PC Oral Question Bank Rev 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the wingspan of the 747?
A
744: 213 feet
748: 224.5 feet
2
Q
With body gear steering, what is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn for the 747?
A
744: 153 feet
748: 172 feet
3
Q
What happens when you rotate the oxygen mask emergency/test selector to emergency?
A
Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes, and protects against smoke and vapors
4
Q
With the emergency lights switch armed, when do the emergency lights illuminate?
A
If DC power fails or is turned off
5
Q
What is the electrical power source for the emergency lighting system? How long does it last?
A
Remote batteries
15 minutes
6
Q
Where is the portable ELT located?
A
Upper deck on the lavatory exterior wall
7
Q
What are the immediate action items on the QRC?
A
Cabin altitude, rapid depressurization
Engine 1,2,3,4 auto start, aborted engine start
Engine limit, or surge, or stall
IAS disagree, airspeed unreliable
Fire engine 1,2,3,4 engine severe damage or separation
Multiple engine flameout or stall
8
Q
What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component for the 747?
A
744: 15 knots
748: 15 knots
LCF: 10 knots
9
Q
What is the maximum headwind component for auto land?
A
25 knots
10
Q
What are the maximum and minimum glide-slope angles for ILS auto-land?
A
Max: 3.25 degrees
Min: 2.5 degrees
11
Q
What VNAV limitation applies to level-off within 2,000 feet after changing the altimeter from QNE to QNH, or QNH to QNE?
A
Do not use VNAV for the level-off if the QNH is less than 29.70in/1006hPa
12
Q
Without LAND2 or LAND3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below what altitude?
A
100 feet RA
13
Q
What is the turbulent air penetration speed for the 747?
A
744: 290-310 knots or 0.82-0.85 Mach, whichever is lower
748: 310 knots or 0.83 Mach
14
Q
What is the minimum in-flight fuel temperature for the -8?
A
-48 degrees C
15
Q
What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?
A
20,000 feet
16
Q
Are operations allowed when the reported braking action is NIL?
A
No
17
Q
Where can you find the maximum takeoff and landing weights for the aircraft you are operating?
A
OFP page 1
FCOM Vol 1 limitations
18
Q
What is the difference in the BOW on the OFP and the Sable Load-sheet? Is there a difference between the Sable and OFP final calculated ZFW and TOGW?
A
BOW OFP: includes weight of all cockpit and cabin crew
BOW Sable: includes only two crew
19
Q
What BTMS number on the gear synoptic display will cause an EICAS Brake Temp advisory message?
A
5 or more
20
Q
The final upper deck/cockpit procedure requires the FO to do what with the smoke barrier door?
A
Ensure the door is closed and all three security locks are moved to the locked position
21
Q
In the normal mode, what does the EEC use as the controlling parameter for GE engines? PW engines?
A
GE: N1
PW: EPR
22
Q
What protection features are provided by the EEC in normal mode?
A
Thrust limiting
Maintains constant thrust
Over speed protection
23
Q
What occurs with the auto throttle system when any EEC control is switched to alternate mode?
A
The auto throttles disconnect, but can be reconnected when all EECs have been switched to alternate mode
24
Q
What EEC normal mode protection feature is not available in alternate mode?
A
Thrust limiting at max N1
25
When does the EEC select approach idle?
Nacelle anti ice on
Flaps in landing position
Continuous ignition switch on
Reverse thrust operation
26
What action should be taken prior to manual selection of the EEC alternate mode?
Decrease thrust lever position
27
What happens when you turn the continuous ignition switch on?
Selected igniters operate continuously
| Commands approach idle minimum
28
What two engine indications are displayed full-time on the primary EICAS for a GE engine?
N1
| EGT
29
What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start or takeoff limit is reached?
Red
30
If the airborne vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source of the vibration, it will display BB. What does this mean?
Broadband: the average vibration detected
31
What 3 items will the auto start system protect the engine from during an engine start that will also result in an ENG 1,2,3,4 Autostart EICAS message?
Hot start
Hung start
No EGT rise
32
How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on a GE engine?
Pneumatically
33
How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on a PW engine?
Hydraulically
34
How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the GEnx engine?
Hydraulically
35
With an engine shutdown, what does X-BLD indicate when displayed next to the N2 indication?
Cross-bleed air is recommended for an in-flight start
36
When is ignition selected for all engines?
Trailing edge flaps out of the up position
| Continuous ignition switch selected on
37
How many igniters are selected for ground start, and how many for an in-flight start?
Ground: one
| In-flight: two
38
What are the PW engine warmup requirements for oil temperature before takeoff?
Above the lower amber band
39
GEnx engine EECs command ice crystal anti icing when ice crystal icing conditions are detected at altitudes above...
30,000 feet
40
GEnx engine ice crystal anti icing cycles last for how long when ice crystal conditions are detected? Or until the aircraft descends below what altitude?
15 minutes
| 28,000 feet
41
When does the GEnx engine select minimum or approach idle?
```
Engine anti ice on
Landing gear down
Flap 20 selected
Flap in landing position
Thrust reverser operation
```
42
Under what conditions on the ground will the GEnx EEC shutdown an engine to provide protection against thrust asymmetry due to a control malfunction?
Thrust lever at/near idle
| Engine above commanded N1 speed and not decelerating normally
43
During engine start when will the GEnx engine provide an additional 40 seconds of motoring time at 20% N2?
Engine has been shutdown between 30-360 minutes
| EGT greater than 30 degrees C
44
During engine start the GEnx engine EEC will attempt corrective action for which start malfunctions?
Hot start
Hung start
No EGT rise
Compressor stall
45
GEnx engine in-flight start attempts will increase the EGT limit by 25 degrees C after 4 start attempts, and will repeat this action on subsequent reattempts until?
Engine start achieved or the EGT limit is reached
46
When does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING display?
APU selector on
| APU N1 RPM above 95% N1
47
Is electrical power available from the APU in-flight?
No
48
Can the APU be operated in-flight?
Yes - when left running for takeoff it can be operated up to 20,000 feet
49
After the APU selector is rotated to off, how long should you wait before turning the battery switch off, and why?
2 minutes
| Enables a complete shutdown sequence with fire detection capability
50
What are the main AC electric power sources on the LCF?
4 IDGs
| 2 external power sources
51
What is the function of the standby power switch in the auto position?
Allows the main and APU standby buses to be powered from any available source
52
What does the AVAIL light indicate on the external and APU power switches?
The related power source is plugged in and available
| The power quality is acceptable
53
When is the main deck cargo handling bus powered?
When AVAIL is illuminated on the APU 2 or EXT 2 switches
54
What electric power source provides power for lower lobe cargo handling, fueling, and the AUX 4 hydraulic pump?
EXT 1 or APU GEN 1 AVAIL or ON; powering the ground handling bus
55
What are some items powered by the utility buses?
5 fuel pumps
| Galley equipment
56
What happens when you push a generator drive disconnect switch?
Disconnects the IDG from the engine when above idle
| Opens related generator control breaker
57
What condition would automatically disconnect an IDG?
Excessively high drive oil temperature
58
What does a bus isolation light indicate when illuminated?
The bus tie breaker is open
| The AC bus is isolated from the synchronous bus
59
How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?
Call maintenance
60
How is the electrical system configured during an automatic ILS approach (auto-land)?
AC and DC buses 1,2,3 are isolated from the synchronous bus
| AC bus 4 powers the synchronous bus
61
What are the main AC electrical power sources?
4 IDGs
2 APU power sources
2 external power sources
62
What does a hydraulic system fault light indicate when illuminated?
Low pressure
Low reservoir quantity
Excessive temperature
63
What does a hydraulic demand pump low press light indicate when illuminated?
Demand pump selector OFF or AUX
| Demand pump is operating and output pressure is low
64
When will the hydraulic demand pumps be commanded to operate if the selector is in the auto position?
Respective engine pump output pressure is low
Respective fuel control switch is in cutoff
----Pumps 1/4----
When trailing edge flaps are in transit on the ground
Continuously when flaps extended past 1 in-flight
65
With GE engines, which hydraulic demand pumps are air driven, and which are electrically driven?
1/4 - air
| 2/3 - electric
66
For N445/446MC, which hydraulic demand pumps are air driven, and which are electrically driven?
All hydraulic demand pumps are pneumatically driven
67
What does a magenta RF mean in regard to the hydraulic system?
The respective reservoir requires refill
68
What is the purpose of the hydraulic auxiliary pump?
It is used for ground handing operations
69
When is the engine driven hydraulic pump pressurized?
When the engine is running
| When the engine pump switch is on
70
What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of 0.95 mean?
Percentage of normal service level (1.00)
71
What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 1?
Refer to the QRH...however, the following is INOP:
Center autopilot
Left outboard aileron
Nose and body gear steering
Nose and body gear normal extension and retraction
System 1 alternate brake source
Inboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
—-
Trailing edge flaps move in secondary mode
72
What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 4?
Refer to the QRH...however, the following is INOP:
Right outboard aileron
Wing gear normal extension and retraction
System 4 normal brake source
Two inboard spoiler panels on each wing
Outboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
—-
Trailing edge flaps move in secondary mode
73
How many engine fire extinguishers are provided?
4; 2 on each wing
74
Pressing the FWD cargo fire arm switch causes what actions?
Shuts down two packs
Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
Configures equipment cooling to override mode
Turns off all airflow/heat to lower cargo compartments
Closes master trim air valve
75
How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments?
4; 2 bottles discharge immediately, and the other 2 discharge after a brief delay or upon touchdown
76
How many APU fire bottles are provided?
1
77
What action discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle?
Rotating the APU fire handle
78
Can you shutdown the APU from outside the airplane?
Yes; via the APU panel located in the right body gear well
79
Is smoke detection available for the crew rest areas?
Yes; smoke detectors are installed
80
What happens when you push the cargo fire depressurization switch with the main deck fire switch armed?
Enables main deck fire suppression
Turns off two packs
Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
Turns off all airflow to the main deck
Turns off all airflow and heat to the lower cargo compartments
Closes master trim air valve
81
What unlocks an engine fire switch?
Fire warning
A fuel control switch is in cutoff
Pushing the fire override switch
82
Is the engine fire/overheat detection system a single or dual loop system?
Dual loop
83
What does arming the FWD cargo fire switch do on a passenger aircraft?
Arms the cargo fire extinguisher
Configures equipment cooling to override mode
Turns off airflow and heat to the forward cargo compartment
Turns off pack 3
Turns off nitrogen generation system
84
How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the FWD and AFT cargo compartments on the 747-8?
6
85
How is center wing tank fuel scavenged for the 744/8?
4 jet pumps that feed into main tanks 2 and 3 when main tank quantity decreases to 27,200 kgs
86
Which cross feed valves are controlled by fuel system management logic when setting takeoff flaps?
Cross feed valves 2 and 3
87
During the before start procedure, at what center wing tank quantity are you required to select the center wing pumps on? For the LCF?
744: 7,700 kgs or more
LCF: 17,000 lbs or more
88
Main tank 2 and 3 override/jettison pumps can operate to a standpipe level of how much of fuel remaining in each tank for the 74-4/8/LCF?
744: 3,200 kgs
748: 3,450 kgs
LCF: 7,000 lbs
89
Describe how the fuel quantity indication changes upon completion of fuel jettison.
Fuel to remain indication changes from magenta to white
| Fuel to remain quantity flashes for 5 seconds
90
How is center wing tank fuel scavenged for the LCF?
An electric pump feeds main tank 2 when:
Center wing tank override/jettison pump has low pressure
Fuel quantity in main tank 2 or 3 is below 40,200 lbs
91
What happens when you rotate the fuel jettison switch to A or B?
Arms the jettison selector
| Displays preselected fuel to remain on EICAS
92
What is the impact of an excessive fuel imbalance?
Adversely affects CG
Increased aerodynamic drag
Decreased fuel economy
93
When do the fuel system management cards open the reserve transfer valves on the 744/8/LCF?
744: main tank 2 or 3 quantity around 18,200 kgs
748: main tank 1 or 4 quantity around 6,100 kgs
LCF: main tank 2 or 3 quantity around 40,200 lbs
94
In which tank is fuel temperature measured?
Main tank 1
95
How would you handle an excessive fuel imbalance situation?
Refer to the QRH...or:
Open/close cross feed pumps
Turn on/off fuel pump switches
96
Which fuel tanks do reserve tanks 1 and 4 transfer to on the 747-8?
Main tanks 1 and 4
97
On the 747-8, at what fuel quantity will the fuel jettison system terminate operations with the selector in the maximum landing weight position?
Maximum landing weight plus 3,000 kgs
98
During fuel jettison on the LCF, transfer valves open when fuel quantity in main tanks 2 and 3 decrease to?
20,000 lbs
99
What happens when nacelle anti-ice is selected on?
Nacelle anti-ice valve opens
Engine pressure relief valve opens when the nacelle anti-ice valve is open
Selected engine igniters operate continuously
100
What does the EICAS message BLD LOW TEMP indicate on the 747-8?
Engine bleed air too low for sufficient wing anti-icing
101
Does the nacelle anti-ice AUTO position work on the ground?
No
102
How many ice detector probes are there, and where are they located?
2; located on the forward fuselage
103
How many angle of attack probes are there, and when are they heated?
2; each electrically heated when any engine is running
104
How many pitot-static probes are there, and when are they heated?
4; each electrically heated when any engine is running
105
With the window heat on, anti-icing/fogging protection is afforded to which cockpit windows?
Forward left and right windshields only
106
What displays on EICAS when nacelle or wing anti-icing valves are open (747-400)?
NAI; for nacelle anti-ice
| WAI; for wing anti-ice
107
What displays on EICAS when nacelle or wing anti-icing valves are open (747-8)?
EAI; for nacelle anti-ice
| WAI; for wing anti-ice
108
Is wing anti-ice effective with the leading edge flaps extended?
No
109
Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on the ground?
No
110
When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?
When one or more engines are operating on each wing
111
On the ground, when is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard?
Engines are not operating
Equipment cooling selector is in NORM
Ambient air temperature is moderate to high
112
Equipment cooling provides cooling air for what areas?
Flight deck equipment
| Electrical and Equipment racks (E and E)
113
How can you manually configure the equipment cooling system for flight?
Position the equipment cooling selector to STBY
114
What is the function of the lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate selector?
Provides conditioned air to the forward and aft cargo lobes
115
What happens if a pack temperature controller detects a fault in a pack channel?
Control of the respective pack switches to the other controller
116
How many pack temperature controllers are provided?
Two; A and B
117
On the 747-8, with the main deck and forward/aft lower lobe temperature selectors in the off position, what is the temperature target zone?
68 degrees F/20 degrees C
118
On the 747-8, the nitrogen generation system converts bleed air to nitrogen enriched air for what purpose?
To reduce the flammability of center wing tank fuel
119
On the 747-8, what does the alternate ventilation system provide with packs 1/2/3 shutdown and the airplane depressurized?
Outside air to the flight deck
120
On the 747-8, to provide control of the aft lower lobe cargo heat, the aft lower lobe temperature selector must be in what position?
Off
121
On the 747-8, the TEMP DEV CGO advisory message HI/LO respectfully indicate what condition?
HI; 9 degrees F/5 degrees C, higher than selected temperature
LO; 9 degrees F/5 degrees C, lower than selected temperature
122
The 747-8 lower lobe aft cargo heat selector regulates the temperature control valve to maintain what temperature in the LOW/HIGH positions?
LOW; 40 degrees F/4 degrees C
| HIGH; 50 degrees F/10 degrees C
123
On the 747-8, left and right trim air is provided to which temperature zones?
Left; flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, aft main deck
| Right; forward main deck, forward lower lobe, aft lower lobe
124
When in the descent mode, will the cabin altitude controllers program a positive or a negative pressurization at touchdown?
Positive (slight)
125
What action would allow manual operation of the pressurization system?
Turning both outflow manual switches on
126
When does the cabin altitude controller switch controllers (from A to B)?
Automatically on alternate flights
| Automatically if one side fails (A or B)
127
How many cabin altitude controllers are provided?
Two; A and B
128
How can you gain manual control of the landing altitude?
Push the LDG ALT switch
129
What does the zone system fault light indicate?
Temperature zone duct overheat
Zone temperature controller fault
Master trim air valve failed closed
Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow
130
Under what conditions would high pressure air be used?
Descent
| Low power setting operations
131
How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event a bleed duct leak is detected?
Use the QRH, or...
Close the respective isolation valve
Close the engine bleed air valve
132
What does a bleed duct isolation (ISLN) valve light indicate when illuminated?
The isolation valve position disagrees with the switch position
133
When bleed air pressure is available, the engine bleed air switches control which valves by system logic?
Pressure regulating valve
High pressure bleed valve
Engine bleed air valve
134
Describe the general function of the pressure regulating valve.
Prevents damage to downstream ducting and equipment by limiting bleed air pressure
135
Under what conditions would intermediate pressure air be used?
High power setting operations
136
With a right duct isolated, how will the hydraulic system be affected?
Refer to the QRH...however:
Hydraulic demand pump 4 is off
No hydraulic system 3 and 4 reservoir pressure
137
With an EICAS message of STARTER CUTOUT 1,2,3,4 displayed, will nacelle anti-ice be available for the related engine?
Refer to the QRH...
| No
138
With a right duct isolated, how will the affected leading edge flaps extend?
Refer to the QRH...however:
Secondary mode
Flaps Primary message
139
The outer bank limit selector applies to which roll mode?
HDG SEL
140
How do you re-engage the auto-throttles when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S or G/S?
Push the speed switch
141
How do you re-engage the auto-throttles when the pitch mode is VNAV or FLCH SPD?
Cycle the auto-throttle arm switch to off, and then back to arm
142
How can you manually select climb thrust after takeoff or a go-around?
Push the thrust switch
143
What function is reflected if the THR switch light remains extinguished or is illuminated?
Extinguished: thrust limit function
Illuminated: A/T mode function
144
How can you deselect the approach mode after the localizer and glide-slope have captured?
Select TO/GA
| Disengage the autopilot and position both flight director switches to off
145
Can the glide-slope be captured prior to localizer interception?
No; glide-slope capture is inhibited until localizer capture and the intercept angle is within 80 degrees of the localizer course
146
What does an amber horizontal line displayed through an active pitch or roll mode indicate?
A flight mode fault has been detected
147
Will the auto-throttles engage if TO/GA is not selected prior to 50 knots during takeoff? What conditions must be met for auto-throttles to engage?
No
| The auto-throttles will automatically engage above 400 feet when VNAV captures
148
When will VNAV activate during takeoff?
400 feet above the runway elevation
149
Which pitch mode does not provide auto-throttle speed protection with the auto-throttles and autopilot engaged?
Vertical speed
150
When is TO/GA terminated after takeoff?
By selecting any other pitch and roll mode
| By activation of LNAV/VNAV modes
151
How can you disarm LNAV, LOC, VNAV and APP modes when they are armed prior to capture?
Push the mode switch a second time
152
In flight, when is TO/GA armed?
Flaps out of up
| Glide-slope capture
153
For auto-land, what controls are used to steer the airplane on the localizer centerline after touchdown?
Rudder and nose wheel steering
154
On approach, with the first push of TO/GA, what active auto-throttle mode would be displayed with the auto-throttle armed?
Thrust (THR)
155
What auto-throttle mode is activated with the second push of the TO/GA switch?
Thrust Ref (THR REF) at full go-around thrust
156
When does the auto-throttle annunciation change to hold during takeoff?
65 knots
157
What climb rate is achieved during a go-around with one push of the TO/GA switches?
2,000 feet per minute
158
With the approach switch selected, what altitude will the electrical buses isolate, allowing multiple autopilot engagement for auto-land operations?
Below 1,500 feet radio altitude
159
When will the flare mode activate during auto-land?
Approximately 50 feet radio altitude
160
What pitch is commanded when TO/GA is selected in a wind-shear recovery?
15 degrees pitch-up, or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower
161
What would cause VNAV ALT to display as the pitch mode?
If a conflict exists between the VNAV profile and the MCP selected altitude
162
What is the maximum intercept angle that the localizer will capture with the approach or localizer mode armed?
120 degrees or less
163
During auto-land, what action normally disconnects the auto-throttles?
Reverse thrust is raised to reverse idle
164
When does the roll-out mode activate?
Below 5 feet
165
How are the auto-throttle, roll, or pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMA?
A green box around the mode for 10 seconds
166
On the 747-8, how would you deactivate the localizer or FAC mode once they have captured?
Select a roll mode other than LNAV
Push TO/GA
Disengage the autopilot and place both flight director switches to off
167
No auto-land displays if LAND 2/3 has not been annunciated by what altitude?
600 feet AGL
168
On the 747-8, what does FAC (armed) as a roll mode indicate?
The approach switch is selected and auto-flight is configured for an integrated approach navigation (IAN) procedure
169
What is Ryland’s favorite color?
Blue!!!
170
What minimum maneuver capability is provided at the top of the amber bar on the PFD airspeed display?
1.3g
171
If the display selector panel fails, how can you select the synoptic displays for the lower EICAS?
Through the respective CDU
172
What indicates you are 1/3 of a dot deviation from the localizer?
The localizer pointer is just touching the rectangle on the expanded localizer deviation scale
At low radio altitudes with the autopilot or flight director engaged, the expanded localizer deviation scale turns amber and flashes
173
How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?
Through the related CDU
174
Which source selector switch would you move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag displaying on your PFD?
Air data
175
When is the pitch limit indication displayed?
When flaps are not up
176
On the 747-8, how is the airspeed range for acceptable VNAV path indicated on the PFD airspeed display?
Magenta VNAV speed band
177
On the 747-8, actual navigation performance (ANP) bars change to what color if the navigation path pointer moves into the bar area for how many seconds?
Amber
| 5 seconds
178
On the 747-8, when do the vertical anticipation cues display?
Within 25 nm of the missed approach point
Within 60 degrees of the final approach course
Track within 90 degrees of the final approach course
6000 feet above field elevation
179
On the 747-8, when do the IAN scales display?
```
LNAV/VNAV are not the active modes
Approach is in the active flight plan
150 nm from the destination
50 nm from T/D
FMC is in the descent mode
```
180
On the 747-8, what will display if the integrated standby flight display initialization is not complete within six minutes?
ATT:RST initialization message
181
On the 747-8, what does the vertical situation display (VSD) represent?
A profile view of the airplane and its environment along the current track
182
On the 747-8, vertical situation display (VSD) en-route swath is inhibited on takeoff and approach when...
Within 6 nm of the runway
| Less than 3000 feet AFE
183
On the 747-8, electronic checklist open loop action items require?
Flight crew to manually confirm completion with the cursor control
184
On the overhead maintenance panel, what does the IRS [ON BAT] (battery) light indicate if illuminated?
IRS is operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus)
185
When is a full alignment of the IRS required?
When the time from the last full alignment to the next expected arrival time exceeds 18 hours
186
What CDU pages are available during alternate navigation?
Legs
Progress
Radio
187
Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?
No
188
How many flight management computers are there?
Two - left and right
189
What factor determines ECON speed?
Cost index
190
What VNAV pitch mode would expect on climb out, and at an intermediate level off during a “climb via” clearance?
VNAV SPD - climb out
| VNAV PTH - intermediate level off
191
If you are flying an approach with the FMC on “approach logic” and the airplane rises more than 150 feet above the path, the FMA pitch mode will change from VNAV PTH to what?
VNAV SPD
192
On the 747-400 with a legacy FMC, when does “approach logic” begin?
When the initial fix of an approach sequences
| When the runway is the active waypoint and within 25 nm
193
On the 747-8, or with an NG FMC, when does “approach logic” begin?
Descent phase with flaps out of up
First waypoint sequenced of an active NAV database
Aircraft less than 12 nm from the destination airport
Intercept course-to is the active waypoint, and the end of descent altitude constraint is lower than the airport elevation plus 500 feet
The runway or missed approach point is the active waypoint and the airplane is within 25 nm of the runway
194
Are there any VMCG issues when manually applying additional thrust during an assumed temperature thrust takeoff?
No, because the assumed temperature thrust setting is not a limitation, and VMCG is calculated from the full engine rated thrust
195
What could happen if you advance the thrust levers further than TO1 or TO2 fixed de-rate, following an engine failure?
Loss of directional control
196
On the 747-8, when does the message INSUFFICIENT FUEL display?
When the estimated fuel at the destination is less than the fuel reserve as entered on the PERF INIT page
197
Can ATC monitor the airplane position on the ground when the transponder is in standby?
No
198
Is it allowable for both pilots to enter information into the CDUs at the same time?
No, both FMCs must synchronize, and entering data at the same time into each CDU can prevent synchronization
199
Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?
No
200
What happens when an active database expires in flight?
The expired database must be used until the active date is changed after landing
201
How is the reference thrust changed from TO, to CON, following an engine failure in flight?
Automatically when the airspeed exceeds VREF +98 and the flaps are up
Pushing the THR switch on the MCP
Manually selecting CON on the THRUST LIM page in the CDU
202
On the 747-8, or with an NG FMC, ILS receivers tune and frequency/course displays when what two conditions are met?
ILS, LOC, BC, LDA or SDF approach has been selected to the active route
Airplane is within 150 nm of destination
Airplane is within 50 nm of T/D
Airplane is in an FMC descent
203
What databases are contained within the FMC?
Aero engine (performance)
Navigation
Operational program configuration (OPC)
MAGVAR tables
204
When will the FMC fail to sequence to the active waypoint?
When more than 21 nm from the active route and not on an offset route
205
On the 747-8, what modes are available for the weather radar?
Manual and automatic
206
On the 747-8, is turbulence detection possible with the weather radar?
Yes, if there is sufficient precipitation, magenta is displayed for moderate to severe turbulence
Clear air turbulence cannot be detected
207
When armed for takeoff, when does VNAV activate?
400 feet
208
If the FMC cruise altitude is FL 250, and the clearance altitude of FL 190 is set on the MCP, what pitch mode will the FMA display when FL 190 is captured?
VNAV ALT
209
What VNAV mode would be displayed on the PFD during a departure with waypoint altitude constraints?
VNAV PTH
210
What is the difference between RNP and ACTUAL? Where is this difference displayed?
RNP is the required navigation performance
ACTUAL is the actual aircraft navigation performance
The difference is displayed on the FMC POS REF page
211
What is a conditional waypoint?
A waypoint based on a time or altitude requirement, as opposed to a land reference
212
How many groups of leading edge flaps are there? How are they normally powered?
Three groups on each wing: inboard, mid span and outboard
| Normally powered pneumatically from the bleed air duct
213
What are the two groups of trailing edge flaps? How are they powered?
Inboard and outboard
Inboard is powered by hydraulic system 1
Outboard is powered by hydraulic system 4
214
Is there asymmetry protection in the alternate flap mode?
No
215
How are the trailing edge flaps powered in the primary mode?
Hydraulically
216
How long does the flap indication on EICAS remain displayed after the flaps are fully retracted?
10 seconds
217
What protections do the FCUs provide for the trailing edge flaps in the primary mode?
Asymmetry protection
Load relief
Flap position information
218
How many flap control units (FCUs) are there?
Three
219
What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in the alternate mode?
25
220
What EICAS message displays if all FCUs fail?
Flaps Control advisory message
221
How does the alternate flaps control mode work?
Bypasses the FCUs
Can be manually selected
All flaps are extended/retracted by electric motors
222
What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or mid span leading edge flap group?
Both groups switch to secondary mode
223
When do the spoiler panels extend to the up position during landing if the speed-brake lever is not armed?
Thrust levers 1 and 3 near idle
Main landing gear on the ground
Thrust levers 2 and 4 pulled up to the idle reverse thrust detent
224
On the 747-8, to improve takeoff performance and reduce noise, the outboard ailerons are deflected down at which flap settings? At which flap settings do they return to the neutral position? At what flap settings do the inboard ailerons droop?
10 or 20
25 or 30
10 or greater
225
What is the function of the stabilizer trim cutout switches when they are in the auto position?
Supply hydraulic power for the stabilizer trim
| Shut off related hydraulic system power if unscheduled trim is detected
226
What happens to the flap system during reverse thrust operations?
Inboard and mid span leading edge flaps retract automatically
227
What control surface moves when stabilizer trim inputs are made?
Horizontal stabilizer
228
What is the purpose of the yaw dampers?
To improve airplane lateral and directional stability
| To provide turn coordination
229
What is the purpose of the aileron lockout system? How does it work?
Prevents over controlling at high air speeds
Permits full travel of the outboard ailerons at low air speeds
Works by locking the outboard ailerons in the neutral position at high air speeds
230
On the 747-8, what system assists in pitch stability and the landing flare?
Pitch augmentation control system (PACS)
231
On the 747-8, when does the takeoff and landing tail strike protection activate?
When the pitch augmentation control system (PACS) senses an imminent tail strike it decreases elevator deflection
232
How does the FMC calculate the takeoff trim setting?
Gross weight
Center of gravity
Takeoff thrust de-rate selection
Takeoff flap selection
233
With multiple autopilots engaged, will activating the stabilizer trim switches cause the autopilot to disconnect?
No, stabilizer trim switches are inhibited with multiple autopilots engaged
234
Describe the off position of the landing gear lever.
Depressurizes the landing gear hydraulic system
235
How many degrees can the nose wheel be steered using the tiller? How many degrees using the rudder pedals?
L/R 70 degrees using the tiller
| L/R 7 degrees using the rudder
236
When illuminated amber, what does the brake source light indicate?
Active brake hydraulic sources (hydraulic systems 1,2,4) have low pressure
237
How is the landing gear held in the retracted position?
Up-locks hold the main gear
| Mechanical locks hold the nose gear
238
When does RTO apply maximum braking?
Airplane is on the ground
Wheel speed above 85 knots
Thrust levers are closed
239
What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?
Provides for parking brake application
240
In an expanded gear synoptic display, what does a white, cross-hatched position indication mean?
Associated gear is in transit
241
What conditions must be met in order for the landing gear lock lever to release?
Main gear tilted
| Body gear centered
242
What hydraulic system pressurizes the accumulator?
System 4
243
At what brake temperature monitoring system value will the BRAKE TEMP advisory EICAS message display?
5
244
How does the landing gear extend using the alternate gear extension system?
Up-locks and door latches are electrically released and the gear free-falls; gravity and air loads extend the gear and springs pull the down-locks into the locked position
245
Why is it necessary to pressurize hydraulic system 4 before pressurizing the other hydraulic systems?
Precludes the transfer of hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 into system 4; when the parking brake is set and then released, brake hydraulic return lines dump into system 4
246
What does the EICAS message LIMITER indicate?
Brake torque limiter failure on more than one wheel per truck
The parking brake lever is released and the parking brake valve is not fully open
Power loss of the brake system control unit
247
What is the highest priority alert message (EICAS)?
Warning (red)
248
What are the four types of EICAS messages?
Warning (red)
Caution (amber)
Advisory (amber)
Memo (white)
249
What red alerts display on the PFD?
Wind shear
| Pull up
250
Can warning messages be canceled?
No
251
What does the status cue indicate (EICAS)?
A cyan message that indicates a new status message exists on the secondary EICAS display
252
Which type of EICAS messages are listed in the DDG and provide for dispatch capability?
Status messages
253
Can amber alert messages be canceled or recalled?
Yes; by pushing the cancel/recall switches
254
When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the center of the airplane symbol on the PFD?
Outside the red outlined RA pitch regions
255
Name some configuration conditions that will cause the CONFIG message to display on takeoff.
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Flaps not in a takeoff position
Body gear not centered
Parking brake set
Speed brake lever not in down detent
Stabilizer trim not in takeoff range
```
256
On the 747-8, what PFD message would you receive during a rejected takeoff if the speed-brakes are not deployed?
Red SPEED-BRAKE message
257
On the 747-8, during takeoff and landing a bank angle alert sounds for bank angles as small as?
10 degrees
258
What conditions will cause a CONFIG GEAR EICAS warning message to illuminate?
Any landing gear not down and locked when...
Any thrust lever is closed and the RA is less than 800 feet
Flaps in a landing detent
259
When are the master caution lights and beeper inhibited during the takeoff roll?
80 knots airspeed
260
When are new predictive wind shear warnings inhibited during the takeoff roll?
100 knots airspeed
261
Safety is best defined as?
Managed risk: acknowledging zero risk is impossible, but still worth striving for
262
When faced with competing objectives, what must remain the highest priority?
Safety
263
Calculate pitch attitude and N1 settings...
Refer to QRH
264
Calculate VREF...
Refer to QRH
265
Calculate flap maneuvering speed...
Refer to QRH
266
Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?
No
