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Security Forces QC Review > Desk Sergeant > Flashcards

Desk Sergeant Flashcards

1
Q

The Desk Sergeant will instruct installation entry control points to stop all in bound and out bound traffic when an alarm originates from AA&E facilities. (EXHIBIT 1 TO TAB I TO APPENDIX 1 TO ANNEX M OF 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1 para. 3.2.1.3)

A

Answer: True

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2
Q

How many Security Forces members make up a “Response Force” and what is their response time? (TAB S TO APPENDIX 2 TO ANNEX M OF 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1 para. 2.2.4.2)

A

Answer: 15 Security Forces members capable of responding within 5 minutes

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3
Q

What procedures will be used when emergency response vehicles and personnel need to enter the Birk Flight Test Facility (BFTF) during an emergency? (APPENDIX 15 TO ANNEX X OF 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1 para 1.3.1)

A

Answer: Allow entry without delay using the established sign/countersign procedure once Security Forces are notified of a valid emergency.

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4
Q

How many Security Forces members make up an “Augmentation Force” and what is their response time? (EXHIBIT 2 TO TAB D TO APPENDIX 23 TO ANNEX X OF 412 TW IDP 31,
Vol.1 para 3.2.9.21)

A

Answer: 44 military personnel capable of responding in 4 hours.

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5
Q

Security for limited life components, classified nuclear support material, and sanitized aircraft, is referred to as______. (EXHIBIT 1 TO TAB D TO APPENDIX 23 TO ANNEX X OF 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1 para 3.1.1.2)

A

Answer: Type II

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6
Q

During a Bomb Threat, what is the proper initial cordon size if the device is LARGER than a 55 gallon drum? (TAB D TO APPENDIX 2 TO ANNEX M OF 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1 para 3.9.3.6)

A

Answer: 1,000 foot cordon

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7
Q

Who can you release an enlisted military member to? (AFI 31-118 para. 11.7.4)

A

Answer: First Sergeant, Unit or Section Commander, Supervisor in the grade of E-7 or above.

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8
Q

Under what circumstances are OFF-BASE vehicle pursuits authorized? —Please check all answers that apply— (APPENDIX 2 TO ANNEX K OF EADB IDP 31, VOL 1. para 2.5.3)

A

Answer: To contain a suspect who has committed a felony, theft of classified materials, or if weapons are involved and only when approved by the on-duty Flight Sergeant or above.

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9
Q

How many Security Forces members make up a “Backup Force” and what is their response time? (Attachment 1 to Exhibit 3 To Tab D To Appendix 23 to Annex X Of 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1 Per. Note 2)

A

Answer: 17 Security Forces members capable of responding in 30 minutes.

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10
Q

The 412th Security Forces Squadron will provide escorts for funds in excess of______.
(EXHIBIT 1 TO TAB D TO APPENDIX 1 TO ANNEX M OF 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1 para
2.1.1 and 2.1.3)

A

$25,000

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11
Q

Security Forces (SF) personnel conducting a funds escort are authorized to carry money for the funds custodian.

A

False

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12
Q

During a Bomb Threat, what is the proper initial cordon size if the device is SMALLER than a 55 gallon drum?

A

500 foot cordon

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13
Q

Who should you release a civilian detained for a minor offense to?

A

Release on their own recognizance or release to a friend or relative.

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14
Q

What form is issued to all personnel when criminal conduct adversely affects victims or when witnesses provide information regarding criminal activity?

A

DD Form 2701, Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime Pamphlet

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15
Q

What is a “TACAMO” aircraft?

A

Navy E-6 aircraft that temporarily fly in and out of Edwards AFB. The letters stand for “Take Charge and Move Out”.

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16
Q

What is the term used to describe an unclassified up-channel report informing higher headquarters of an unusual incident affecting Protection Level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurring at an installation or dispersed site?

A

Covered Wagon

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17
Q

Personnel are prohibited from consuming any intoxicating substances within how many hours prior to duty and while on-duty?

A

8

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18
Q

Installation Entry Point Checks are NOT considered searches but are used as a tool by the Installation Commander to look for what?

A

Stolen government property or illegal contraband

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19
Q

Who should be present when advising a JUVENILE suspect of his/her legal rights?

A

A parent or legal guardian will witness the rights advisement whenever possible. If a parent or legal guardian cannot be present, two Security Forces members will conduct the rights advisement.

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20
Q

What is “Type II” security?

A

Security for limited life components, classified nuclear support material or sanitized aircraft.

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21
Q

When would you complete the Field Interview Card?

A

On all contacts suspicious in nature

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22
Q

An individual approaches an installation gate and requests political asylum. After several minutes, the individual withdraws his or her request and wants to leave. Are they free to leave?

A

Yes, they are free to leave unless suspected of criminal activity.

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23
Q

What are the hours of curfew for juveniles on a Saturday night?

A

2400 - 0600

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24
Q

An unclassified message relayed by the Emergency Control Center (ECC) to the Edwards
AFB Command Post of an unusual incident, possibly hostile, affecting Protection Level I, II, or III resources is called a what?

A

Security Incident

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25
Q

Who has escort authority on the flightline?

A

Anyone with the appropriate area designation open on their AF Form 1199, has escort authority for that area.

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26
Q

Personnel visiting Edwards AFB will be issued an AF Form 75, Visitor Pass. The Entry
Controller (EC) may issue passes for no longer than?

A

72 hours

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27
Q

What is the definition of a “Code 4”?

A

Code used to check for outstanding wants and warrants on a person or vehicle.

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28
Q

What is the definition of a “Code 1” response code?

A

Routine response

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29
Q

What is the definition of a “Code 2” response code?

A

Urgent response

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30
Q

What actions should be taken when a MILITARY member is entering the base and refuses to comply with Installation Entry Point Checks?

A

Apprehend the individual for refusing to comply and transport to the Emergency Control Center (ECC).

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31
Q

What actions do you take when a taxicab arrives at the gate to pick up a passenger in base housing?

A

Stop the taxicab and verify the pick-up. Check the taxicab driver’s license and insurance.

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32
Q

What actions should the Security Forces Controller (SFC) take when a funds custodian requests a funds escort?

A

Notify the responding patrol by radio of the escort vehicles description and destination. Notify the Flight Sergeant of the funds escort request. Log the escort on AF Form 3136 and obtain a vehicle description of the transport vehicle.

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33
Q

The Victim Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) is designed for victims and witnesses who suffer physical, financial, or emotional trauma to receive the assistance and protection to which they are entitled. The Emergency Control Center (ECC) will report incidents involving victim or witness harassment, intimidation, or persons requiring protection to ______.

A

Security Forces Investigations (S2I)

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34
Q

Activities that transfer funds WITHOUT Security Forces escort will provide the Security Forces Controller (SFC) with what information?

A

Starting point, destination, vehicle description, and license plate number.

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35
Q

Who is authorized to terminate a Covered Wagon?

A

Installation Commander or designee

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36
Q

During a Major Accident, how do you determine the location of the ECP?

A

Located upwind, or crosswind if upwind is not available, on the perimeter of the cordon, within a 90-degree arc on either side of the current surface wind.

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37
Q

When a crime scene has been established, what form is utilized to account for all personal that enter and exit the area?

A

AF FM 1109 Visitor Register Log

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38
Q

Individuals that have access to the California Law Enforcement Terminal System (CLETS) will be given what type of CLETS access and operators rights?

A

Less than Full Access Operators

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39
Q

Desk Sergeants can make inquiries into any CLETS system and perform update functions as necessary.

A

False

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40
Q

As a CLETS operator you are authorized to conduct a search utilizing the system anytime for any reason to included checking your own background status.

A

False

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41
Q

What is the definition of a major accident?

A

An accident that results in a fatality, injury, or vehicle/property damage above the amount set by your installation commander

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42
Q

Which agency is responsible for handling wild animals on base?

A

Environmental Management

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43
Q

In what direction will personnel be evacuated from an incident scene involving possible hazards?

A

Upwind or crosswind direction

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44
Q

Who should the Desk Sergeant notify when there is reasonable belief that a crime against a child has occurred?

A

Family advocacy, subjects First Sergeant, and AFOSI

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45
Q

During a response to a HAZMAT or CBRNE incident, which agencies must SF contact to coordinate the collection of evidence?

A

HAZMAT Team and FBI

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46
Q

In which zones will Security Forces not operate in during HAZMAT incidents?

A

Warm and Hot zones

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47
Q

What are the three zones established during a HAZMAT or CBRNE incident?

A

Hot Zone, Warm Zone, and Cold Zone

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48
Q

Who authorizes access through the ECP of a major accident?

A

Incident Commander or designated representative

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49
Q

What factors influence the size and location of an ECP?

A

Type of Incident, Amount/type of materials involved, and Weather conditions

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50
Q

Who determines the size of the cordon around a major accident?

A

Incident commander

51
Q

How many patrols are required for a domestic violence response call?

A

Two patrols

52
Q

When a call is received indicating the possibility that family violence has occurred what actions should the controller take?

A

Gather as much information as possible from the caller, check local firearms roster, ask for the telephone number that the call is being made from, and relay information to responding patrols

53
Q

What actions may Security Forces take in domestic violence situations?

A

temporary separation, apprehension, and referral

54
Q

During a catastrophic alarm failure, who is responsible for guarding the facility until the alarm is repaired or resources are relocated to another facility with the appropriate security
measures?

A

Alarm custodian

55
Q

What actions will BDOC accomplish during a catastrophic alarm failure?

A

Brief patrols to conduct checks of alarmed facilities, recall facility alarm custodians, and notify 412 SFS S5E

56
Q

Under what circumstances may it be necessary to establish a National Defense Area (NDA)?

A

Protection level resources diverted to civilian airports or Accidents involving nuclear weapons ground convoys

57
Q

Where are NDAs established?

A

Established in the CONUS and U.S. territories when necessary to secure PL 1, 2, or, 3 resources located off installation lands not under the jurisdiction or administration of, or in the custody of DOD

58
Q

Who has the authority to establish National Defense Areas?

A

412 TW/CC

59
Q

Effective enforcement requires the boundary of an NDA to be clearly defined. How will SF personnel clearly define the boundary of the NDA?

A

Temporary barrier such as rope or wire and put National Defense Area Warning
signs

60
Q

During an unannounced aircraft landing situation, which agency does the Desk Sergeant coordinate with if blocking actions are necessary?

A

Control Tower

61
Q

Type I security requires who to be present?

A

A senior SF supervisor and on-scene coordinator

62
Q

Who acts as on-scene coordinator for Type I operations?

A

412 MSG/CC

63
Q

Where will the seal numbers for the aircraft hatches to a TYPE I aircraft be recorded?

A

Back of the crew EAL

64
Q

SF members will not consume any form of intoxicant while on duty or within How many Hours of a tour of duty?

A

Eight hours

65
Q

Showing favoritism, overlooking violations, or otherwise failing to enforce the law is defined as?

A

Seeking Favors

66
Q

You have the authority to punish offenders?

A

False, we do not punish. We may correct, caution or warn

67
Q

What AFI governs Use of Force by Air force Personnel?

A

AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

68
Q

Give me 4 considerations an officer makes when determining whether to continue a vehicle pursuit?

A

Mission impact, Local policy, Danger to the public, Danger to self and fellow patrols, Experience and training, Weather and road conditions, Time of day (e.g., Is it rush hour? Has school just let out? Is it the middle of the night with deserted streets?) Facilities located along the route (e.g., schools, hospital, shopping centers, etc.).

69
Q

Who may terminate a vehicle pursuit at any time?

A

On-duty SF Supervisor/Flight Chief

70
Q

If a vehicle does not have operational emergency lights and siren, it can still be utilized for vehicle pursuits as long as the officer determines it is safe?

A

False

71
Q

When in a vehicle pursuit what information should the patrol be relaying to the ECC?

A

Direction of travel. Vehicle description and license number. Number of occupants. Exact reason for pursuit. Traffic conditions and other details necessary to assist other patrols in the area.

72
Q

You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator’s race?

A

Personal attitudes

73
Q

Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to?

A

AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

74
Q

What are the three sources of Military jurisdiction?

A

The US Constitution. Federal statutes. International laws

75
Q

What Article of the UCMJ identifies who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

A

Article 2, UCMJ

76
Q

What Article of the UCMJ identifies where and what locations the UCMJ can be enforced?

A

Article 5, UCMJ

77
Q

Under Article 5 of the UCMJ where the UCMJ can be enforced?

A

The UCMJ applies everywhere whether on an airplane, a ship, or overseas. Military law also applies on base and off base.

78
Q

What articles of the UCMJ are considered the Punitive Articles?

A

Articles 77–134 of the UCMJ are the punitive articles

79
Q

What are the four types of military jurisdiction?

A

Exclusive, Concurrent, Proprietary, Reciprocal

80
Q

As an SF member, you have authority to give lawful orders in the execution of your duties what Article of the UCMJ gives you that authority?

A

Article 92 (2), UCMJ, gives you this authority and makes it a crime to disobey such lawful orders.

81
Q

Your authority to apprehend military members comes from what Rule for Courts-Martial and UCMJ Article?

A

302 of the Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) and Article 7b of the UCMJ which gives you this authority.

82
Q

If a SF member chooses to operate outside of established guidance or act in an unprofessional manner he/she may be subject to a civilian lawsuit?

A

True

83
Q

In order to make any statements made by a suspect eligible for use in a legal procedure, a proper —– must be given?

A

Rights advisement must be given

84
Q

What is a Spontaneous Utterance?

A

Occurs when an individual you make contact with voluntarily makes an incriminating statement

85
Q

Active duty military members will be advised of their rights according to what Article of the UCMJ?

A

Article 31

86
Q

What should you do if while questioning a witness he or she says something incriminating, or that may be incriminating, or causes suspicion?

A

Immediately stop the questioning and read them there rights

87
Q

Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

A

Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

88
Q

Which Uniform Code of Military Justice’s (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

A

Article 2

89
Q

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are?

A

Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal

90
Q

The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

A

when the government has exclusive jurisdiction.

91
Q

Under concurrent jurisdiction

A

the state has property rights only.

92
Q

Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces (SF) member?

A

Article 92

93
Q

In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on

A

opinion and belief.

94
Q

Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?

A

The legal office

95
Q

Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released

A

Supervisor, first sergeant, or commander.

96
Q

What federal agency governs our electronic communication structure and provides guidance on communication transmitted over airways and radios

A

FCC) Federal Communication Commission

97
Q

BDOC is a restricted area

A

False

98
Q

What are the FCC prohibited radio practices

A

Use of profane or obscene language. Transmission of unnecessary, extravagant, false, or deceptive signals. Does not allow for transmitting music or commercial radio signals.

99
Q

There are two ways you can communicate duress. If you press the red button on the top of your radio this is known as ?

A

Active Duress

100
Q

Who is authorized to conducts a complete (dismantling) vehicle search?

A

AFSOI

101
Q

What areas does a search incident to apprehension include?

A

The immediate area over which the apprehended/detained person exercised control over.

102
Q

Witnesses and victims at a crime scene will be given what form?

A

DD Form 2701

103
Q

What are the two types of classifications for traffic accidents?

A

Minor and Major

104
Q

How is a minor vehicle accident classified?

A

There are no fatalities/injuries (claimed or obvious) and vehicle/property damage above the amount set by your installation commander

105
Q

How is a major vehicle accident classified?

A

If it results in a fatality, injury, or vehicle/property damage above the amount set by your installation commander.

106
Q

What form is used for Authority to Search and seize?

A

AF Form 1176

107
Q

What Form number is Consent for Search and Seizure is an AF FM 1364?

A

AF Form 1364

108
Q

What form is used for an Incident Report AF FM 3545?

A

AF Form 3545

109
Q

What form is used to document personal contact information of a suspicious person or incident?

A

AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview

110
Q

What is a DD Form 1408?

A

Armed Forces Traffic Ticket

111
Q

What copy of the DD Form 1408 do you give the violator?

A

Pink

112
Q

Who is a DD Form 1805 issued too?

A

Civilians

113
Q

What is a DD Form 1920?

A

Alcohol Incident Report

114
Q

What is a DD Form 2708?

A

Receipt for pre-trial/Post-trial prisoner or detained person.

115
Q

Aircraft Plots will be conducted when

A

Within the first hour after guard mount breaks

116
Q

During an incident the Desk Sargent will utilizes established QRCs to assist with operations, in some cases there may not be an established QRC. Who should be notified or consulted for any cases not covered in a QRC

A

Flight Chief or Higher authority

117
Q

All BOLOs will be recorded in

A

DBIDs

118
Q

All personal involved in a traffic stop or a domestic disputes will have their criminal records check utilizing what systems

A

CLETS and D-DEx

119
Q

Who must always be notified of complaints involving child and spouse abuse?

A

Unit Commander responsible for the members and Family advocacy

120
Q

What are the four phases of natural disaster response?

A

Notification, initial emergency, sustained emergency, and recovery

121
Q

SF patrols may assist with vehicle lockout whenever possible?

A

False

122
Q

POV drivers may complete a minor accident report at BDOC, but must do so with-in how many hours

A

72 hours

123
Q

What form must be completed by patrols who respond to a Major Accident?

A

AF Form 1315

Security Forces QC Review (6 decks)

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