Patrolman v2 Flashcards

1
Q

If pursuit or emergency driving above the speed limit is determined to be necessary, what factors must be considered?

A

1) Degree of danger to the public
2) Weather and road conditions
3) Pursuit vehicle characteristics
4) Present and potential vehicle and pedestrian traffic
5) Reason for Pursuit

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2
Q

What response code is used to respond to alarm activations?

A

Code 2

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3
Q

At the AFRL, if a test area light is inoperable, off, and no warning flag or sign exists, how will you treat the test area?

A

Treat as if the area is Amber

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4
Q

At the AFRL, what does a Green test area light mean?

A

Indicates the area is free of hazardous operations or materials

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5
Q

At the AFRL, what does an Amber test area light mean?

A

Indicates a hazardous condition exists

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6
Q

At the AFRL, what does a Red test area light mean?

A

Indicates a highly hazardous condition or operations is occurring in the test area

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7
Q

At the AFRL, if entry to a test area marked with a Red light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

A

Contact the Site Operations Center (SOCC) and request an escort and approval by a Test Conductor

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8
Q

During non-duty hours at the AFRL, under what circumstances can a patrolman enter a test area controlled by an Amber light?

A

Patrolman may enter the area if suspicious or unauthorized activity is suspected

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9
Q

During duty hours at the AFRL, if entry to a test area marked with an Amber light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

A

Contact the Site Operations Center (SOCC) to request access

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10
Q

At the AFRL, what test areas will not be entered?

A

1) Test Area I-30 (Propellant Lab)
2) Area I-39 (Toxic Fuel Farm)
3) Area I-38 (Environmental Storage)
4) Area I-40 (Liquid Propellant Storability Complex)

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11
Q

What actions will the patrolman take if building 8451/Chemical Laboratory or building 8417/Electric Propulsion Laboratory are found unsecured?

A

Do not enter the building, notify the ECC, and maintain a safe distance until the facility manager arrives

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12
Q

What are the four types of vehicle passes that allow POV’s on the flight line?

A

AFFTC FM 5436 (white pass with red number, blue pass, green pass)

AFFTC FM 5292 red pass

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13
Q

What actions will be taken when an individuals attempts to drive a POV onto the flight line without a vehicle pass?

A

Deny entry and direct the individual to Base Operations to obtain one

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14
Q

When the alternate ECC is activated, which patrol will stand up and man the alternate ECC until properly relieved?

A

Sierra-2

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15
Q

When a pursuit begins, what information should be relayed by the patrolman to ECC?

A

1) Location
2) Direction
3) Speed of travel
4) Reason for pursuit
5) Vehicle description (License number, occupants)
6) Traffic Conditions

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16
Q

Patrols are authorized to engaged in vehicle pursuits with additional passengers such as prisoners, witnesses, suspects, or ride along participants, as long as the patrolman receivers permission from the Flight Sergeant. True or False.

A

False

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17
Q

Which forms are used to record traffic violations?

A

1) DD Form 1408 (Armed Forces Traffic Ticket)

2) CVB Form 1805 (United States District Violation Notice)

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18
Q

Who monitors and may terminate a vehicle pursuit at any time?

A

Flight Sergeant

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19
Q

During a vehicle pursuit. if the violator should abandon his/her vehicle and flee on foot, what actions will the patrolman take?

A

Remove the patrol vehicle ignition keys, quickly check the violator’s vehicle for occupants and give location, description of the car and its occupants, as well as the suspect’s direction of travel to the ECC

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20
Q

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 1?

A

By observing all applicable traffic laws, and without the use of emergency lights or sirens

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21
Q

True or false? If the patrolman becomes aware of circumstances unknown to the ECC, the patrolman may upgrade his/her response to Code 2 or Code 3.

A

True

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22
Q

Calls requiring immediate response to a non-life threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

A

Code 2

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23
Q

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 2?

A

By observing all applicable traffic laws and using emergency lights only

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24
Q

Calls requiring immediate response to a life-threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

A

Code 3

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25
If responding to a call that could put SF personnel, victims or bystanders in peril, when should responding patrols turn their emergency light and sirens off?
Turn them off a safe distance from the scene
26
Why should patrolman ensure to turn their emergency lights and sirens off prior to arriving on scene?
Emergency lights and sirens may alert the suspect, and put SF personnel, victims, or bystanders in peril
27
During a funds escort, what things will SF personnel never do?
Carry funds container, provide transportation, and have access to funds
28
While conducting building checks, what actions should you take if you discover a building what signs of forced entry?
Take cover in a position to observe the building, contact BDOC, and wait for back to arrive. Once backup has arrived devise a plan and clear the building
29
What circumstance will an AF Form 3545A, Incident Report, be filled out for unsecured buildings?
When items are missing, there are signs of entry, or a protection level asset
30
What form will be used to record names of people who enter and exit crime scenes?
AF Form 1109 Visitor Control Log
31
If while questioning a complainant, witness or victim at a crime scene you begin to suspect someone of committing a crime what actions should you take?
Advise the individual of their rights prior to continuing any questioning
32
If evacuation is required during a Major Accident, what direction will personnel be directed to evacuate?
Upwind or crosswind towards a point designated by the IC
33
What are the curfew hours for juveniles on Edwards AFB?
2300-0600 Sunday through Thursday 2400-0600 on Fridays and Saturdays
34
Under what circumstances may juveniles be outside their quarter after curfew?
When in the company of a responsible adult older than 21 having the care, custody and charge of the juvenile or when proceeding directly to or from any authorized base or social activity
35
What authority does Rule 302(b) of the MCM and Article 7(b) of the UCMJ give to Security Forces Members?
Rule 302(b) of the MCM and Article 7(b) of the UCMJ
36
What gives Security Forces personnel the authority to administer oaths to suspects, subjects, witnesses, and victims?
Article 136(b) of the UCMJ
37
What authority does Article 136(b) of the UCMJ give to Security Forces members?
The authority to administer oaths to suspects, subjects, witnesses, and victims
38
What four types of legislative jurisdiction apply to military installations and faculties?
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, partial
39
What type of legislative jurisdiction gives the federal government sole authority to legislate?
Exclusive
40
What type of legislative jurisdiction exists when both the federal and state governments retain all their legislative authority?
Concurrent
41
What type of legislative jurisdiction has the military exercises the right of a property owner only?
Proprietary
42
What type of legislative jurisdiction gives both the federal and state governments some authority, but neither has exclusive power?
Partial
43
What article of the UCMJ state exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction?
Article 2
44
What does Article 2 of the UCMJ state?
States exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction
45
What article of the UCMJ state that the UCMJ applies in al places and there is no restriction on where the case may be heard?
Article 5
46
What does Article 5 of the UCMJ state?
States that the UCMJ applies in al places and there is no restriction on where the case may be heard
47
What four authorities do Security Forces members have?
Detain, Apprehend, Report, Correct
48
What does the Assimilative Crimes Act allow?
Allows for adoption of state law in the absence of applicable federal law
49
What is probable cause?
Reasonable belief that an offense has been or is being committed and the persona to be apprehended committed or is committing it
50
What is reasonable belief?
There is reliable information that reasonable, prudent persona would rely on which makes it more likely than not that something is true
51
What are the five ways SF members can establish reasonable belief?
1) SF members see the person commit the crime 2) Members receives description of a person/vehicle from another SF member 3) Member receives statement by a reliable person 4) Superior in the member's chain of command orders an apprehension 5) Complainant or victim identifies the alleged perpetrator
52
What are apprehensions based on?
Probable cause
53
For minor offenses, who may you release civilian offenders to?
Military sponsor, a relative or friend, or on their own recognizance
54
What is the definition of custody?
The restraint of free movement
55
Prior to asking any questions related to an offense under investigation, what must the SF member do?
Advise suspects of their right against self- incrimination
56
Suspects on verified active order will be advised of their rights IAW what?
Article 31 of the UCMJ
57
What is spontaneous utterance?
When an individual contacted by SF personnel voluntarily make an incriminating statement
58
Search authorizations will be completed via what form?
AF From 1176 Authority to Search and Seize
59
What is a search affidavit?
A statement of probable cause supporting the request for authorization to search and seize
60
Who gives on base search authority?
Installation Commander or military magistrate
61
What is the definition of a search?
An examination of a person, place, or thing with a view toward discovery of a crime or criminal intent
62
What is Search Incident to Apprehension?
SF may search incident to apprehension the space within the apprehended person's immediate control
63
SF members seizing or receiving an item of evidential property will ensure to immediately record an affix what form to the property?
AF Form 52, Evidence Tag
64
Who is given the property receipt portion of the AF Form 52?
The person relinquishing the property
65
In the event evidence is explosive in nature, such as bulk explosives or military ordnance, who will SF contact for guidance to the safe handling, packaging, and storage of the explosives?
EOD
66
Which form is used to record evidence and maintain a chain of custody?
AF Form 52 Evidence Tag
67
Which form is used to obtain authorization to search and seize?
AF Form 1176 Authority to Search and Seize
68
What form is used to record investigations of major traffic accidents?
AF Form 1315 Accident Report
69
Which form is used to provide SF with information about pick-up order to place a restriction order on a military member?
AF Form 1361 Pick Up Restriction Order
70
Which form is used to document when an individual consents freely and voluntarily to a search of their person or property?
AF Form 1364 Consent for Search and Seizure
71
What form is used to acquire authority to make an apprehension in a private on-base dwelling?
AF Form 3226 Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling
72
Which form is used to collect information on suspicious people or individuals contacted during routine operations who do not require any other administrative action?
AF Form 3907 SF Field Interview Card
73
Which form is used to transfer prisoners between confinement faculties or to release a detained person to their commander or representative?
DD Form 2708 Receipt for Prisoner or Detained Person
74
What three sources does military jurisdiction come from?
US Constitution, Federal Statutes, and International law
75
Which articles of the UCMJ are punitive articles?
Articles 77-134
76
Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is given to the violator of affixed to the vehicle if the operator is not present?
Pink copy
77
Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by the SF member to record details about the instructions issued to the violator, names of the witnesses, and can be used to refresh the patrol member's memory if the ticket is contested.?
Yellow copy
78
Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is submitted through channels to the violator's commander for action to be taken against the violator?
White copy
79
Which form is used when it is determined an offended will be prosecuted for minor offense before a U.S Magistrate?
CVB 1805 United States District Court Violation Notice
80
Which copy pf the CVB 1805 will be forwarded by S-5R to the Central Violations Bureau?
White copy
81
Which copy of the CVB 1805 is given to the violator?
Yellow copy
82
Which form is used to record tests and observations made of someone suspected of being involved in an incident where alcohol or drugs may be a factor?
DD Form 1920 Alcoholic Influence Report
83
What information will be relayed to BDOC when a SF member initiates a traffic stop?
Stop location, vehicle description, license number, number of occupants, and reason for the stop
84
What type of report informs higher headquarters that an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2, 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site?
Covered Wagon
85
What is a Covered Wagon report?
A report informing higher headquarters that an unusual incidents affecting PL 1, 2, 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site
86
What is the definition of a PL-1 resource?
Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the US or catastrophic consequences for the nation
87
List two examples of a PL-1 resource.
1) Nuclear weapons and/ or critical components 2) Command 3) Control
88
What is the definition of a PL-1 resource?
Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in significant mission degradation to the war fight capability of the US
89
List three examples of PL-2 resources.
Non-nuclear alert forces, expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems, selected critical command
90
What is the definition of a PL-3 resource?
Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US.
91
List two examples of PL-3 resources?
Weapons systems capable of being on alert status; selected command, control and communications faculties, systems, equipment
92
What is the definition of a PL-4 resource?
Assets that directly or indirectly support power projection assets and the war fighting mission which loss, theft, misuse compromise or destruction would adversely affect mission capability
93
Under what circumstances is a vehicle considered abandoned?
If it is know the legal owner has departed the base by way of PCS orders, separation, or retirement; vehicle has expired or missing state registration; if the owner doesn't respond to abandoned vehicle notices; or if the vehicle appears abandoned
94
Which form is placed conspicuously on POV's that are considered to be abandoned?
DD Form 2504
95
How much time does an owner of a vehicle marked with an Abandoned Vehicle Notice have to remove the vehicle before impoundment action is initiated?
3 days
96
How much time do vehicle owners have to remove their vehicles that are left disabled on roadways or at an accident site before they will be towed at the owner's expense?
24 hours
97
Which code is used to check for outstanding wants and warrants on a person or vehicle?
Code 4
98
What are three types of child abuse?
Physical Abuse, Sexual Abuse, and Neglect
99
How are duress word used?
Used during normal conversation to indicate duress
100
How often will duress words be changed?
Every 6 months from the date of issue, or when compromised
101
TDY personnel may be granted unescorted entry into restricted areas when in possession of their home base RAB and an EAL authenticated by who?
Security Forces supervisor (E-5/GS-7 or above)