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Patient Care part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

when assisting patients to and from a wheelchair always keep center of gravity at the _____ center

A

patients

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2
Q

_____ can be defined as the invasion and subsequent multiplication of microorganisms within the body, resulting in localized cellular injury

A

infection

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3
Q

a cycle of infection is created when a _____ (source) finds an environment in which it can grow (reservoir)

A

pathogen

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4
Q

the only way to halt infection is to _____ the chain of infection

A

halt

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5
Q

the use of _____ such as gloves, gowns, and masks, is a device to provide protection for sonographers

A

barrier devices

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6
Q

_____ are infections acquired during a stay in the hospital

A

nosocomial infections

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7
Q

hospital-acquired infections (HAI) usually are identified _____ hours after admission

A

48 to 72

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8
Q

what are the most frequent types of hospital infections?

A

urinary tract, surgical wound, pneumonia, and blood stream infections

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9
Q

_____ apply to blood, all body fluids, secretions, excretions, nonintact skin, and mucous membrane

A

standard precautions

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10
Q

hands are washed if contaminated with blood or body fluids, immediately after gloves are removed, between patient contact, and when indicated to prevent transfer of _____ between patients or between their environment

A

microorganisms

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11
Q

_____ are worn if soiling of clothes is likely from blood or body fluid, preform hand hygiene afterward

A

gowns

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12
Q

_____ linen is placed in leak proof to prevent skin and mucous membrane exposure

A

contaminated

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13
Q

CDC recommends that needles be disposed of _____ or a mechanical device be used for recapping

A

uncapped

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14
Q

nosocomial infections also contribute to the emergence and dissemination of organisms resistant to _____ drugs

A

antimicrobial

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15
Q

_____ issued a blood borne pathogens standard in 1991 to potentially infectious blood

A

OSHA

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16
Q

_____ is asked in test for TB

A

purified protein derivative (PDD) (reported annually)

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17
Q

_____ is a nosocomial infection usually develops in hospitalized patients who are elderly or extremely sick or who have an open wound such as bedsore, urinary catheters or IV’s

A

Methicillin- resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

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18
Q

_____ nosocomial infection can resemble pimples, boils, or other skin conditions, if these staphylococcus bacteria enter the blood stream, the result can be fatal

A

vancomycin-resistant staphylococcus (VRSA) and vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)

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19
Q

examples of airborne illnesses include?

A

measles and varicella

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20
Q

examples of tuberculosis droplet illnesses include?

A

influenza, pneumonia, and meningitis

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21
Q

what serious viral infections spread by droplet transmission?

A

adenovirus, flu, mumps, parvo B19, rubella

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22
Q

reports to _____ of needle stick injuries are required and the health care agency must provide medical evaluation and follow up

A

OSHA

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23
Q

_____ vaccination is to be made available to all employees who have occupational exposure

A

hepatitis B

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24
Q

medical asepsis can be practiced in 2 ways:

A

1) general medical asepsis- prevent the spread of all germs 2) isolation precautions- confine disease producing germs

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25
with isolation patients, use a paper towel to turn faucets on or off, discard gloves and gowns and masks used _____ leaving the area, change mask if it becomes moist, use _____ transducer covers and scanning agents
before; sterile
26
put on the mask _____ the gown
before
27
_____ isolation is designed to protect others from patients germs, before entering the room you must leave gowns, gloves, and masks on
strict
28
_____ isolation is used to protect others from germs in patients nose, mouth, throat, and lungs, used for droplet disease must wear mask
respiratory
29
____ precautions are used to prevent infections transmitted by direct or indirect contact with feces
enteric- dont use alcohol gel for hand washing, must wash with soap and water for C defficile
30
_____ isolation precautions are used to protect patients with neutropenia, on anti-cancer chemo, steriod-therapy, and/or severely immuno compromised patients, use gown, mask and gloves
reverse
31
an obstructed airway can cause anoxia, which can lead to brain damage and death within _____ minutes
4 to 6
32
for infants younger than _____ years old the procedure is limited to rescue back blows and chest thrusts
1
33
do not do the heimlich maneuver on a unconscious patient instead use _____
CPR and rescue breathing
34
_____ emphasizes chest compressions and eliminates the need for mouth to mouth breathing (delivered at a rate of 100/min)
continuous chest compression CPR (CCC-CPR)
35
standard CPR techniques call for preforming _____ chest compressions followed by _____ mouth-to-mouth breaths
15; 2- first always call for help (CAB- compression, airway, breathing )
36
what are the complications of CPR?
gastric distention, fractured ribs, lacerated liver, and punctured lungs
37
when a persons heart stops beating oxygen supply stops so you only have _____ minutes to give CCC-CPR
4- this method only keeps the person alive until more advanced measures are administered
38
with CCC-CPR push down with enough pressure to depress the sternum about _____ inches, with the heel of your palm
1 1/2 to 2 inches; infants only 1 1/2 inches
39
_____ still is recommended for children and anyone whose cardiac arrest likely is due to oxygen deprivation
rescue breathing
40
in case of _____ breathing stops, but the heart still pumps blood for several minutes
respiratory arrest- the problem is lack of oxygen (suffocation)
41
with respiratory CPR give _____ 1-sec breaths as you watch for the chest to rise, continue compressions and breaths _____ compressions, _____ breaths until help arrives
2; 30 compressions; 2 breaths
42
do not preform CPR unless what conditions?
breathing stops, no signs of circulation (breathing), no one with more CPR training is around
43
the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest is _____ a disturbance in the heart rhythm
ventricular fibrillation (VF)- cuts off crucial blood supply
44
with _____ it 1) assesses the patients heart rhythm 2) judges whether defibrillation is necessary and 3)administers the shock
automated external defibrillators (AED)
45
a _____ is a tendency to interpret words or actions according to some culturally derived meaning assigned to it
cultural bias
46
_____ plane of scanning is a right angle to sagittal (vertical plane), divides the body into anterior and posterior portions
coronal
47
_____ codes are a system of numbers developed by the american medical association for standardizing tasks and services that a medical practitioner provides to a patient
current procedural terminology (CPT)
48
what are the basic needs of human servivial?
physical needs, safety and security, love and belonging, self-estee,m and self actualization
49
_____ communications consists of eye contact, facial expressions, body language, gestures, posture, tone of voice, and touch
nonverbal
50
anything that interferes with the communication process constitutes a _____
barrier
51
use a _____ tone of voice with people who are hearing impaired
lower
52
with mental patients speak in their _____ age
mental
53
the _____ involves 3 people who agree to work together to promote understanding through communication
communication triad- effective to review information endure understanding, and explain a decision
54
what are the stages of grief?
1)denial and isolation 2)anger 3)bargaining 4)depression 5)acceptance
55
_____ refers to an instruction method in which students at various performance levels work together in small groups toward a common goal
collaborative learning
56
the _____ regulates ultrasound instruments according to application, output intensities, and thermal and mechanical indexes
FDA
57
the _____ recommends prudent use of US in the clinical environment by minimizing exposure time and output power
AIUM
58
no confirmed signifiant biological effects in tissue for exposures below _____ with an unfocused transducer (higher risk) and _____ with a focused transducer
100 mW/cm2; 1 W/cm2
59
exposure duration up to _____ hours has no demonstrated significant bioeffects
50
60
_____ results of pressure changes in soft tissue causing formation of gas bubbles
cavitation
61
cavitations highest rate is in tissues with _____?
collagen
62
_____ cavitation involves microbubbles expanded and collapse, can absorb large amounts of energy
stable
63
_____ cavitation depends on the pressure of the US pulse, bubbles expand and collapse violently
transient
64
pulses with peaks greater than _____ can induce cavitation
3300 W/cm2 (10MPa)
65
_____ indicates cavitation, its equal to the peak rarefaction pressure divided by the square root of the operating frequency
mechanical index- dependent on thresholds
66
values _____ indicates a low risk of adverse effects or cavitations (in MI)
less than 1
67
_____ is a ratio of acoustic power produced by the transducer and the power required to raise tissue temp 1 degrees C
thermal index (SPTA) continuous wave is higher
68
value _____ indicates a low risk of adverse effects (in TI)
less than 2
69
arise in temperature exceeding _____ is significant in TI
2 degess C
70
above _____ biological effects are determined by the temp and exposure
41 degrees C
71
TI for cranium exposure must not exceed _____ continuous minutes to avoid thermal damage to the brain surface
33 (transcranial Doppler (TCD) demonstrates rapid rise in temp)
72
TI for bone- increases with _____; absorption is higher than soft tissue
focal diameter
73
TI for Soft tissue - increases with and increase in _____
frequency

ARRT (9 decks)

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