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ARRT > Patient Care part 2 > Flashcards

Patient Care part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

when assisting patients to and from a wheelchair always keep center of gravity at the _____ center

A

patients

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2
Q

_____ can be defined as the invasion and subsequent multiplication of microorganisms within the body, resulting in localized cellular injury

A

infection

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3
Q

a cycle of infection is created when a _____ (source) finds an environment in which it can grow (reservoir)

A

pathogen

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4
Q

the only way to halt infection is to _____ the chain of infection

A

halt

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5
Q

the use of _____ such as gloves, gowns, and masks, is a device to provide protection for sonographers

A

barrier devices

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6
Q

_____ are infections acquired during a stay in the hospital

A

nosocomial infections

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7
Q

hospital-acquired infections (HAI) usually are identified _____ hours after admission

A

48 to 72

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8
Q

what are the most frequent types of hospital infections?

A

urinary tract, surgical wound, pneumonia, and blood stream infections

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9
Q

_____ apply to blood, all body fluids, secretions, excretions, nonintact skin, and mucous membrane

A

standard precautions

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10
Q

hands are washed if contaminated with blood or body fluids, immediately after gloves are removed, between patient contact, and when indicated to prevent transfer of _____ between patients or between their environment

A

microorganisms

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11
Q

_____ are worn if soiling of clothes is likely from blood or body fluid, preform hand hygiene afterward

A

gowns

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12
Q

_____ linen is placed in leak proof to prevent skin and mucous membrane exposure

A

contaminated

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13
Q

CDC recommends that needles be disposed of _____ or a mechanical device be used for recapping

A

uncapped

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14
Q

nosocomial infections also contribute to the emergence and dissemination of organisms resistant to _____ drugs

A

antimicrobial

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15
Q

_____ issued a blood borne pathogens standard in 1991 to potentially infectious blood

A

OSHA

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16
Q

_____ is asked in test for TB

A

purified protein derivative (PDD) (reported annually)

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17
Q

_____ is a nosocomial infection usually develops in hospitalized patients who are elderly or extremely sick or who have an open wound such as bedsore, urinary catheters or IV’s

A

Methicillin- resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

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18
Q

_____ nosocomial infection can resemble pimples, boils, or other skin conditions, if these staphylococcus bacteria enter the blood stream, the result can be fatal

A

vancomycin-resistant staphylococcus (VRSA) and vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)

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19
Q

examples of airborne illnesses include?

A

measles and varicella

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20
Q

examples of tuberculosis droplet illnesses include?

A

influenza, pneumonia, and meningitis

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21
Q

what serious viral infections spread by droplet transmission?

A

adenovirus, flu, mumps, parvo B19, rubella

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22
Q

reports to _____ of needle stick injuries are required and the health care agency must provide medical evaluation and follow up

A

OSHA

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23
Q

_____ vaccination is to be made available to all employees who have occupational exposure

A

hepatitis B

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24
Q

medical asepsis can be practiced in 2 ways:

A

1) general medical asepsis- prevent the spread of all germs 2) isolation precautions- confine disease producing germs

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25
Q

with isolation patients, use a paper towel to turn faucets on or off, discard gloves and gowns and masks used _____ leaving the area, change mask if it becomes moist, use _____ transducer covers and scanning agents

A

before; sterile

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26
Q

put on the mask _____ the gown

A

before

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27
Q

_____ isolation is designed to protect others from patients germs, before entering the room you must leave gowns, gloves, and masks on

A

strict

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28
Q

_____ isolation is used to protect others from germs in patients nose, mouth, throat, and lungs, used for droplet disease must wear mask

A

respiratory

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29
Q

____ precautions are used to prevent infections transmitted by direct or indirect contact with feces

A

enteric- dont use alcohol gel for hand washing, must wash with soap and water for C defficile

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30
Q

_____ isolation precautions are used to protect patients with neutropenia, on anti-cancer chemo, steriod-therapy, and/or severely immuno compromised patients, use gown, mask and gloves

A

reverse

31
Q

an obstructed airway can cause anoxia, which can lead to brain damage and death within _____ minutes

A

4 to 6

32
Q

for infants younger than _____ years old the procedure is limited to rescue back blows and chest thrusts

A

1

33
Q

do not do the heimlich maneuver on a unconscious patient instead use _____

A

CPR and rescue breathing

34
Q

_____ emphasizes chest compressions and eliminates the need for mouth to mouth breathing (delivered at a rate of 100/min)

A

continuous chest compression CPR (CCC-CPR)

35
Q

standard CPR techniques call for preforming _____ chest compressions followed by _____ mouth-to-mouth breaths

A

15; 2- first always call for help (CAB- compression, airway, breathing )

36
Q

what are the complications of CPR?

A

gastric distention, fractured ribs, lacerated liver, and punctured lungs

37
Q

when a persons heart stops beating oxygen supply stops so you only have _____ minutes to give CCC-CPR

A

4- this method only keeps the person alive until more advanced measures are administered

38
Q

with CCC-CPR push down with enough pressure to depress the sternum about _____ inches, with the heel of your palm

A

1 1/2 to 2 inches; infants only 1 1/2 inches

39
Q

_____ still is recommended for children and anyone whose cardiac arrest likely is due to oxygen deprivation

A

rescue breathing

40
Q

in case of _____ breathing stops, but the heart still pumps blood for several minutes

A

respiratory arrest- the problem is lack of oxygen (suffocation)

41
Q

with respiratory CPR give _____ 1-sec breaths as you watch for the chest to rise, continue compressions and breaths _____ compressions, _____ breaths until help arrives

A

2; 30 compressions; 2 breaths

42
Q

do not preform CPR unless what conditions?

A

breathing stops, no signs of circulation (breathing), no one with more CPR training is around

43
Q

the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest is _____ a disturbance in the heart rhythm

A

ventricular fibrillation (VF)- cuts off crucial blood supply

44
Q

with _____ it 1) assesses the patients heart rhythm 2) judges whether defibrillation is necessary and 3)administers the shock

A

automated external defibrillators (AED)

45
Q

a _____ is a tendency to interpret words or actions according to some culturally derived meaning assigned to it

A

cultural bias

46
Q

_____ plane of scanning is a right angle to sagittal (vertical plane), divides the body into anterior and posterior portions

A

coronal

47
Q

_____ codes are a system of numbers developed by the american medical association for standardizing tasks and services that a medical practitioner provides to a patient

A

current procedural terminology (CPT)

48
Q

what are the basic needs of human servivial?

A

physical needs, safety and security, love and belonging, self-estee,m and self actualization

49
Q

_____ communications consists of eye contact, facial expressions, body language, gestures, posture, tone of voice, and touch

A

nonverbal

50
Q

anything that interferes with the communication process constitutes a _____

A

barrier

51
Q

use a _____ tone of voice with people who are hearing impaired

A

lower

52
Q

with mental patients speak in their _____ age

A

mental

53
Q

the _____ involves 3 people who agree to work together to promote understanding through communication

A

communication triad- effective to review information endure understanding, and explain a decision

54
Q

what are the stages of grief?

A

1)denial and isolation 2)anger 3)bargaining 4)depression 5)acceptance

55
Q

_____ refers to an instruction method in which students at various performance levels work together in small groups toward a common goal

A

collaborative learning

56
Q

the _____ regulates ultrasound instruments according to application, output intensities, and thermal and mechanical indexes

A

FDA

57
Q

the _____ recommends prudent use of US in the clinical environment by minimizing exposure time and output power

A

AIUM

58
Q

no confirmed signifiant biological effects in tissue for exposures below _____ with an unfocused transducer (higher risk) and _____ with a focused transducer

A

100 mW/cm2; 1 W/cm2

59
Q

exposure duration up to _____ hours has no demonstrated significant bioeffects

A

50

60
Q

_____ results of pressure changes in soft tissue causing formation of gas bubbles

A

cavitation

61
Q

cavitations highest rate is in tissues with _____?

A

collagen

62
Q

_____ cavitation involves microbubbles expanded and collapse, can absorb large amounts of energy

A

stable

63
Q

_____ cavitation depends on the pressure of the US pulse, bubbles expand and collapse violently

A

transient

64
Q

pulses with peaks greater than _____ can induce cavitation

A

3300 W/cm2 (10MPa)

65
Q

_____ indicates cavitation, its equal to the peak rarefaction pressure divided by the square root of the operating frequency

A

mechanical index- dependent on thresholds

66
Q

values _____ indicates a low risk of adverse effects or cavitations (in MI)

A

less than 1

67
Q

_____ is a ratio of acoustic power produced by the transducer and the power required to raise tissue temp 1 degrees C

A

thermal index (SPTA) continuous wave is higher

68
Q

value _____ indicates a low risk of adverse effects (in TI)

A

less than 2

69
Q

arise in temperature exceeding _____ is significant in TI

A

2 degess C

70
Q

above _____ biological effects are determined by the temp and exposure

A

41 degrees C

71
Q

TI for cranium exposure must not exceed _____ continuous minutes to avoid thermal damage to the brain surface

A

33 (transcranial Doppler (TCD) demonstrates rapid rise in temp)

72
Q

TI for bone- increases with _____; absorption is higher than soft tissue

A

focal diameter

73
Q

TI for Soft tissue - increases with and increase in _____

A

frequency

ARRT (9 decks)

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