Patient Care Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following terms describes the complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms?
A
sterilization
2
Q
The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is:
A
handwashing
3
Q
The ability of an infectious agent to cause clinical disease is:
A
pathogenicity
4
Q
Which of the following describes sources of nosocomial infections?
a) carpet in a radiation oncology department
b) fresh or dried flowers
c) pen used to apply marks used on all patients
d) b and c
e) all of the above
A
e
5
Q
Which of the following chemical methods of asepsis is applied topically?
A
antiseptic
NOT disinfectant
6
Q
All of the following statements describe the use of standard precautions except:
a) Never recapping used needles.
b) Wear gloves when touching blood and body fluids.
c) No hand washing necessary if using gloves.
d) Use mouthpieces when performing CPR.
A
No hand washing necessary if using gloves.
7
Q
Recommended vaccines for health care workers include all except:
A
a) hepatitis B
b) varicella
c) MMR
d) annual influenza
e) All of the above vaccines are recommended.
8
Q
The agency that mandates the minimum level of respiratory protection in caring for those with tuberculosis is:
A
OSHA
9
Q
Contact spread can be:
A
both direct or indirect
10
Q
Gloves should be worn:
A
when blood and body fluids are present
11
Q
The term used to indicate the number of antibodies present in a blood sample is:
A
titers
12
Q
The study of the distribution and determinants of diseases and injuries in human population is:
A
epidemiology
13
Q
Infection cycle includes all except:
incubation
convalescence
natural immunity
transmission
A
natural immunity
14
Q
A person who is colonized but not ill is known as the:
A
carrier
15
Q
Five transmission routes that carry disease are:
A
airborne, vector-borne, contact, droplet, common vehicle
16
Q
The most reliable, available, and economical method of destroying microorganisms is
A
The use of heat, moist or dry, is the most reliable, available, and economical method of destroying microorganisms.
17
Q
Select the organ most commonly used by the body to excrete drugs and their byproducts.
kidneys
lungs
sweat glands
all of the above
A
kidneys
18
Q
Select the most serious allergic reaction to a drug.
A
cardiac or respiratory arrest
19
Q
What is the first duty of a therapist if a patient has an adverse reaction to a drug?
A
Call a code.
20
Q
In which part of the body is barium sulfate is used as a contrast agent?
A
gastrointestinal tract
Barium sulfate may be administered orally or rectally to visualize the gastrointestinal tract.
21
Q
Select the type of medication administration that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
A
parenteral administration
Parenteral administration of medication is introduced into the body without being absorbed into the gastrointestinal tract. It typically means “by injection.”
22
Q
The process whereby an organization seeks recognition from its peer groups through demonstrated compliance with developed standards is termed:
A
accreditation.
23
Q
Professional certification of medical imaging practitioners, such as radiation therapists, is offered by the American:
A
Registry of Radiologic Technologists.
24
Q
Accredited programs in radiologic technology are recognized by the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT). Programs seeking this recognition necessarily must comply with the JRCERT:
A
Standards or Essentials.
25
Which of the following would not reflect a human diversity characteristic?
a)Occupation
b) Handicap
c) Gender
d) Race
occupation
26
The collection of vital signs data is quick and noninvasive. The usual vital signs measured include:
temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.
27
Adequate breathing consists of:
10 to 12 breaths per minute.
28
All of the following are related EXCEPT:
1. inguinal
2. oral
3. rectal
4. tympanic
inguinal
29
A patient who has a rectal temperature of 99.6° F is:
normal
30
The term bradypnea is used to describe:
a decrease in respiratory rate.
31
The levels of blood pressures that are read on a sphygmomanometer are:
systolic over diastolic.
32
The objective of oxygen therapy is to:
increase the O2 concentration going to the patient.
33
When "high-flow" oxygen therapy is given, the _____ method is employed.
facial mask
34
The flow rate of oxygen therapy is given in:
liters per minute.
35
The most accurate way to determine body temperature is:
with a rectal thermometer.
36
To measure blood pressures, you will need a:
stethoscope and sphygmomanometer.
37
In a patient condition of hypoxia:
heart rate decreases owing to low oxygen saturation values.
38
Thoracostomy tubes are used to:
reestablish negative intrapleural pressure.
39
A patient is thought to have had a cardiac arrest. The patient's pulse should be checked at the _____ artery.
carotid
40
Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by:
a vector.
41
Streptococci and bacilli are classified as what type of microorganisms?
Bacteria
42
The process of establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host is referred to as:
infection.
43
Any microorganism that causes disease is:
pathogenic.
44
A disease spread by kissing is being transmitted by which of the following methods?
Direct contact
45
Which of the following is the most effective method for achieving medical asepsis?
Frequent hand washing
46
When a disease is spread by an insect depositing the pathogen on or in a human, it is transmitted by what method?
Vector
47
By what method are pathogens spread when a person coughs or sneezes?
Droplet
48
Which of the following is not a method of sterilization?
1. moist heat
2. hand washing
3. autoclaving
4. steam under pressure
Hand washing
49
The spread of infection via contaminated food referenced is spread by:
fomite
50
A nosocomial infection is an:
infection acquired in a hospital.
51
The chain of infection consists of:
host, infectious microbe, mode of transmission, reservoir.
52
A few days after a stereotactic breast biopsy performed by a radiologist in a breast imaging center the patient returns to her physician with an obvious infection at the incision site. This would be an example of a(n):
iatrogenic infection.
53
Two blood-borne pathogens of particular importance to hospital personnel are:
HBV and HIV.
54
In a hospital setting, constant awareness is given to the simple fact that patients come to the hospital because they are sick and vulnerable to disease. With the current system of medical care, by the time patients come to the hospital setting for care, they are sicker than ever in the past. The most common nosocomial infection seen in hospital patients is:
urinary tract infections from Foley catheter insertions.
55
The single greatest measure that can be done to prevent the spread of infection is:
proper hand-washing technique.
56
A pathogen that requires contact precautions is:
MRSA
57
A person who acts as a reservoir of pathogenic organisms is referred to as a carrier. An example of a carrier is a:
friend who appears to be healthy and shows no signs of sickness.
58
The goal of aseptic technique is to:
protect the patient from pathogenic microbes.
59
You are about to assist with a sterile procedure. In scrubbing for the procedure it is important to:
scrub the fingers completely, as well as the front and back of your hands, for 3 minutes.
60
When gowning and gloving for a sterile procedure, it is important to remember that:
after gowning, the front of the gown down to the waist and the sleeves are considered sterile.
61
When gowning another person:
a nonsterile circulating person pulls the gown up and fastens the back and waistband.
62
When performing dressing changes, it is important to remember that:
1. working with a team member is benifiical.
2. dressing changes must be performed after a physician orders the procedure.
3. if the wound is purulent, gowns are recommended.
4. all of the above are true.
all of the above are true
63
Two people in sterile attire should pass each other in which of the following ways?
Back to back
64
When performing radiotherapy procedures on patients with chest tubes which location should the equipment be located?
the exterior chamber of the assembly must remain lower than the patient's chest level.
65
When handling a patient with a Foley catheter in place:
avoid kinks in the tubing and keep the drainage bag lower than the bladder.
66
Nasogastric (NG) tubes are inserted through the patient's _____ with the end of the tube placed in the _____.
nasopharynx; stomach
67
When working with a nonambulatory male patient who needs to void:
1. ask the patient how much assistance he feels he needs, and allow him to use a urinal.
2. after the patient has voided, record the volume of urine in the patient's chart if documentation is required.
3. dispose of the urine in the toilet and rinse the urinal with cold water.
4. do all of the above
4
68
As you begin to perform a hip examination on an elderly female patient who has undergone hip surgery, the patient states that she "needs to go to the bathroom." Which of the following should be done?
1. Use a standard bedpan.
2. Provide for the patient's privacy and locate a fracture bedpan.
3. Be sure to wear gloves and wash your hands.
4. If the bedpan is metallic, run it under warm water for patient comfort and throw it away after each use.
5. You and an assistant should assist the patient with movement onto the bedpan.
6. Return the patient to the nursing floor for cleanup and patient hygiene.
2, 3, and 5 only
69
In order to allow tissue healing from a partial colon resection:
an external stoma is created to allow for defecation.
70
The most common legal claim against health care providers is:
negligence
71
Which of the following is FALSE regarding obtained consent?
The consent form may be obtained after the procedure.
72
When negligence occurs to a patient, who is responsible for proving injury?
Patient
73
What type of complaint can be filed by patients if they feel they have been touched without permission?
Battery
74
Which of the following is an example of unintentional misconduct?
treating the wrong part
75
Which of the following is not a legal right of a patient in the radiology department?
To ask for and receive extra studies
76
A civil wrong that involves individual property rights is called:
a tort.
77
Restraining a patient without reason may constitute:
false imprisonment.
78
A process by which patients can agree to be treated or refuse to be treated based on information provided by the radiation therapist about specific treatment is called _____ consent.
informed
79
Threatening a patient is the legal definition of:
assault
80
The term res ipsa loquitur means the:
thing speaks for itself.
81
The doctrine of respondeat superior states that the:
employer is responsible for employees' actions.
82
At a recent professional meeting of radiation therapists, an attendee stands up at a business meeting and states that the chairperson uses excessive radiation and violates ALARA daily. The person making these statements would be committing an act of:
defamation.
83
In a legal proceeding, the actions of a radiation therapist will be judged with regard to his or her compliance with the:
Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy.
84
As you perform a CT simulation on an anxious patient, she asks you to stop the examination as she is getting anxious. Your responsibility as a professional is to:
stop the examination at her request and call the physician.
85
It is the duty of any health care practitioner, including medical imaging personnel, to:
safeguard patient rights and autonomy.
86
Written defamation of a person is termed:
libel.
87
Defamation of a character by speaking poorly of an individual is:
slander.
88
All of the following are necessary for a legitimate case of malpractice EXCEPT:
rumor and innuendo that the professional performed in such a manner as to create cause for damages.
89
As a radiation therapist positions an elderly patient for a treatment, the patient is asked to stand up from the wheelchair. As he does so, the wheelchair moves out from under him and he falls to the floor, dislocating his shoulder. As the therapist attempts to break his fall, a co-worker notes that the wheel locks on the chair were left unlocked. In this situation:
a breach of duty has occurred.
90
As you position an adult patient for a skull examination, you begin to position a static wedge. While you are doing so, the wedge falls and hits the patient in the throat. Apologies are given and nursing care is administered to the patient to take care of the throat trauma. Eventually, the patient's voice changes and he contends that the accident led to his throat damage. In the court proceedings, his attorney claims negligence and uses the principle of:
res ipsa loquitur.
91
Acceptable informed consent:
must be witnessed by someone not involved in the procedure.
92
A technologist who has completed a procedure on a patient leaves the area grumbling, "I hate to do AIDS patients because I am afraid of catching the disease." A member of the housekeeping staff hears the technologist and asks who the AIDS patient is, so he can pass the information along to his co-workers for safety reasons. The technologist responds by giving the patient's name and room number. After the incident, housekeeping personnel refuse to clean the room. One person from housekeeping tells the story to members of the housekeeper's church, where the patient is also a church member. After learning of the patient's condition, the church asks the patient not to return to church. What type of complaint might be brought against the technologist?
Defamation
93
The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitur intends to shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant (technologist). It implies that the patient was injured through no fault of his or her own while in the complete control of another. An example of this would be a:
patient's skin being torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed.
94
What is the study of ethical issues in medicine?
bioethics
95
Which of the following is not a sanctionable offence by the ARRT?
failure to participate in professional activities, share knowledge with colleagues, and investigate new aspects of professional practice.
96
Who is most closely associated with the stages of grief?
Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
97
What occurs when the obvious solution to a problem is prohibited by institutional constraints?
ethical distress
98
Which of the following is not a recognized exception to patient confidentiality?
genetic disease
99
What legal document allows the competent adult to provide direction the health care providers regarding their choices under certain circumstances, should the individual no longer be able to make those decisions?
Living will
## Footnote
The living will is a legal document created by the patient while competent that outlines what actions should or should not be taken under certain circumstances if he/she is not competent at the time the decision needs to be made. Typically, these decisions are related to the use of artificial life-sustaining measures, such as ventilators and feeding tubes.
100
What legal document designates an individual as decision maker for a patient who is no longer capable of making decisions?
durable power of attorney
## Footnote
Generally speaking, the durable power of attorney for health care is a designee of the patient who accepts or refuses treatment on the patient's behalf.
101
Which law is best described as personal injury law?
tort law
## Footnote
A tort is considered a wrongful act against a person or a person's property. Tort law is also known as personal injury law.
102
A civil lawsuit is punishable by:
loss of property
## Footnote
Violations of civil law, also known as torts or breach of contract, are punishable by loss of property only.
103
Which doctrine contends that individuals are responsible for their own negligent conduct?
doctrine of personal liability
## Footnote
Personal accountability is a fundamental rule of law and states that each person is responsible for his/her own negligent actions.
104
A company taking responsiblity for the actions of one of its employees is an example of which doctrine?
doctrine of respondeat superior
105
Risk management programs may include all of the following except:
malpractice insurance
106
According to the radiation therapist's Practice Standards, a radiation therapist should meet certain levels of ___________________.
1. clinical performance
2. quality performance
3. professional performance
4. all of the above
4
107
Cultural assessment looks at factors including one's:
customs, values, beliefs
108
Marasmus is:
calorie malnutrition
109
__________ pain is the persistence of pain for longer than 3 months with a less well-defined onset. Its cause may not be known.
Chronic
## Footnote
Chronic pain is the persistence of pain for longer than 3 months with a less well-defined onset. Its cause may not be known.
110
_________ is defined as identifying with the feelings, thoughts, or experiences of another person.
Empathy
111
All these sociocultural factors influence pain except:
1. age
2. hair and eye color
3. spirituality
4. gender
hair and eye color
112
Skin reactions include all except:
alopecia
113
Assessment of the patient allows health care providers to do all except:
Find a cure for their disease.
114
A subjective indication of a disease or a change in condition as perceived by the patient is a ________.
symptom
115
Making a fist and pounding gently onto the posterior abdomen, over a kidney area, is an example of which of the following physician's exam?
percussion
116
A drug used to relieve symptoms of nausea and vomiting due to irradiation is a(n):
antiemetic
117
When transferring a patient with an intravenous catheter in place, it is important to keep the bottle of fluid above the infusion to:
prevent backflow of blood to tubing
118
Intervention for radiation-related esophagitis includes all of these except:
drinking wine
119
A normal white blood count is:
3,900 to 10,800/cc3
120
The diastolic norm would be within a range of:
60 to 80 mm Hg
121
All of the following adult blood pressure recordings would be considered normal except:
160/95
122
The average adult respiratory rate is:
12 to 20
123
The normal pulse rate for an adult is between?
60 and 100 beats per minutes
124
The collection of vital signs data is quick and noninvasive. The usual vital signs measured include:
temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.
125
The most accurate way to determine body temperature is:
with a rectal thermometer.
126
The patient receiving radiation therapy to oral cavity should be instructed in which of the following regimens for oral hygiene?
frequent, gentle cleansing of the mouth
## Footnote
b. Due to oral lesions and bleeding gums, oral hygiene must be frequent and gentle.
a. Vigorous oral hygiene may damage tissues with oral lesions and bleeding gums.
c. Flossing and frequent brushing may damage tissues with oral lesions and bleeding gums.
d. Acidic foods and juices may damage tissues with oral lesions and bleeding gums.
127
When infection is present, there is a temporary increase in the number of:
Leukocytes
128
The patient decribes her chest pain as "it feels like someone is standing on my chest." This information is considered
subjective data
129
A deficiency in the number of circulating red blood cells is called:
anemia
130
Patients recieving radiation for which of the following cancers are most likely to experience myelosuppression?
lymphoma
131
Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of infectionin patients with cancer who are neutropenic?
fever
## Footnote
Neutropenia is a blood disorder which is charac terize with an abnormally low number of neutro phils. Neutrophils serve as the primary defense against infection
132
The normal platelet count is approximately:
250,000/cc
133
Which of the following are included in the "six rights" of drug safety?
I. Identify the right patient
II. Identify the right medication and right dose
III. Identify the right time
IV. Identify the route
## Footnote
In addition to the five rights, there is also a requirement that the delivery of the medication be documented in the patient's chart.
I, II, III, and IV
134
Antineoplastic drugs are most likely to be toxic to which of the following?
most rapidly dividing healthy tissues
## Footnote
The gastrointestinal epithelium, oral mucosa, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue, and gonads are often the first to be affected by antineoplastic drugs.
a. Older cells are less sensitive to toxins.
b. Cell size does not affect susceptibility to toxic effects.
d. All human cells have cell walls.
135
An alternative treatment to MOPP is
ABVD
136
A commonly used breast cancer chemotherapy regimen is
CAF
137
Which classification of chemotherapy agents was the first to be identified as having anticancer activities?
alkylating agents
138
Which classification of chemotherapy agents are lipid soluble and capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier?
nitrosoureas
## Footnote
Nitrosoureas are the only classification of chemotherapy agents that are both lipid soluble and capable of passing through the blood-brain barrier.
139
What is the major side effect of Adriamycin?
heart problems
140
Which artery do you check for the pulse of a child in CPR?
brachial
141
The term incontinence means
the inability to control bladder or bowel function
142
What legal document allows the prohibition of medical personnel to perform cardiopulmonary resucitation?
DNR
143
Which of the following types of shock is caused by sepsis, deep anasthesia or anaphylaxis?
vasogenic
144
Which form of hospital isolation is designed to protect immunosuppressed patients from infection?
reverse
145
Which form of hospital isolation is designed to prevent spread of infection through air?
respiratory
146
Which artery do you check for the pulse of an infant in CPR?
brachial
147
Antineoplastic drugs are most likely to be toxic to which of the following?
Most rapidly dividing healthy tissues
148
Alkylating agents are a type of "genotoxic" drug because of which of the following actions?
Damage to the DNA structure leading to cell death
149
During treatment with doxorubicin (Adriamycin), the patient should be monitored for which of the following because of the possibility of serious side effects?
Electrocardiogram changes
150
A diet that would be recommended for a patient undergoing chemotherapy would include which of the following?
High-protein, low-saturated fat foods
151
Which of the following may help the chemotherapy patient cope with the nausea and vomiting that often accompany intravenous infusion treatment?
Sedation and/or antiemetic medication before treatment
152
A malignancy arising from epithelial cells is known as:
Carcinoma
153
Which of the following is the drug used to immunize young adults against the causative agent of cervical cancer?
Human papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil)
154
With respect to tolerance of opioid agents, the terminally ill patient in pain has which of the following?
Increased ability to tolerate the sedative effects of the medication
155
Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed:
regeneration
156
The cardinal signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. nausea
2. swelling
3. pain
4. redness
5. loss of function
1
157
Neutrophils:
are phagocytic cells
158
Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?
a severe, systemic allergic reaction
159
Why is anaphylaxis considered a critical situation?
Bronchoconstriction and systemic vasodilation develop rapidly.
160
HIV is transmitted by:
blood, semen, and vaginal secretions from an infected person
161
Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system
162
The term nosocomial infection means:
acquired in a hospital or medical facility
163
Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
sexual intercourse
164
What does the term carrier mean?
an asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others
165
The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
166
Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
1. reduce the adverse effects
2. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed
3. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle
4. totally block the mitotic stage
1, 3
167
Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:
reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells
168
The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means:
the patient is at high risk for infection
169
Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
bone marrow depression
170
Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:
inflammation around the tumor may be reduced
171
Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:
a, b
172
Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and particularly useful in treating:
pain caused by inflammation
173
What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells?
pancytopenia
174
Which of the following radiation-related side effects is most likely to occur in patients receieving treatment to the head and neck region?
mucositis
175
Which of the following radiation-related side effects is most likely to occur in patients receieving treatment to the thorax?
esophagitis
176
Which acute radiation-related side effect is expected to occur at doses of 10 to 30 gray (Gy)?
nausea
177
All of the following are late side effects of chemotherapy and radiation except:
1. nausea
2. cardiomyopathy
3. secondary cancers
4. bowel obstruction
nausea.
178
The medical term for a temporary suspension of consciousness is:
syncope.
179
What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs?
Cardiogenic
180
When caring for a patient with epistaxis, the patient:
should lean forward and pinch his/her nostrils against the midline septum for 10-15 minutes.
181
When performing two-person CPR:
1. compressions are at rate of 100 per minute..
2. compressions are paused briefly to give two ventilations..
3. the rescuers can smoothly switch positions as they choose..
4.All of the above are correct.
4
182
CPR performed on an infant:
is basically the same as on an adult but adjusted based on patient size.
183
When using an automatic external defibrillator (AED):
two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs.
184
A disorganized cardiac rhythm in which the ventricle "flutters" and loses cardiac output is called:
fibrillation.
185
Which of the following is not an acceptable patient idendifier?
Setup photo
186
Drugs in this category are used to treat infections like yeast or thrush:
Antifungals
187
Which three (3) of the following populations are most likely to acquire nosocomial infections? (select three)
1. patients in healthcare facilities
2. hospital employees
3. visitors in healthcare facilities
4. school nurses
5. fire and rescue
1, 2, 3
188
Which of the following are potential symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to a drug? (select all that apply)
1. shortness of breath
2. diarrhea
3. nausea and vomiting
4. uriticaria
1, 3
## Footnote
In addition to all of the symptoms listed, a patient may experience Symptoms of vascular shock and or symptoms of an airway obstruction.
189
Which three (3) of the following chemotherapy drugs are not cell cycle specific? (select 3)
1. vinca alkaloids
2. hormonal agents
3. antibiotics
4. alkylating agents
5. antimetabolites
6. nitrosoureas
antibiotics
alkylating agebts
nitrosoureas
## Footnote
Alkylating agents are not cell cycle specific. Neither are anticancer antibiotics (although they are more effective during certain phases) nor nitrosoureas.
190
Which of the following are types of antineoplastic drugs? Select all that apply.
1. Anxiolytic agents
2. Anticoagulant agents
3. Alkylating agents
4. Antiemetic agents
5. Antimetabolite agents
6. Antihelmintic agents
Alkylating agents
Antimetabolite agents
191
All of the following are reasons for monitoring the patient EXCEPT:
Record keeping
192
Man's first and foremost need is:
nourishment and water.
193
All of the following are forms of subjective patient data EXCEPT:
blood pressure and temperature.
194
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, few people completely satisfy the need for:
self-fulfillment and self-actualization.
195
When lifting patients it is important to:
keep your back stationary and lift with your legs.
196
The collection of vital signs data is quick and noninvasive. The usual vital signs measured include:
temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.
197
Two blood-borne pathogens of particular importance to hospital personnel are:
hepatitis B virus (HBV) and HIV.
198
Objective data regarding a patient's history:
consist of a patient's vital signs.
199
When asking about a patient's pain, it is effective to:
ask the patient to point to or touch the area that hurts, and record that area on the requisition.
200
Moist desquamation occurs at _________ cGy.
4,000 to 6,000
201
Which of the following terms describes the complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms?
Sterilization
## Footnote
Sterilization is a process that destroys all microbial life forms, including resistant spores.
202
Hepatitis B is a virus transmitted mainly through which of the following?
Contact with blood and body fluids
203
Following an accidental needle stick where exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is possible, which of the following is the most appropriate first response?
Decontaminate by using soap and water.
204
When should Standard Precautions be used?
During all patient care procedures
205
Select the most serious allergic reaction to a drug.
Cardiac or respiratory arrest
## Footnote
The most severe reaction may result in a patient's death and requires immediate intensive treatment.
206
What is the first duty of a therapist if a patient has an adverse reaction to a drug?
Call a code.
## Footnote
A therapist should follow the health care facility's emergency code procedure immediately.
207
Select the drugs that may be prescribed to relieve anxiety.
I. Ativan
II. Valium
III. Librium
IV. Prozac
I, II, and III
208
What type of medication administration bypasses the gastrointestinal tract?
Parenteral administration
209
Intrathecal administration means that medications are injected directly into which of the following?
Spinal canal
210
Radiolucent contrast agents are those that ______________________.
appear dark on x-ray
211
The medical term for fainting is:
Syncope
212
Drugs in this category are used to inhibit or control seizures:
Anticonvulsants
213
The term that refers to what results from long-term use of a drug that damages organs or causes disorders over time is:
Iatrogenic disease
214
The Six "Rights" of medication administration include all of the following except:
1. right time
2. right documentation
3. right patient
4. right medication
5. right day
6. right route
7. right dose
right day
215
Which of the following is not an acceptable patient idendifier?
Photo
216
What type of injection is also known as venipuncture?
Intravenous
217
Drugs in this category are used to lower blood pressure:
Antihypertensives
218
The medical term for bluish discoloration of the skin is:
Cyanosis
219
Drugs in this category are used to augment endocrine secretion:
Hormones
220
The levels of blood pressures that are read on a sphygmomanometer are:
systolic over diastolic.
221
Thoracostomy tubes are used to:
reestablish negative intrapleural pressure.
222
A disease spread by kissing is being transmitted by which of the following methods?
Direct contact
223
Which of the following is not a method of sterilization?
Hand washing
224
When negligence occurs to a patient, who is responsible for proving injury?
Patient
225
__________ pain is the persistence of pain for longer than 3 months with a less well-defined onset. Its cause may not be known.
Chronic
226
The diastolic norm would be within a range of:
60 to 80 mm Hg
227
When infection is present, there is a temporary increase in the number of:
Leukocytes
228
Which form of hospital isolation is designed to protect immunosuppressed patients from infection?
reverse
229
Which of the following would not reflect a human diversity characteristic?
Occupation
230
A sudden drop in a patient's blood pressure caused by standing or sitting upright is called:
orthostatic hypotension.
