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer

229
Q

What is the purpose of the yaw dampeners?

A

Provide turn coordination
Improve lateral and directional stability

230
Q

How does the aileron lockout system work? What is its purpose?

A

Permits full travel of the outboard ailerons at low airspeeds, and locks the outboard ailerons in the neutral position at high airspeeds, preventing over-controlling

231
Q

On the 748, what system assists with pitch stability and the landing flare?

A

Pitch Augmentation Control System

232
Q

On the 748, when does tail strike protection activate?

A

Anytime during takeoff or landing when the PACS senses an imminent tail strike it decreases elevator deflection

233
Q

What is the takeoff trim setting based on?

A

Gross weight
CG
Engine thrust derate selection
Flap selection (748)

234
Q

With the autopilot engaged, will STAB trim work?

A

No, stabilizer trim switches are inhibited with the autopilot engaged

235
Q

Describe the ‘off’ position of the landing gear.

A

Depressurizes the landing gear hydraulic system

236
Q

How many degrees of steering are available with the tiller? With the rudder?

A

70: tiller
7: rudder

237
Q

When illuminated, what does the ‘brake source’ light indicate?

A

Hydraulic systems 1, 2 and 4 have low pressure

238
Q

How is the landing gear held in the retracted position?

A

Up-locks = main gear
Mechanical locks = nose gear

239
Q

When does RTO apply maximum braking?

A

Airplane is on the ground
Wheel speed is above 85 knots
Thrust levers are closed

240
Q

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?

A

Parking brake application

241
Q

What does a white, crosshatched, expanded gear position indication mean?

A

The related gear is in transit

242
Q

For the landing gear lever to release, what conditions must be met?

A

Main gear tilted
Body gear centered

243
Q

What hydraulic system pressurizes the brake accumulator?

A

System 4

244
Q

When will a ‘brake temp’ EICAS message show?

A

BTMS value of 5

245
Q

How does the landing gear extend using the alternate gear extension system?

A

Up-locks and latches are electrically released and the gear free falls
Gravity and air loads extend the gear
Springs pull down-locks into position

246
Q

Why is it necessary to pressurize hydraulic system 4 before the other systems?

A

Precludes the transfer of hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 into system 4

247
Q

What does the EICAS message ‘limiter’ indicate?

A

Brake torque limiter failure on more than one wheel per truck
Parking brake is released and the parking brake valve is not fully open
Brake system control unit power loss

248
Q

What is the highest priority EICAS alert message?

A

Warning

249
Q

What are the types of EICAS alert messages?

A

Warning (red)
Caution (amber)
Advisory (amber)
Memo (white)

250
Q

What alerts show on the PFD?

A

Wind shear (red)
Pull up (red)

251
Q

Can warning messages be cancelled?

A

No

252
Q

What does the ‘status cue’ mean?

A

A new status message exists on the secondary EICAS display

253
Q

What EICAS messages are listed in the DDG and allow for dispatch capability?

A

Status messages

254
Q

Can amber EICAS alert messages be cancelled or recalled?

A

Yes

255
Q

When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the airplane symbol on the PFD?

A

Outside the red outlined regions

256
Q

What will cause the ‘config’ message to display during takeoff?

A

Flaps not in a takeoff position
Body gear not centered
Parking brake set
Speed brake lever not in down detent
Stab trim not in takeoff range

257
Q

On the 748, what message would you receive during a rejected takeoff if the speed brakes do not deploy?

A

A red ‘speed brake’ message on the PFD

258
Q

On the 748, during takeoff and landing a ‘bank angle’ alert sounds at bank angles as low as?

A

10 degrees

259
Q

What will cause the ‘config gear’ message?

A

Any landing gear not down and locked when…
Flaps are in a landing position
Any thrust lever is closed and the RA is less than 800 feet

260
Q

When are master caution lights/beeper inhibited during takeoff?

A

80 knots airspeed

261
Q

When are new predictive wind shear warnings inhibited during takeoff?

A

100 knots airspeed

262
Q

Calculate landing distance, flap setting and auto brake settings…

A

Go to QRH

263
Q

Safety is best defined as?

A

Managed risk

264
Q

When faced with competing objectives, what must always remain the highest priority?

A

Safety

265
Q

Maximum speed in RVSM airspace for the 744/748/LCF?

A

744: 0.90 mach
748: n/a
LCF: n/a

Atlas (5 decks)

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