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Security Forces QC Review > Patrolman v2 > Flashcards

Patrolman v2 Flashcards

1
Q

If pursuit or emergency driving above the speed limit is determined to be necessary, what factors must be considered?

A

1) Degree of danger to the public
2) Weather and road conditions
3) Pursuit vehicle characteristics
4) Present and potential vehicle and pedestrian traffic
5) Reason for Pursuit

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2
Q

What response code is used to respond to alarm activations?

A

Code 2

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3
Q

At the AFRL, if a test area light is inoperable, off, and no warning flag or sign exists, how will you treat the test area?

A

Treat as if the area is Amber

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4
Q

At the AFRL, what does a Green test area light mean?

A

Indicates the area is free of hazardous operations or materials

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5
Q

At the AFRL, what does an Amber test area light mean?

A

Indicates a hazardous condition exists

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6
Q

At the AFRL, what does a Red test area light mean?

A

Indicates a highly hazardous condition or operations is occurring in the test area

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7
Q

At the AFRL, if entry to a test area marked with a Red light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

A

Contact the Site Operations Center (SOCC) and request an escort and approval by a Test Conductor

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8
Q

During non-duty hours at the AFRL, under what circumstances can a patrolman enter a test area controlled by an Amber light?

A

Patrolman may enter the area if suspicious or unauthorized activity is suspected

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9
Q

During duty hours at the AFRL, if entry to a test area marked with an Amber light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

A

Contact the Site Operations Center (SOCC) to request access

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10
Q

At the AFRL, what test areas will not be entered?

A

1) Test Area I-30 (Propellant Lab)
2) Area I-39 (Toxic Fuel Farm)
3) Area I-38 (Environmental Storage)
4) Area I-40 (Liquid Propellant Storability Complex)

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11
Q

What actions will the patrolman take if building 8451/Chemical Laboratory or building 8417/Electric Propulsion Laboratory are found unsecured?

A

Do not enter the building, notify the ECC, and maintain a safe distance until the facility manager arrives

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12
Q

What are the four types of vehicle passes that allow POV’s on the flight line?

A

AFFTC FM 5436 (white pass with red number, blue pass, green pass)

AFFTC FM 5292 red pass

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13
Q

What actions will be taken when an individuals attempts to drive a POV onto the flight line without a vehicle pass?

A

Deny entry and direct the individual to Base Operations to obtain one

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14
Q

When the alternate ECC is activated, which patrol will stand up and man the alternate ECC until properly relieved?

A

Sierra-2

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15
Q

When a pursuit begins, what information should be relayed by the patrolman to ECC?

A

1) Location
2) Direction
3) Speed of travel
4) Reason for pursuit
5) Vehicle description (License number, occupants)
6) Traffic Conditions

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16
Q

Patrols are authorized to engaged in vehicle pursuits with additional passengers such as prisoners, witnesses, suspects, or ride along participants, as long as the patrolman receivers permission from the Flight Sergeant. True or False.

A

False

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17
Q

Which forms are used to record traffic violations?

A

1) DD Form 1408 (Armed Forces Traffic Ticket)

2) CVB Form 1805 (United States District Violation Notice)

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18
Q

Who monitors and may terminate a vehicle pursuit at any time?

A

Flight Sergeant

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19
Q

During a vehicle pursuit. if the violator should abandon his/her vehicle and flee on foot, what actions will the patrolman take?

A

Remove the patrol vehicle ignition keys, quickly check the violator’s vehicle for occupants and give location, description of the car and its occupants, as well as the suspect’s direction of travel to the ECC

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20
Q

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 1?

A

By observing all applicable traffic laws, and without the use of emergency lights or sirens

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21
Q

True or false? If the patrolman becomes aware of circumstances unknown to the ECC, the patrolman may upgrade his/her response to Code 2 or Code 3.

A

True

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22
Q

Calls requiring immediate response to a non-life threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

A

Code 2

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23
Q

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 2?

A

By observing all applicable traffic laws and using emergency lights only

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24
Q

Calls requiring immediate response to a life-threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

A

Code 3

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25
Q

If responding to a call that could put SF personnel, victims or bystanders in peril, when should responding patrols turn their emergency light and sirens off?

A

Turn them off a safe distance from the scene

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26
Q

Why should patrolman ensure to turn their emergency lights and sirens off prior to arriving on scene?

A

Emergency lights and sirens may alert the suspect, and put SF personnel, victims, or bystanders in peril

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27
Q

During a funds escort, what things will SF personnel never do?

A

Carry funds container, provide transportation, and have access to funds

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28
Q

While conducting building checks, what actions should you take if you discover a building what signs of forced entry?

A

Take cover in a position to observe the building, contact BDOC, and wait for back to arrive. Once backup has arrived devise a plan and clear the building

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29
Q

What circumstance will an AF Form 3545A, Incident Report, be filled out for unsecured buildings?

A

When items are missing, there are signs of entry, or a protection level asset

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30
Q

What form will be used to record names of people who enter and exit crime scenes?

A

AF Form 1109 Visitor Control Log

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31
Q

If while questioning a complainant, witness or victim at a crime scene you begin to suspect someone of committing a crime what actions should you take?

A

Advise the individual of their rights prior to continuing any questioning

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32
Q

If evacuation is required during a Major Accident, what direction will personnel be directed to evacuate?

A

Upwind or crosswind towards a point designated by the IC

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33
Q

What are the curfew hours for juveniles on Edwards AFB?

A

2300-0600 Sunday through Thursday

2400-0600 on Fridays and Saturdays

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34
Q

Under what circumstances may juveniles be outside their quarter after curfew?

A

When in the company of a responsible adult older than 21 having the care, custody and charge of the juvenile or when proceeding directly to or from any authorized base or social activity

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35
Q

What authority does Rule 302(b) of the MCM and Article 7(b) of the UCMJ give to Security Forces Members?

A

Rule 302(b) of the MCM and Article 7(b) of the UCMJ

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36
Q

What gives Security Forces personnel the authority to administer oaths to suspects, subjects, witnesses, and victims?

A

Article 136(b) of the UCMJ

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37
Q

What authority does Article 136(b) of the UCMJ give to Security Forces members?

A

The authority to administer oaths to suspects, subjects, witnesses, and victims

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38
Q

What four types of legislative jurisdiction apply to military installations and faculties?

A

Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, partial

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39
Q

What type of legislative jurisdiction gives the federal government sole authority to legislate?

A

Exclusive

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40
Q

What type of legislative jurisdiction exists when both the federal and state governments retain all their legislative authority?

A

Concurrent

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41
Q

What type of legislative jurisdiction has the military exercises the right of a property owner only?

A

Proprietary

42
Q

What type of legislative jurisdiction gives both the federal and state governments some authority, but neither has exclusive power?

A

Partial

43
Q

What article of the UCMJ state exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction?

A

Article 2

44
Q

What does Article 2 of the UCMJ state?

A

States exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction

45
Q

What article of the UCMJ state that the UCMJ applies in al places and there is no restriction on where the case may be heard?

A

Article 5

46
Q

What does Article 5 of the UCMJ state?

A

States that the UCMJ applies in al places and there is no restriction on where the case may be heard

47
Q

What four authorities do Security Forces members have?

A

Detain, Apprehend, Report, Correct

48
Q

What does the Assimilative Crimes Act allow?

A

Allows for adoption of state law in the absence of applicable federal law

49
Q

What is probable cause?

A

Reasonable belief that an offense has been or is being committed and the persona to be apprehended committed or is committing it

50
Q

What is reasonable belief?

A

There is reliable information that reasonable, prudent persona would rely on which makes it more likely than not that something is true

51
Q

What are the five ways SF members can establish reasonable belief?

A

1) SF members see the person commit the crime
2) Members receives description of a person/vehicle from another SF member
3) Member receives statement by a reliable person
4) Superior in the member’s chain of command orders an apprehension
5) Complainant or victim identifies the alleged perpetrator

52
Q

What are apprehensions based on?

A

Probable cause

53
Q

For minor offenses, who may you release civilian offenders to?

A

Military sponsor, a relative or friend, or on their own recognizance

54
Q

What is the definition of custody?

A

The restraint of free movement

55
Q

Prior to asking any questions related to an offense under investigation, what must the SF member do?

A

Advise suspects of their right against self- incrimination

56
Q

Suspects on verified active order will be advised of their rights IAW what?

A

Article 31 of the UCMJ

57
Q

What is spontaneous utterance?

A

When an individual contacted by SF personnel voluntarily make an incriminating statement

58
Q

Search authorizations will be completed via what form?

A

AF From 1176 Authority to Search and Seize

59
Q

What is a search affidavit?

A

A statement of probable cause supporting the request for authorization to search and seize

60
Q

Who gives on base search authority?

A

Installation Commander or military magistrate

61
Q

What is the definition of a search?

A

An examination of a person, place, or thing with a view toward discovery of a crime or criminal intent

62
Q

What is Search Incident to Apprehension?

A

SF may search incident to apprehension the space within the apprehended person’s immediate control

63
Q

SF members seizing or receiving an item of evidential property will ensure to immediately record an affix what form to the property?

A

AF Form 52, Evidence Tag

64
Q

Who is given the property receipt portion of the AF Form 52?

A

The person relinquishing the property

65
Q

In the event evidence is explosive in nature, such as bulk explosives or military ordnance, who will SF contact for guidance to the safe handling, packaging, and storage of the explosives?

A

EOD

66
Q

Which form is used to record evidence and maintain a chain of custody?

A

AF Form 52 Evidence Tag

67
Q

Which form is used to obtain authorization to search and seize?

A

AF Form 1176 Authority to Search and Seize

68
Q

What form is used to record investigations of major traffic accidents?

A

AF Form 1315 Accident Report

69
Q

Which form is used to provide SF with information about pick-up order to place a restriction order on a military member?

A

AF Form 1361 Pick Up Restriction Order

70
Q

Which form is used to document when an individual consents freely and voluntarily to a search of their person or property?

A

AF Form 1364 Consent for Search and Seizure

71
Q

What form is used to acquire authority to make an apprehension in a private on-base dwelling?

A

AF Form 3226 Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling

72
Q

Which form is used to collect information on suspicious people or individuals contacted during routine operations who do not require any other administrative action?

A

AF Form 3907 SF Field Interview Card

73
Q

Which form is used to transfer prisoners between confinement faculties or to release a detained person to their commander or representative?

A

DD Form 2708 Receipt for Prisoner or Detained Person

74
Q

What three sources does military jurisdiction come from?

A

US Constitution, Federal Statutes, and International law

75
Q

Which articles of the UCMJ are punitive articles?

A

Articles 77-134

76
Q

Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is given to the violator of affixed to the vehicle if the operator is not present?

A

Pink copy

77
Q

Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by the SF member to record details about the instructions issued to the violator, names of the witnesses, and can be used to refresh the patrol member’s memory if the ticket is contested.?

A

Yellow copy

78
Q

Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is submitted through channels to the violator’s commander for action to be taken against the violator?

A

White copy

79
Q

Which form is used when it is determined an offended will be prosecuted for minor offense before a U.S Magistrate?

A

CVB 1805 United States District Court Violation Notice

80
Q

Which copy pf the CVB 1805 will be forwarded by S-5R to the Central Violations Bureau?

A

White copy

81
Q

Which copy of the CVB 1805 is given to the violator?

A

Yellow copy

82
Q

Which form is used to record tests and observations made of someone suspected of being involved in an incident where alcohol or drugs may be a factor?

A

DD Form 1920 Alcoholic Influence Report

83
Q

What information will be relayed to BDOC when a SF member initiates a traffic stop?

A

Stop location, vehicle description, license number, number of occupants, and reason for the stop

84
Q

What type of report informs higher headquarters that an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2, 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site?

A

Covered Wagon

85
Q

What is a Covered Wagon report?

A

A report informing higher headquarters that an unusual incidents affecting PL 1, 2, 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site

86
Q

What is the definition of a PL-1 resource?

A

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the US or catastrophic consequences for the nation

87
Q

List two examples of a PL-1 resource.

A

1) Nuclear weapons and/ or critical components
2) Command
3) Control

88
Q

What is the definition of a PL-1 resource?

A

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in significant mission degradation to the war fight capability of the US

89
Q

List three examples of PL-2 resources.

A

Non-nuclear alert forces, expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems, selected critical command

90
Q

What is the definition of a PL-3 resource?

A

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US.

91
Q

List two examples of PL-3 resources?

A

Weapons systems capable of being on alert status; selected command, control and communications faculties, systems, equipment

92
Q

What is the definition of a PL-4 resource?

A

Assets that directly or indirectly support power projection assets and the war fighting mission which loss, theft, misuse compromise or destruction would adversely affect mission capability

93
Q

Under what circumstances is a vehicle considered abandoned?

A

If it is know the legal owner has departed the base by way of PCS orders, separation, or retirement; vehicle has expired or missing state registration; if the owner doesn’t respond to abandoned vehicle notices; or if the vehicle appears abandoned

94
Q

Which form is placed conspicuously on POV’s that are considered to be abandoned?

A

DD Form 2504

95
Q

How much time does an owner of a vehicle marked with an Abandoned Vehicle Notice have to remove the vehicle before impoundment action is initiated?

A

3 days

96
Q

How much time do vehicle owners have to remove their vehicles that are left disabled on roadways or at an accident site before they will be towed at the owner’s expense?

A

24 hours

97
Q

Which code is used to check for outstanding wants and warrants on a person or vehicle?

A

Code 4

98
Q

What are three types of child abuse?

A

Physical Abuse, Sexual Abuse, and Neglect

99
Q

How are duress word used?

A

Used during normal conversation to indicate duress

100
Q

How often will duress words be changed?

A

Every 6 months from the date of issue, or when compromised

101
Q

TDY personnel may be granted unescorted entry into restricted areas when in possession of their home base RAB and an EAL authenticated by who?

A

Security Forces supervisor (E-5/GS-7 or above)

Security Forces QC Review (6 decks)

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