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Captain Upgrade Flashcards

1
Q

Under Flag Operations, when approaching the POR can Dispatch remove the alternate airport if the flight doesn’t have the required fuel for re-dispatch?

A

Yes, if weather minimums are met, and you have enough fuel to hold over the destination airport at 1,500 AGL for 30 minutes.

FOM Ch 7

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2
Q

A Captain on High Minimums can fly an approach to CAT I minimums if?

A

The Captain and FO are trained/qualified for CAT II/III approaches and the autopilot is used to DH.

FOM Ch 5

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3
Q

Can a Captain on High Minimums fly an approach to CAT II minimums?

A

Yes, if the Captain and FO are qualified for CAT II/III approaches, and an auto-land is accomplished, and the Captain has 300 hours as PIC or SIC in a turbojet.

FOM Ch 5

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4
Q

What does an orange sticker on the logbook indicate?

A

There is a Deferred Maintenance Item that requires a logbook entry prior to each flight.

FOM Ch 6

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5
Q

If Aerodata performance for landing is unavailable you should?

A

Use the TLR.

FOM Ch 7

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6
Q

What does Trip Fuel include?

A

Departure and arrival procedures, one instrument approach, payload, DMIs, winds, perishables.

FOM Ch 7

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7
Q

If dispatched on a Supplemental Flight Plan, can Dispatch drop the alternate?

A

No, unless released to an Isolated Airport.

FOM Ch 7

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8
Q

What does FMC Reserve Fuel include?

A

Flight to the alternate, and thereafter for 45 minutes holding at 1,500 AGL.

FOM Ch 7

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9
Q

FAR Domestic, International, and 10% Reserve Fuel is based on what fuel consumption?

A

Top of Descent fuel flow.

FOM Ch 7

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10
Q

Can you be dispatched to ICN using Isolated Airport Dispatch?

A

Yes.

FOM Ch 7

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11
Q

FCIR Reports must be submitted within?

A

48 hours of the event.

FOM Appendix A

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12
Q

Overweight landings are permitted when?

A

Captain authority if determined an overweight landing is as safe as jettisoning fuel or otherwise meeting the LGW limitation.

FOM Ch 10

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13
Q

What are the minimum weather requirements to use an airport as an alternate if a CAT III approach is available for B747 operations?

A

200’ ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility.

FOM Ch 7

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14
Q

What is the wingspan of the 744/748?

A

744: 213’
748: 224.5’

FCOM Vol 2

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15
Q

What is the minimum width to make a 180 degree turn in the 744/748?

A

744: 153’
748: 172’

FCOM Vol 2

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16
Q

What are the Immediate Action Items on the QRC?

A

Cabin Altitude, Rapid Depressurization
ENG 1,2,3,4 Autostart, Aborted Engine start
Engine Limit, Stall, Surge
IAS Disagree, Airspeed Unreliable
Fire ENG 1,2,3,4 Engine Severe Damage or Separation
Multiple Engine Flameout or Stall

Back of Normal Checklist

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17
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed for the 744/748?

A

744: 290 to 310 kts/M 0.82-0.85, whichever is lower
748: 310 kts/M 0.83, whichever is lower

FCOM Vol 1

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18
Q

With the emergency lights switched armed, when do the emergency lights illuminate?

A

Airplane electrical power fails or is turned off.

FCOM Vol 2

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19
Q

What does the EEC use as the controlling parameter for GE/PW engines?

A

GE: N1
PW: EPR

FCOM Vol 2

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20
Q

What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start/takeoff limit is reached?

A

Red.

FCOM Vol 2

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21
Q

On the 744, for what items will the autostart system abort the start, resulting in an ENG 1,2,3,4 autostart EICAS message?

A

Hot start, hung start, no EGT rise.

FCOM Vol 2

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22
Q

What action should be taken prior to manual selection of EEC Alternate Mode?

A

Decrease thrust lever position to avoid exceeding Max N1.

FCOM Vol 2

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23
Q

How is reverse thrust actuated on the 748?

A

Hydraulically.

FCOM Vol 2

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24
Q

GenX engine EECs command Ice Crystal Anti-icing when?

A

Ice crystal icing is detected above 30,000’.

FCOM Vol 2

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25
Under what conditions will the GenX engine EEC shutdown an engine to protect against thrust asymmetry?
Airplane is on the ground, thrust lever is near idle, engine is above commanded N1 speed and not decelerating normally. FCOM Vol 2
26
Can the APU be operated in flight?
Yes, if left running for takeoff it can be used up to 20,000'. FCOM Vol 2
27
How long should elapse before turning the Battery off, after the APU is selected off? Why?
Two minutes, allowing for a complete shutdown sequence with fire detection ability. FCOM Vol 2
28
What condition would automatically disconnect an IDG?
Excessively high drive oil temperature. FCOM Vol 2
29
What are the main electrical sources on the LCF?
Four IDGs, two external power sources. FCOM Vol 2 LCF
30
What are the main electrical sources on the 744/748?
Four IDGs, two auxiliary power sources (APU), two external power sources. FCOM Vol 2
31
What does the "AVAIL" light indicate on the EXT and APU power switches?
EXT: power source plugged in and power quality acceptable APU: APU generator power quality acceptable FCOM Vol 2
32
How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?
Call Mx, the flight crew cannot restore a disconnected IDG. FCOM Vol 2
33
What does the hydraulic SYS FAULT light indicate when illuminated?
Low hydraulic system pressure Low hydraulic reservoir quantity Excessive hydraulic fluid temperature FCOM Vol 2
34
What does a hydraulic demand pump PRESS light indicate when illuminated?
Demand pump positioned to OFF or AUX Demand pump commanded to operate and output pressure is low FCOM Vol 2
35
What is the purpose of the AUX pump?
Ground handling operations. FCOM Vol 2
36
How many engine fire extinguishers are provided?
4; 2 on each wing. FCOM Vol 2
37
How many APU fire bottles are provided?
1 FCOM Vol 2
38
How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments?
4; pushing the cargo fire discharge switch discharges 2 bottles immediately, the other 2 discharge after a brief delay or upon touchdown. FCOM Vol 2
39
What unlocks an engine fire switch?
Fire warning Fuel control switch in cutoff Pushing the fire override switch FCOM Vol 2
40
Which cross-feed valves are controlled by the fuel system management logic when setting takeoff flaps?
Cross-feed valves 2 and 3 FCOM Vol 2
41
During the Before Start Procedure, at what center wing tank quantity are you required to select the center wing pumps on, for the 744, 748, LCF?
744: 7700 kgs 748: 7700 kgs LCF: 17,000 lbs FCOM Vol 2
42
What is the impact on the aircraft with an excessive fuel imbalance?
Adversely affects CG Aerodynamic drag Fuel economy FCOM Vol 2
43
How does center wing tank fuel scavenge in the LCF?
An electric pump feeds main tank 2 when center wing tank override/jettison pump has low pressure or when fuel quantity in main tank 2 or 3 is below 40,200 lbs FCOM Vol 2
44
On the 748, at what fuel quantity will the fuel jettison complete jettison operations with the selector in the MLW position?
MLW plus 3,000 kgs FCOM Vol 2
45
Does the nacelle anti ice auto position function on the ground?
No, auto only works in flight. FCOM Vol 2
46
Window heat switches provide anti-ice and anti-fog protections to which windows?
The forward left and right windows only. FCOM Vol 2
47
Is wing anti-ice effective with the leading edge flaps extended?
No. FCOM Vol 2
48
What happens when nacelle anti-ice is commanded on?
Nacelle anti-ice valve opens Engine pressure relief valve opens when the nacelle anti-ice valve is open Selected igniters operate continuously FCOM Vol 2
49
On the 744, what indications are displayed on EICAS when the nacelle and/or wing anti-ice is on?
Nacelle: NAI Wing: WAI FCOM Vol 2
50
What is the function off the Lower Lobe Cargo Conditioned Air Flow Rate selector?
Provides conditioned air to the forward and aft cargo lobes. FCOM Vol 2
51
When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?
One or more engine(s) is operating on each wing. FCOM Vol 2
52
What happens if a PTC detects a fault in a pack channel?
It switches to the other PTC. FCOM Vol 2
53
On the 748, what does the alternate ventilation system provide?
Outside air to the flight deck if all packs are off and the aircraft is depressurized. FCOM Vol 2
54
When does the cabin altitude controller switch channels?
Automatically on alternate flights or if one channel fails. FCOM Vol 2
55
How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event of a leak?
Go to the QRH Close the respective isolation valve Close the engine bleed air valves QRH/FCOM Vol 2
56
With a right bleed air duct isolated, how will this affect the hydraulic systems?
Go to the QRH Hydraulic demand pump 4 is off Hydraulic systems 3 and 4 have no reservoir pressure QRH
57
How do you re-engage the auto throttle when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S, or G/S?
Push the speed switch. FCOM Vol 2
58
How do you re-engage the auto throttle when the pitch mode is VNAV or FLCH?
Cycle the auto throttle off to arm. FCOM Vol 2
59
How can you deselect the approach mode after the LOC and G/S have captured?
Push TOGA or turn the autopilot and both flight directors off. FCOM Vol 2
60
What function is reflected if the THR switch is extinguished/illuminated?
Extinguished: thrust limit function Illuminated: auto throttle function FCOM Vol 2
61
When does the rollout mode activate?
Below 5 feet FCOM Vol 2
62
What auto throttle mode is activated with the second push of the TOGA switch?
THR REF at full go-around thrust. FCOM Vol 2
63
What pitch is commanded when TOGA is selected in a wind shear recovery?
15 degrees nose-up, or just below the PLI, whichever is lower. FCOM Vol 2
64
How are the auto throttle, roll, and pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMAs?
A green box surrounds the mode for 10 seconds. FCOM Vol 2
65
What indicates you are 1/3 of a dot deviation from the localizer?
The localizer pointer is touching the rectangle on the expanded localizer deviation scale At low radio altitudes with the autopilot or FD engaged, the scale turns amber and flashes. FCOM Vol 1/FCOM Vol 2
66
What source selector switch would you move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag on the PFD?
Air Data FCOM Vol 2
67
If the display selector panel fails, how can you select synoptic pages for the lower EICAS?
Through the respective CDU FCOM Vol 2
68
On the 748, when do the vertical anticipation cues show?
25 nm of the MAP 60 deg of the final approach course 6000 ft above field elevation FCOM Vol 2
69
When is en-route swath inhibited on the 748?
6 nm of the runway 3000 above field elevation FCOM Vol 2
70
When is a full alignment of the IRS required?
Every 18 hours FCOM Vol 2
71
What CDU pages are available during alternate navigation?
Legs Progress Radio FCOM Vol 2
72
What could happen in you advance the thrust levers further than TO1 or TO2 fixed derate following an engine failure?
Loss of directional control. FCOM Vol 2
73
Is it permissible for both pilots to enter information to the CDUs at the same time?
No FCOM Vol 2
74
Can ATC monitor the airplane position on the ground when the transponder is in STBY?
No FCOM Vol 2
75
On the 744, when does approach logic begin?
When the initial fix of an approach sequences When the runway is the active waypoint and is within 25 nm FCOM Vol 2
76
Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?
No FCOM Vol 2
77
When will the FMC fail to sequence the active waypoint?
When more than 21 nm off route and not on an offset. FCOM Vol 2
78
How many groups of leading edge flaps are there? How are they normally powered?
Three; inboard, midspan and outboard. Normally pneumatically powered from the bleed air duct. FCOM Vol 2
79
What are the two groups of trailing edge flaps? How are they normally powered?
Inboard and outboard. Inboard is powered by HYD 1 and outboard is powered by HYD 4 FCOM Vol 2
80
How are the trailing edge flaps normally powered?
Hydraulically. FCOM Vol 2
81
What protections do the FCUs provide in primary mode?
Asymmetry Load Relief Position information FCOM Vol 2
82
Describe the function of the STAB trim cutout switches in the AUTO position?
Supply hydraulic power to the STAB trim, or cut it off if a runaway is detected. FCOM Vol 2
83
What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or midspan leading edge flap group?
Both groups operate in secondary mode. FCOM Vol 2
84
What EICAS message will show if all FCUs fail?
Flaps Control. FCOM Vol 2/QRH
85
What effect does reverse thrust usage have on the flap system?
Inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract automatically. FCOM Vol 2
86
When does tail strike protection activate on the 748?
Anytime the PACS senses an imminent tail strike it automatically decreases elevator deflection. FCOM Vol 2
87
What does the brake source light indicate when illuminated?
Brake sources (HYD 4/1/2) have low pressure. FCOM Vol 2
88
What conditions must be met for the landing gear lever lock to release?
Main gear tilted Body gear centered FCOM Vol 2
89
What value on the BTMS causes the BRAKE TEMP message to appear?
5 FCOM Vol 2
90
How many degrees can the nose wheel turn with the tiller/rudder?
Tiller: 70 deg Rudder: 7 deg FCOM Vol 2
91
What does a white, crosshatched indication mean on the expanded gear synoptic?
Related landing gear is in transit. FCOM Vol 2
92
What are the 4 types of EICAS messages?
Wanring (Red) Caution (Amber) Advisory (Amber) Memo (White) FCOM Vol 2
93
Can warning messages be cancelled?
No FCOM Vol 2
94
Can amber alert messages be cancelled or recalled?
Yes, by pushing the cancel/recall switch. FCOM Vol 2
95
What will cause a CONFIG message during the takeoff roll?
Flaps not in a takeoff position Body gear not centered Stab trim not in greenband Parking brake set Speed-brake not in down detent FCOM Vol 2
96
What does the status cue mean?
A new message is on the lower EICAS. FCOM Vol 2
97
On the 748, during takeoff and landing, a bank angle alert will sound for bank angles as small as...
10 degrees FCOM Vol 2
98
Safety is best defined as?
Managed risk FOM
99
When faced with competing objectives, what must always remain the highest priority?
Safety FOM

Atlas (5 decks)

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