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Atlas > PC Oral Question Bank Rev 1 > Flashcards

PC Oral Question Bank Rev 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the wingspan of the 747?

A

744: 213 feet
748: 224.5 feet

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2
Q

With body gear steering, what is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn for the 747?

A

744: 153 feet
748: 172 feet

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3
Q

What happens when you rotate the oxygen mask emergency/test selector to emergency?

A

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes, and protects against smoke and vapors

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4
Q

With the emergency lights switch armed, when do the emergency lights illuminate?

A

If DC power fails or is turned off

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5
Q

What is the electrical power source for the emergency lighting system? How long does it last?

A

Remote batteries

15 minutes

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6
Q

Where is the portable ELT located?

A

Upper deck on the lavatory exterior wall

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7
Q

What are the immediate action items on the QRC?

A

Cabin altitude, rapid depressurization
Engine 1,2,3,4 auto start, aborted engine start
Engine limit, or surge, or stall
IAS disagree, airspeed unreliable
Fire engine 1,2,3,4 engine severe damage or separation
Multiple engine flameout or stall

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8
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component for the 747?

A

744: 15 knots
748: 15 knots
LCF: 10 knots

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9
Q

What is the maximum headwind component for auto land?

A

25 knots

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10
Q

What are the maximum and minimum glide-slope angles for ILS auto-land?

A

Max: 3.25 degrees
Min: 2.5 degrees

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11
Q

What VNAV limitation applies to level-off within 2,000 feet after changing the altimeter from QNE to QNH, or QNH to QNE?

A

Do not use VNAV for the level-off if the QNH is less than 29.70in/1006hPa

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12
Q

Without LAND2 or LAND3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below what altitude?

A

100 feet RA

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13
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed for the 747?

A

744: 290-310 knots or 0.82-0.85 Mach, whichever is lower
748: 310 knots or 0.83 Mach

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14
Q

What is the minimum in-flight fuel temperature for the -8?

A

-48 degrees C

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15
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?

A

20,000 feet

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16
Q

Are operations allowed when the reported braking action is NIL?

A

No

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17
Q

Where can you find the maximum takeoff and landing weights for the aircraft you are operating?

A

OFP page 1

FCOM Vol 1 limitations

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18
Q

What is the difference in the BOW on the OFP and the Sable Load-sheet? Is there a difference between the Sable and OFP final calculated ZFW and TOGW?

A

BOW OFP: includes weight of all cockpit and cabin crew

BOW Sable: includes only two crew

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19
Q

What BTMS number on the gear synoptic display will cause an EICAS Brake Temp advisory message?

A

5 or more

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20
Q

The final upper deck/cockpit procedure requires the FO to do what with the smoke barrier door?

A

Ensure the door is closed and all three security locks are moved to the locked position

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21
Q

In the normal mode, what does the EEC use as the controlling parameter for GE engines? PW engines?

A

GE: N1
PW: EPR

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22
Q

What protection features are provided by the EEC in normal mode?

A

Thrust limiting
Maintains constant thrust
Over speed protection

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23
Q

What occurs with the auto throttle system when any EEC control is switched to alternate mode?

A

The auto throttles disconnect, but can be reconnected when all EECs have been switched to alternate mode

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24
Q

What EEC normal mode protection feature is not available in alternate mode?

A

Thrust limiting at max N1

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25
Q

When does the EEC select approach idle?

A

Nacelle anti ice on
Flaps in landing position
Continuous ignition switch on
Reverse thrust operation

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26
Q

What action should be taken prior to manual selection of the EEC alternate mode?

A

Decrease thrust lever position

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27
Q

What happens when you turn the continuous ignition switch on?

A

Selected igniters operate continuously

Commands approach idle minimum

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28
Q

What two engine indications are displayed full-time on the primary EICAS for a GE engine?

A

N1

EGT

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29
Q

What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start or takeoff limit is reached?

A

Red

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30
Q

If the airborne vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source of the vibration, it will display BB. What does this mean?

A

Broadband: the average vibration detected

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31
Q

What 3 items will the auto start system protect the engine from during an engine start that will also result in an ENG 1,2,3,4 Autostart EICAS message?

A

Hot start
Hung start
No EGT rise

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32
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on a GE engine?

A

Pneumatically

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33
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on a PW engine?

A

Hydraulically

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34
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the GEnx engine?

A

Hydraulically

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35
Q

With an engine shutdown, what does X-BLD indicate when displayed next to the N2 indication?

A

Cross-bleed air is recommended for an in-flight start

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36
Q

When is ignition selected for all engines?

A

Trailing edge flaps out of the up position

Continuous ignition switch selected on

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37
Q

How many igniters are selected for ground start, and how many for an in-flight start?

A

Ground: one

In-flight: two

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38
Q

What are the PW engine warmup requirements for oil temperature before takeoff?

A

Above the lower amber band

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39
Q

GEnx engine EECs command ice crystal anti icing when ice crystal icing conditions are detected at altitudes above…

A

30,000 feet

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40
Q

GEnx engine ice crystal anti icing cycles last for how long when ice crystal conditions are detected? Or until the aircraft descends below what altitude?

A

15 minutes

28,000 feet

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41
Q

When does the GEnx engine select minimum or approach idle?

A 
Engine anti ice on
Landing gear down
Flap 20 selected
Flap in landing position
Thrust reverser operation
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42
Q

Under what conditions on the ground will the GEnx EEC shutdown an engine to provide protection against thrust asymmetry due to a control malfunction?

A

Thrust lever at/near idle

Engine above commanded N1 speed and not decelerating normally

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43
Q

During engine start when will the GEnx engine provide an additional 40 seconds of motoring time at 20% N2?

A

Engine has been shutdown between 30-360 minutes

EGT greater than 30 degrees C

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44
Q

During engine start the GEnx engine EEC will attempt corrective action for which start malfunctions?

A

Hot start
Hung start
No EGT rise
Compressor stall

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45
Q

GEnx engine in-flight start attempts will increase the EGT limit by 25 degrees C after 4 start attempts, and will repeat this action on subsequent reattempts until?

A

Engine start achieved or the EGT limit is reached

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46
Q

When does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING display?

A

APU selector on

APU N1 RPM above 95% N1

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47
Q

Is electrical power available from the APU in-flight?

A

No

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48
Q

Can the APU be operated in-flight?

A

Yes - when left running for takeoff it can be operated up to 20,000 feet

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49
Q

After the APU selector is rotated to off, how long should you wait before turning the battery switch off, and why?

A

2 minutes

Enables a complete shutdown sequence with fire detection capability

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50
Q

What are the main AC electric power sources on the LCF?

A

4 IDGs

2 external power sources

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51
Q

What is the function of the standby power switch in the auto position?

A

Allows the main and APU standby buses to be powered from any available source

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52
Q

What does the AVAIL light indicate on the external and APU power switches?

A

The related power source is plugged in and available

The power quality is acceptable

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53
Q

When is the main deck cargo handling bus powered?

A

When AVAIL is illuminated on the APU 2 or EXT 2 switches

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54
Q

What electric power source provides power for lower lobe cargo handling, fueling, and the AUX 4 hydraulic pump?

A

EXT 1 or APU GEN 1 AVAIL or ON; powering the ground handling bus

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55
Q

What are some items powered by the utility buses?

A

5 fuel pumps

Galley equipment

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56
Q

What happens when you push a generator drive disconnect switch?

A

Disconnects the IDG from the engine when above idle

Opens related generator control breaker

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57
Q

What condition would automatically disconnect an IDG?

A

Excessively high drive oil temperature

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58
Q

What does a bus isolation light indicate when illuminated?

A

The bus tie breaker is open

The AC bus is isolated from the synchronous bus

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59
Q

How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?

A

Call maintenance

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60
Q

How is the electrical system configured during an automatic ILS approach (auto-land)?

A

AC and DC buses 1,2,3 are isolated from the synchronous bus

AC bus 4 powers the synchronous bus

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61
Q

What are the main AC electrical power sources?

A

4 IDGs
2 APU power sources
2 external power sources

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62
Q

What does a hydraulic system fault light indicate when illuminated?

A

Low pressure
Low reservoir quantity
Excessive temperature

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63
Q

What does a hydraulic demand pump low press light indicate when illuminated?

A

Demand pump selector OFF or AUX

Demand pump is operating and output pressure is low

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64
Q

When will the hydraulic demand pumps be commanded to operate if the selector is in the auto position?

A

Respective engine pump output pressure is low
Respective fuel control switch is in cutoff
—-Pumps 1/4—-
When trailing edge flaps are in transit on the ground
Continuously when flaps extended past 1 in-flight

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65
Q

With GE engines, which hydraulic demand pumps are air driven, and which are electrically driven?

A

1/4 - air

2/3 - electric

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66
Q

For N445/446MC, which hydraulic demand pumps are air driven, and which are electrically driven?

A

All hydraulic demand pumps are pneumatically driven

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67
Q

What does a magenta RF mean in regard to the hydraulic system?

A

The respective reservoir requires refill

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic auxiliary pump?

A

It is used for ground handing operations

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69
Q

When is the engine driven hydraulic pump pressurized?

A

When the engine is running

When the engine pump switch is on

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70
Q

What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of 0.95 mean?

A

Percentage of normal service level (1.00)

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71
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 1?

A

Refer to the QRH…however, the following is INOP:

Center autopilot
Left outboard aileron
Nose and body gear steering
Nose and body gear normal extension and retraction
System 1 alternate brake source
Inboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
—-
Trailing edge flaps move in secondary mode

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72
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 4?

A

Refer to the QRH…however, the following is INOP:

Right outboard aileron
Wing gear normal extension and retraction
System 4 normal brake source
Two inboard spoiler panels on each wing
Outboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
—-
Trailing edge flaps move in secondary mode

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73
Q

How many engine fire extinguishers are provided?

A

4; 2 on each wing

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74
Q

Pressing the FWD cargo fire arm switch causes what actions?

A

Shuts down two packs
Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
Configures equipment cooling to override mode
Turns off all airflow/heat to lower cargo compartments
Closes master trim air valve

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75
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments?

A

4; 2 bottles discharge immediately, and the other 2 discharge after a brief delay or upon touchdown

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76
Q

How many APU fire bottles are provided?

A

1

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77
Q

What action discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle?

A

Rotating the APU fire handle

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78
Q

Can you shutdown the APU from outside the airplane?

A

Yes; via the APU panel located in the right body gear well

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79
Q

Is smoke detection available for the crew rest areas?

A

Yes; smoke detectors are installed

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80
Q

What happens when you push the cargo fire depressurization switch with the main deck fire switch armed?

A

Enables main deck fire suppression
Turns off two packs
Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
Turns off all airflow to the main deck
Turns off all airflow and heat to the lower cargo compartments
Closes master trim air valve

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81
Q

What unlocks an engine fire switch?

A

Fire warning
A fuel control switch is in cutoff
Pushing the fire override switch

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82
Q

Is the engine fire/overheat detection system a single or dual loop system?

A

Dual loop

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83
Q

What does arming the FWD cargo fire switch do on a passenger aircraft?

A

Arms the cargo fire extinguisher
Configures equipment cooling to override mode
Turns off airflow and heat to the forward cargo compartment
Turns off pack 3
Turns off nitrogen generation system

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84
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the FWD and AFT cargo compartments on the 747-8?

A

6

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85
Q

How is center wing tank fuel scavenged for the 744/8?

A

4 jet pumps that feed into main tanks 2 and 3 when main tank quantity decreases to 27,200 kgs

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86
Q

Which cross feed valves are controlled by fuel system management logic when setting takeoff flaps?

A

Cross feed valves 2 and 3

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87
Q

During the before start procedure, at what center wing tank quantity are you required to select the center wing pumps on? For the LCF?

A

744: 7,700 kgs or more
LCF: 17,000 lbs or more

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88
Q

Main tank 2 and 3 override/jettison pumps can operate to a standpipe level of how much of fuel remaining in each tank for the 74-4/8/LCF?

A

744: 3,200 kgs
748: 3,450 kgs
LCF: 7,000 lbs

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89
Q

Describe how the fuel quantity indication changes upon completion of fuel jettison.

A

Fuel to remain indication changes from magenta to white

Fuel to remain quantity flashes for 5 seconds

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90
Q

How is center wing tank fuel scavenged for the LCF?

A

An electric pump feeds main tank 2 when:
Center wing tank override/jettison pump has low pressure
Fuel quantity in main tank 2 or 3 is below 40,200 lbs

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91
Q

What happens when you rotate the fuel jettison switch to A or B?

A

Arms the jettison selector

Displays preselected fuel to remain on EICAS

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92
Q

What is the impact of an excessive fuel imbalance?

A

Adversely affects CG
Increased aerodynamic drag
Decreased fuel economy

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93
Q

When do the fuel system management cards open the reserve transfer valves on the 744/8/LCF?

A

744: main tank 2 or 3 quantity around 18,200 kgs
748: main tank 1 or 4 quantity around 6,100 kgs
LCF: main tank 2 or 3 quantity around 40,200 lbs

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94
Q

In which tank is fuel temperature measured?

A

Main tank 1

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95
Q

How would you handle an excessive fuel imbalance situation?

A

Refer to the QRH…or:

Open/close cross feed pumps
Turn on/off fuel pump switches

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96
Q

Which fuel tanks do reserve tanks 1 and 4 transfer to on the 747-8?

A

Main tanks 1 and 4

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97
Q

On the 747-8, at what fuel quantity will the fuel jettison system terminate operations with the selector in the maximum landing weight position?

A

Maximum landing weight plus 3,000 kgs

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98
Q

During fuel jettison on the LCF, transfer valves open when fuel quantity in main tanks 2 and 3 decrease to?

A

20,000 lbs

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99
Q

What happens when nacelle anti-ice is selected on?

A

Nacelle anti-ice valve opens
Engine pressure relief valve opens when the nacelle anti-ice valve is open
Selected engine igniters operate continuously

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100
Q

What does the EICAS message BLD LOW TEMP indicate on the 747-8?

A

Engine bleed air too low for sufficient wing anti-icing

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101
Q

Does the nacelle anti-ice AUTO position work on the ground?

A

No

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102
Q

How many ice detector probes are there, and where are they located?

A

2; located on the forward fuselage

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103
Q

How many angle of attack probes are there, and when are they heated?

A

2; each electrically heated when any engine is running

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104
Q

How many pitot-static probes are there, and when are they heated?

A

4; each electrically heated when any engine is running

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105
Q

With the window heat on, anti-icing/fogging protection is afforded to which cockpit windows?

A

Forward left and right windshields only

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106
Q

What displays on EICAS when nacelle or wing anti-icing valves are open (747-400)?

A

NAI; for nacelle anti-ice

WAI; for wing anti-ice

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107
Q

What displays on EICAS when nacelle or wing anti-icing valves are open (747-8)?

A

EAI; for nacelle anti-ice

WAI; for wing anti-ice

108
Q

Is wing anti-ice effective with the leading edge flaps extended?

A

No

109
Q

Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on the ground?

A

No

110
Q

When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?

A

When one or more engines are operating on each wing

111
Q

On the ground, when is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard?

A

Engines are not operating
Equipment cooling selector is in NORM
Ambient air temperature is moderate to high

112
Q

Equipment cooling provides cooling air for what areas?

A

Flight deck equipment

Electrical and Equipment racks (E and E)

113
Q

How can you manually configure the equipment cooling system for flight?

A

Position the equipment cooling selector to STBY

114
Q

What is the function of the lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate selector?

A

Provides conditioned air to the forward and aft cargo lobes

115
Q

What happens if a pack temperature controller detects a fault in a pack channel?

A

Control of the respective pack switches to the other controller

116
Q

How many pack temperature controllers are provided?

A

Two; A and B

117
Q

On the 747-8, with the main deck and forward/aft lower lobe temperature selectors in the off position, what is the temperature target zone?

A

68 degrees F/20 degrees C

118
Q

On the 747-8, the nitrogen generation system converts bleed air to nitrogen enriched air for what purpose?

A

To reduce the flammability of center wing tank fuel

119
Q

On the 747-8, what does the alternate ventilation system provide with packs 1/2/3 shutdown and the airplane depressurized?

A

Outside air to the flight deck

120
Q

On the 747-8, to provide control of the aft lower lobe cargo heat, the aft lower lobe temperature selector must be in what position?

A

Off

121
Q

On the 747-8, the TEMP DEV CGO advisory message HI/LO respectfully indicate what condition?

A

HI; 9 degrees F/5 degrees C, higher than selected temperature
LO; 9 degrees F/5 degrees C, lower than selected temperature

122
Q

The 747-8 lower lobe aft cargo heat selector regulates the temperature control valve to maintain what temperature in the LOW/HIGH positions?

A

LOW; 40 degrees F/4 degrees C

HIGH; 50 degrees F/10 degrees C

123
Q

On the 747-8, left and right trim air is provided to which temperature zones?

A

Left; flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, aft main deck

Right; forward main deck, forward lower lobe, aft lower lobe

124
Q

When in the descent mode, will the cabin altitude controllers program a positive or a negative pressurization at touchdown?

A

Positive (slight)

125
Q

What action would allow manual operation of the pressurization system?

A

Turning both outflow manual switches on

126
Q

When does the cabin altitude controller switch controllers (from A to B)?

A

Automatically on alternate flights

Automatically if one side fails (A or B)

127
Q

How many cabin altitude controllers are provided?

A

Two; A and B

128
Q

How can you gain manual control of the landing altitude?

A

Push the LDG ALT switch

129
Q

What does the zone system fault light indicate?

A

Temperature zone duct overheat
Zone temperature controller fault
Master trim air valve failed closed
Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow

130
Q

Under what conditions would high pressure air be used?

A

Descent

Low power setting operations

131
Q

How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event a bleed duct leak is detected?

A

Use the QRH, or…

Close the respective isolation valve
Close the engine bleed air valve

132
Q

What does a bleed duct isolation (ISLN) valve light indicate when illuminated?

A

The isolation valve position disagrees with the switch position

133
Q

When bleed air pressure is available, the engine bleed air switches control which valves by system logic?

A

Pressure regulating valve
High pressure bleed valve
Engine bleed air valve

134
Q

Describe the general function of the pressure regulating valve.

A

Prevents damage to downstream ducting and equipment by limiting bleed air pressure

135
Q

Under what conditions would intermediate pressure air be used?

A

High power setting operations

136
Q

With a right duct isolated, how will the hydraulic system be affected?

A

Refer to the QRH…however:

Hydraulic demand pump 4 is off
No hydraulic system 3 and 4 reservoir pressure

137
Q

With an EICAS message of STARTER CUTOUT 1,2,3,4 displayed, will nacelle anti-ice be available for the related engine?

A

Refer to the QRH…

No

138
Q

With a right duct isolated, how will the affected leading edge flaps extend?

A

Refer to the QRH…however:

Secondary mode
Flaps Primary message

139
Q

The outer bank limit selector applies to which roll mode?

A

HDG SEL

140
Q

How do you re-engage the auto-throttles when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S or G/S?

A

Push the speed switch

141
Q

How do you re-engage the auto-throttles when the pitch mode is VNAV or FLCH SPD?

A

Cycle the auto-throttle arm switch to off, and then back to arm

142
Q

How can you manually select climb thrust after takeoff or a go-around?

A

Push the thrust switch

143
Q

What function is reflected if the THR switch light remains extinguished or is illuminated?

A

Extinguished: thrust limit function
Illuminated: A/T mode function

144
Q

How can you deselect the approach mode after the localizer and glide-slope have captured?

A

Select TO/GA

Disengage the autopilot and position both flight director switches to off

145
Q

Can the glide-slope be captured prior to localizer interception?

A

No; glide-slope capture is inhibited until localizer capture and the intercept angle is within 80 degrees of the localizer course

146
Q

What does an amber horizontal line displayed through an active pitch or roll mode indicate?

A

A flight mode fault has been detected

147
Q

Will the auto-throttles engage if TO/GA is not selected prior to 50 knots during takeoff? What conditions must be met for auto-throttles to engage?

A

No

The auto-throttles will automatically engage above 400 feet when VNAV captures

148
Q

When will VNAV activate during takeoff?

A

400 feet above the runway elevation

149
Q

Which pitch mode does not provide auto-throttle speed protection with the auto-throttles and autopilot engaged?

A

Vertical speed

150
Q

When is TO/GA terminated after takeoff?

A

By selecting any other pitch and roll mode

By activation of LNAV/VNAV modes

151
Q

How can you disarm LNAV, LOC, VNAV and APP modes when they are armed prior to capture?

A

Push the mode switch a second time

152
Q

In flight, when is TO/GA armed?

A

Flaps out of up

Glide-slope capture

153
Q

For auto-land, what controls are used to steer the airplane on the localizer centerline after touchdown?

A

Rudder and nose wheel steering

154
Q

On approach, with the first push of TO/GA, what active auto-throttle mode would be displayed with the auto-throttle armed?

A

Thrust (THR)

155
Q

What auto-throttle mode is activated with the second push of the TO/GA switch?

A

Thrust Ref (THR REF) at full go-around thrust

156
Q

When does the auto-throttle annunciation change to hold during takeoff?

A

65 knots

157
Q

What climb rate is achieved during a go-around with one push of the TO/GA switches?

A

2,000 feet per minute

158
Q

With the approach switch selected, what altitude will the electrical buses isolate, allowing multiple autopilot engagement for auto-land operations?

A

Below 1,500 feet radio altitude

159
Q

When will the flare mode activate during auto-land?

A

Approximately 50 feet radio altitude

160
Q

What pitch is commanded when TO/GA is selected in a wind-shear recovery?

A

15 degrees pitch-up, or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower

161
Q

What would cause VNAV ALT to display as the pitch mode?

A

If a conflict exists between the VNAV profile and the MCP selected altitude

162
Q

What is the maximum intercept angle that the localizer will capture with the approach or localizer mode armed?

A

120 degrees or less

163
Q

During auto-land, what action normally disconnects the auto-throttles?

A

Reverse thrust is raised to reverse idle

164
Q

When does the roll-out mode activate?

A

Below 5 feet

165
Q

How are the auto-throttle, roll, or pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMA?

A

A green box around the mode for 10 seconds

166
Q

On the 747-8, how would you deactivate the localizer or FAC mode once they have captured?

A

Select a roll mode other than LNAV
Push TO/GA
Disengage the autopilot and place both flight director switches to off

167
Q

No auto-land displays if LAND 2/3 has not been annunciated by what altitude?

A

600 feet AGL

168
Q

On the 747-8, what does FAC (armed) as a roll mode indicate?

A

The approach switch is selected and auto-flight is configured for an integrated approach navigation (IAN) procedure

169
Q

What is Ryland’s favorite color?

A

Blue!!!

170
Q

What minimum maneuver capability is provided at the top of the amber bar on the PFD airspeed display?

A

1.3g

171
Q

If the display selector panel fails, how can you select the synoptic displays for the lower EICAS?

A

Through the respective CDU

172
Q

What indicates you are 1/3 of a dot deviation from the localizer?

A

The localizer pointer is just touching the rectangle on the expanded localizer deviation scale
At low radio altitudes with the autopilot or flight director engaged, the expanded localizer deviation scale turns amber and flashes

173
Q

How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?

A

Through the related CDU

174
Q

Which source selector switch would you move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag displaying on your PFD?

A

Air data

175
Q

When is the pitch limit indication displayed?

A

When flaps are not up

176
Q

On the 747-8, how is the airspeed range for acceptable VNAV path indicated on the PFD airspeed display?

A

Magenta VNAV speed band

177
Q

On the 747-8, actual navigation performance (ANP) bars change to what color if the navigation path pointer moves into the bar area for how many seconds?

A

Amber

5 seconds

178
Q

On the 747-8, when do the vertical anticipation cues display?

A

Within 25 nm of the missed approach point
Within 60 degrees of the final approach course
Track within 90 degrees of the final approach course
6000 feet above field elevation

179
Q

On the 747-8, when do the IAN scales display?

A 
LNAV/VNAV are not the active modes
Approach is in the active flight plan
150 nm from the destination
50 nm from T/D
FMC is in the descent mode
180
Q

On the 747-8, what will display if the integrated standby flight display initialization is not complete within six minutes?

A

ATT:RST initialization message

181
Q

On the 747-8, what does the vertical situation display (VSD) represent?

A

A profile view of the airplane and its environment along the current track

182
Q

On the 747-8, vertical situation display (VSD) en-route swath is inhibited on takeoff and approach when…

A

Within 6 nm of the runway

Less than 3000 feet AFE

183
Q

On the 747-8, electronic checklist open loop action items require?

A

Flight crew to manually confirm completion with the cursor control

184
Q

On the overhead maintenance panel, what does the IRS [ON BAT] (battery) light indicate if illuminated?

A

IRS is operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus)

185
Q

When is a full alignment of the IRS required?

A

When the time from the last full alignment to the next expected arrival time exceeds 18 hours

186
Q

What CDU pages are available during alternate navigation?

A

Legs
Progress
Radio

187
Q

Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?

A

No

188
Q

How many flight management computers are there?

A

Two - left and right

189
Q

What factor determines ECON speed?

A

Cost index

190
Q

What VNAV pitch mode would expect on climb out, and at an intermediate level off during a “climb via” clearance?

A

VNAV SPD - climb out

VNAV PTH - intermediate level off

191
Q

If you are flying an approach with the FMC on “approach logic” and the airplane rises more than 150 feet above the path, the FMA pitch mode will change from VNAV PTH to what?

A

VNAV SPD

192
Q

On the 747-400 with a legacy FMC, when does “approach logic” begin?

A

When the initial fix of an approach sequences

When the runway is the active waypoint and within 25 nm

193
Q

On the 747-8, or with an NG FMC, when does “approach logic” begin?

A

Descent phase with flaps out of up
First waypoint sequenced of an active NAV database
Aircraft less than 12 nm from the destination airport
Intercept course-to is the active waypoint, and the end of descent altitude constraint is lower than the airport elevation plus 500 feet
The runway or missed approach point is the active waypoint and the airplane is within 25 nm of the runway

194
Q

Are there any VMCG issues when manually applying additional thrust during an assumed temperature thrust takeoff?

A

No, because the assumed temperature thrust setting is not a limitation, and VMCG is calculated from the full engine rated thrust

195
Q

What could happen if you advance the thrust levers further than TO1 or TO2 fixed de-rate, following an engine failure?

A

Loss of directional control

196
Q

On the 747-8, when does the message INSUFFICIENT FUEL display?

A

When the estimated fuel at the destination is less than the fuel reserve as entered on the PERF INIT page

197
Q

Can ATC monitor the airplane position on the ground when the transponder is in standby?

A

No

198
Q

Is it allowable for both pilots to enter information into the CDUs at the same time?

A

No, both FMCs must synchronize, and entering data at the same time into each CDU can prevent synchronization

199
Q

Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?

A

No

200
Q

What happens when an active database expires in flight?

A

The expired database must be used until the active date is changed after landing

201
Q

How is the reference thrust changed from TO, to CON, following an engine failure in flight?

A

Automatically when the airspeed exceeds VREF +98 and the flaps are up
Pushing the THR switch on the MCP
Manually selecting CON on the THRUST LIM page in the CDU

202
Q

On the 747-8, or with an NG FMC, ILS receivers tune and frequency/course displays when what two conditions are met?

A

ILS, LOC, BC, LDA or SDF approach has been selected to the active route
Airplane is within 150 nm of destination
Airplane is within 50 nm of T/D
Airplane is in an FMC descent

203
Q

What databases are contained within the FMC?

A

Aero engine (performance)
Navigation
Operational program configuration (OPC)
MAGVAR tables

204
Q

When will the FMC fail to sequence to the active waypoint?

A

When more than 21 nm from the active route and not on an offset route

205
Q

On the 747-8, what modes are available for the weather radar?

A

Manual and automatic

206
Q

On the 747-8, is turbulence detection possible with the weather radar?

A

Yes, if there is sufficient precipitation, magenta is displayed for moderate to severe turbulence
Clear air turbulence cannot be detected

207
Q

When armed for takeoff, when does VNAV activate?

A

400 feet

208
Q

If the FMC cruise altitude is FL 250, and the clearance altitude of FL 190 is set on the MCP, what pitch mode will the FMA display when FL 190 is captured?

A

VNAV ALT

209
Q

What VNAV mode would be displayed on the PFD during a departure with waypoint altitude constraints?

A

VNAV PTH

210
Q

What is the difference between RNP and ACTUAL? Where is this difference displayed?

A

RNP is the required navigation performance
ACTUAL is the actual aircraft navigation performance
The difference is displayed on the FMC POS REF page

211
Q

What is a conditional waypoint?

A

A waypoint based on a time or altitude requirement, as opposed to a land reference

212
Q

How many groups of leading edge flaps are there? How are they normally powered?

A

Three groups on each wing: inboard, mid span and outboard

Normally powered pneumatically from the bleed air duct

213
Q

What are the two groups of trailing edge flaps? How are they powered?

A

Inboard and outboard
Inboard is powered by hydraulic system 1
Outboard is powered by hydraulic system 4

214
Q

Is there asymmetry protection in the alternate flap mode?

A

No

215
Q

How are the trailing edge flaps powered in the primary mode?

A

Hydraulically

216
Q

How long does the flap indication on EICAS remain displayed after the flaps are fully retracted?

A

10 seconds

217
Q

What protections do the FCUs provide for the trailing edge flaps in the primary mode?

A

Asymmetry protection
Load relief
Flap position information

218
Q

How many flap control units (FCUs) are there?

A

Three

219
Q

What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in the alternate mode?

A

25

220
Q

What EICAS message displays if all FCUs fail?

A

Flaps Control advisory message

221
Q

How does the alternate flaps control mode work?

A

Bypasses the FCUs
Can be manually selected
All flaps are extended/retracted by electric motors

222
Q

What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or mid span leading edge flap group?

A

Both groups switch to secondary mode

223
Q

When do the spoiler panels extend to the up position during landing if the speed-brake lever is not armed?

A

Thrust levers 1 and 3 near idle
Main landing gear on the ground
Thrust levers 2 and 4 pulled up to the idle reverse thrust detent

224
Q

On the 747-8, to improve takeoff performance and reduce noise, the outboard ailerons are deflected down at which flap settings? At which flap settings do they return to the neutral position? At what flap settings do the inboard ailerons droop?

A

10 or 20
25 or 30
10 or greater

225
Q

What is the function of the stabilizer trim cutout switches when they are in the auto position?

A

Supply hydraulic power for the stabilizer trim

Shut off related hydraulic system power if unscheduled trim is detected

226
Q

What happens to the flap system during reverse thrust operations?

A

Inboard and mid span leading edge flaps retract automatically

227
Q

What control surface moves when stabilizer trim inputs are made?

A

Horizontal stabilizer

228
Q

What is the purpose of the yaw dampers?

A

To improve airplane lateral and directional stability

To provide turn coordination

229
Q

What is the purpose of the aileron lockout system? How does it work?

A

Prevents over controlling at high air speeds
Permits full travel of the outboard ailerons at low air speeds
Works by locking the outboard ailerons in the neutral position at high air speeds

230
Q

On the 747-8, what system assists in pitch stability and the landing flare?

A

Pitch augmentation control system (PACS)

231
Q

On the 747-8, when does the takeoff and landing tail strike protection activate?

A

When the pitch augmentation control system (PACS) senses an imminent tail strike it decreases elevator deflection

232
Q

How does the FMC calculate the takeoff trim setting?

A

Gross weight
Center of gravity
Takeoff thrust de-rate selection
Takeoff flap selection

233
Q

With multiple autopilots engaged, will activating the stabilizer trim switches cause the autopilot to disconnect?

A

No, stabilizer trim switches are inhibited with multiple autopilots engaged

234
Q

Describe the off position of the landing gear lever.

A

Depressurizes the landing gear hydraulic system

235
Q

How many degrees can the nose wheel be steered using the tiller? How many degrees using the rudder pedals?

A

L/R 70 degrees using the tiller

L/R 7 degrees using the rudder

236
Q

When illuminated amber, what does the brake source light indicate?

A

Active brake hydraulic sources (hydraulic systems 1,2,4) have low pressure

237
Q

How is the landing gear held in the retracted position?

A

Up-locks hold the main gear

Mechanical locks hold the nose gear

238
Q

When does RTO apply maximum braking?

A

Airplane is on the ground
Wheel speed above 85 knots
Thrust levers are closed

239
Q

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?

A

Provides for parking brake application

240
Q

In an expanded gear synoptic display, what does a white, cross-hatched position indication mean?

A

Associated gear is in transit

241
Q

What conditions must be met in order for the landing gear lock lever to release?

A

Main gear tilted

Body gear centered

242
Q

What hydraulic system pressurizes the accumulator?

A

System 4

243
Q

At what brake temperature monitoring system value will the BRAKE TEMP advisory EICAS message display?

A

5

244
Q

How does the landing gear extend using the alternate gear extension system?

A

Up-locks and door latches are electrically released and the gear free-falls; gravity and air loads extend the gear and springs pull the down-locks into the locked position

245
Q

Why is it necessary to pressurize hydraulic system 4 before pressurizing the other hydraulic systems?

A

Precludes the transfer of hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 into system 4; when the parking brake is set and then released, brake hydraulic return lines dump into system 4

246
Q

What does the EICAS message LIMITER indicate?

A

Brake torque limiter failure on more than one wheel per truck
The parking brake lever is released and the parking brake valve is not fully open
Power loss of the brake system control unit

247
Q

What is the highest priority alert message (EICAS)?

A

Warning (red)

248
Q

What are the four types of EICAS messages?

A

Warning (red)
Caution (amber)
Advisory (amber)
Memo (white)

249
Q

What red alerts display on the PFD?

A

Wind shear

Pull up

250
Q

Can warning messages be canceled?

A

No

251
Q

What does the status cue indicate (EICAS)?

A

A cyan message that indicates a new status message exists on the secondary EICAS display

252
Q

Which type of EICAS messages are listed in the DDG and provide for dispatch capability?

A

Status messages

253
Q

Can amber alert messages be canceled or recalled?

A

Yes; by pushing the cancel/recall switches

254
Q

When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the center of the airplane symbol on the PFD?

A

Outside the red outlined RA pitch regions

255
Q

Name some configuration conditions that will cause the CONFIG message to display on takeoff.

A 
Flaps not in a takeoff position
Body gear not centered
Parking brake set
Speed brake lever not in down detent
Stabilizer trim not in takeoff range
256
Q

On the 747-8, what PFD message would you receive during a rejected takeoff if the speed-brakes are not deployed?

A

Red SPEED-BRAKE message

257
Q

On the 747-8, during takeoff and landing a bank angle alert sounds for bank angles as small as?

A

10 degrees

258
Q

What conditions will cause a CONFIG GEAR EICAS warning message to illuminate?

A

Any landing gear not down and locked when…
Any thrust lever is closed and the RA is less than 800 feet
Flaps in a landing detent

259
Q

When are the master caution lights and beeper inhibited during the takeoff roll?

A

80 knots airspeed

260
Q

When are new predictive wind shear warnings inhibited during the takeoff roll?

A

100 knots airspeed

261
Q

Safety is best defined as?

A

Managed risk: acknowledging zero risk is impossible, but still worth striving for

262
Q

When faced with competing objectives, what must remain the highest priority?

A

Safety

263
Q

Calculate pitch attitude and N1 settings…

A

Refer to QRH

264
Q

Calculate VREF…

A

Refer to QRH

265
Q

Calculate flap maneuvering speed…

A

Refer to QRH

266
Q

Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?

A

No

Atlas (5 decks)

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