Mock Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is an example of an unintentional tort?
A
Negligence
2
Q
Implied consent is used when the patient is:
A
unconscious but in need of care.
3
Q
What legal document allows the competent adult to provide direction to health care providers regarding their choices under certain circumstances, should the individual no longer be able to make those decisions?
A
Living will
The living will is a legal document created by the patient while competent that outlines what actions should or should not be taken under certain circumstances if he or she is not competent at the time the decision needs to be made. Typically, these decisions are related to the use of artificial life-sustaining measures, such as ventilators and feeding tubes.
4
Q
Which doctrine contends that individuals are responsible for their own negligent conduct?
A
Doctrine of personal liability
5
Q
A company being punished for the actions of one of its employees is an example of which doctrine?
A
Doctrine of respondeat superior
6
Q
Which statement about indwelling catheters is untrue?
A
Drainage bags must be kept above the level of the bladder.
7
Q
When using a barrier device to perform CPR, the device is placed:
A
over the patient’s nose and mouth to form a tight seal.
8
Q
Infections that are acquired during a hospital stay are called _____ infections.
A
nosocomial
9
Q
The person to whom the infectious agent is passed is a(n) _____________.
A
host
10
Q
Which of the following terms describes the complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms?
A
Sterilization
11
Q
A person who is colonized but not ill is known as a ________________.
A
carrier
12
Q
What are the five transmission routes that carry disease?
A
Airborne, vector-borne, contact, droplet, common vehicle
13
Q
What is the most reliable, available, and economical method of destroying microorganisms?
A
Heat
The use of heat, moist or dry, is the most reliable, available, and economical method of destroying microorganisms.
14
Q
Thrombocytopenia is a reduction in which of the following?
A
Platelets
15
Q
Cultural assessment looks at factors including one’s ________________.
A
customs, values, beliefs
16
Q
Marasmus is ____________ malnutrition.
A
calorie
17
Q
Cachexia is the loss of which of the following?
A
Appetite
18
Q
Which of the following are included in the “six rights” of drug safety?
I. Identify the right patient.
II. Identify the right medication and right dose.
III. Identify the right time.
IV. Identify the route.
A
I, II, III, and IV
19
Q
What is the first duty of a therapist if a patient has an adverse reaction to a drug?
A
Call a code.
20
Q
Which of the following radioactive isotopes is used in radiation therapy?
A
Strontium 89
21
Q
The “interview” of a medical history should include all:
1. legally prescribed drugs
2. vitamin or mineral supplements
3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items)
4. herbal treatments
A
1, 2, 3, 4
22
Q
Which professional organization is charged with administering the credentialing examination for graduates of radiation therapy educational programs?
A
ARRT
22
Q
Defamation of a character by speaking poorly of an individual is:
A
slander
23
Q
An adult patient is thought to have had a cardiac arrest. The patient’s pulse should be checked at the _____ artery.
A
carotid
24
An infant is thought to have had a cardiac arrest. The patient's pulse should be checked at the _____ artery.
brachial
25
Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by:
a vector.
26
Which of the following is not a method of sterilization?
Hand washing
27
When performing CPR as a single rescuer:
after each group of 30 compressions, give two quick ventilations.
28
When using an automatic external defibrillator (AED):
two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs.
29
The radioisotope used most often in nuclear studies is:
technetium (99mTc).
30
In the process of preparing a Hmong patient for an interventional procedure, you discover the patient speaks no English. She has no family members with her and was escorted down by hospital transport. A necessary part of the examination is for the patient to complete an informed consent document. An effective strategy you could use to accomplish this would be:
delaying the procedure until a hospital translator can be present during the explanation.
31
All of the following are nonverbal communication characteristics EXCEPT your:
tone of voice.
32
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, few people completely satisfy the need for:
self-fulfillment and self-actualization.
33
Objective data regarding a patient's history:
consist of a patient's vital signs.
34
A sudden drop in a patient's blood pressure caused by standing or sitting upright is called:
orthostatic hypotension.
35
All of the following are related EXCEPT:
inguinal.
36
All of the following are related EXCEPT:
thoracostomy.
37
A disease spread by kissing is being transmitted by which of the following methods?
Direct contact
38
The goal of aseptic technique is to:
protect the patient from pathogenic microbes.
39
The type of shock that is a result of severe loss of blood is:
hypovolemic.
40
An injection that is given to a patient relies on a(n) _____ route of administration.
parenteral
41
The use of contrast material as a means for visualizing human anatomy has a long history. Regardless of the type of contrast media, the purpose for using contrast media is to:
enhance the low subject contrast of anatomic structures.
42
In a legal proceeding, the actions of a radiation therapist will be judged with regard to his or her compliance with the:
Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy.
43
Which of the following would not reflect a human diversity characteristic?
Occupation
44
With regard to HIPAA regulations:
none of the above is true.
45
Acceptable informed consent:
must be witnessed by someone not involved in the procedure.
46
Electromagnetic radiation travels or propagates through space in the form of a wave but can interact with matter as a particle of energy called a photon. This dual nature is referred to as
wave-particle duality.
47
What is the most common unit of measure of equivalent dose?
Millisievert
48
The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption _________ as the energy of the incident photon decreases and the atomic number of the irradiated atoms _________.
increases markedly; increases
49
Which of the following are by-products of photoelectric absorption?
Photoelectron and characteristic photon
50
Which two interactions between x-radiation and matter may result in the production of small-angle scatter?
Coherent scattering and Compton scattering
51
The x-ray photon energy required to initiate pair production is
1.022 MeV.
52
X-rays are carriers of
manmade electromagnetic energy.
53
Which of the following is (are) true of electron beams?
Require a scattering foil to make the electron beam profile symmetric and flat
## Footnote
When using electron beams, the target is removed and a scattering foil must be used to broaden the pencil-like beam.
54
The electron gun is similar to what part of an x-ray tube?
Cathode
55
A bending magnet in an accelerator may be used to do which of the following?
Deflect (bend) the electron beam
## Footnote
A bending magnet deflects electrons 90 to 270 degrees toward the target.
56
The recommended frequency for checking the audio-visual system in the treatment room is _______________.
daily
57
The tolerance for light/radiation field coincidence on the linear accelerator is _____ mm.
2
## Footnote
The tolerance for light/radiation field coincidence on the linear accelerator is 2 mm.
58
X-ray output was calibrated during commissioning as 1.0 cGy/MU. During monthly quality assurance checks, the output is calibrated as 1.3 cGy/MU. This monthly output measurement is _____________________.
outside of tolerance limits and action is required
## Footnote
The tolerance limit for monthly x-ray output constancy is 2%. The monthly reading shows a 30% increase beyond the output measured during commissioning. Action is required.
59
A daily quality assurance check for the computed tomography (CT) simulator is to check the CT number accuracy for which of the following?
Water
60
Which processes are responsible for electron interactions with matter?
I. Collisional processes
II. Radiation processes
III. Gradient processes
I and II
## Footnote
Electron beams interact with matter by a combination of collisional processes and radiation processes.
61
Which processes are responsible for the majority of energy loss for electron energy ranges useful in radiation therapy?
I. Collisional processes
II. Radiation processes
III. Gradient processes
I only
## Footnote
In clinical radiation therapy in the energy range from 1 to 20 MeV, the predominant mechanism by which an electron beam loses energy is by collisional interactions in tissues because of the low Z number of tissue.
62
When some energy is imparted to the electrons of the atom, they will move to higher energy empty states. This process is called which of the following?
Excitation
## Footnote
Excitation takes place when some energy is imparted to the electrons of the atom, causing the electrons to move to higher-energy states, called excited states, and the atom will then reach an unstable state.
63
Which of the following is the most common photon interaction that occurs in the energy range used in radiation therapy?
Compton
## Footnote
Compton, or incoherent, scattering is the most common photon interaction that occurs in the energy range used in radiation therapy.
64
There are four major quantities that are important in radiation physics. They are radiation exposure, radiation absorbed dose, radiation dose equivalent, and ________________.
radioactivity
## Footnote
The four major quantities important to radiation physics are radiation exposure, radiation absorbed dose, radiation dose equivalent, and radioactivity.
65
Which of the following are benefits of CT simulation?
I. The ability to outline critical structures and view these structures in three dimensions
II. Machine setup parameters and treatment accessories unable to be verified on the CT scanner
III. Virtual simulation allows for construction of digitally reconstructed radiographs DRRs without the patient being present
I and III
## Footnote
A treatment plan created with CT does not account for gantry, collimator, or table angle limits. Therefore, it is possible to create a treatment plan that cannot be used for treatment.
66
Which of the following is the window width on a CT image?
The range of numbers displayed on a CT image
## Footnote
Window width is the range of numbers displayed or the contrast on a CT image.
67
Which of the following is the window level on a CT image?
The central Hounsfield unit of all the CT numbers displayed on an image
## Footnote
Window level represents the central Hounsfield unit of all the CT numbers within the window width.
68
Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur. What is this cell cycle phase called?
M
## Footnote
The M phase includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions. The G1 phase includes the period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis. The S phase includes synthesis of DNA in the cell nucleus. The G2 phase includes RNA and protein synthesis.
69
All except which of the following are organelles?
Plasma membrane
70
What is the typical oxygen enhancement ratio (OER) value for sparsely ionizing radiation?
2.5 to 3.0
## Footnote
Sparsely ionizing radiation, such as x-rays and gamma rays, generally has an OER between 2.5 and 3.0.
71
Which of the following tissues is least radiosensitive?
Bone
72
Which of the following is not an early response to radiation?
Leukemia
## Footnote
Cancer is a late effect of exposure to ionizing radiation.
73
A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?
Adenocarcinoma
## Footnote
Tumors that arise from or form ductal or glandular structures are named adenocarcinomas. Cancers arising in epithelial tissue are called carcinomas; mesenchymal tissue (including connective tissue, muscle, and bone) usually have the suffix sarcoma; lymphatic tissue are called lymphomas.
74
An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing?
Anaplasia
## Footnote
Anaplasia, not autonomy, is the loss of differentiation. The term pleomorphic refers to a marked variability of size and shape. A malignant tumor has the ability to spread far beyond the tissue of origin by the process of metastasis.
75
What is the maximum period of time that a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) may be worn as a personnel device?
3 months
76
What do optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters, thermoluminescent dosimeters, pocket ionization chambers, and digital ionization dosimeters have in common?
These devices are all used for personnel monitoring.
77
Which of the following instruments generally has a check source of a weak, long-lived radioisotope located on one side of its external surface to verify its constancy daily?
Geiger-Muller survey meter
78
Which of the following devices contains an aluminum oxide detector?
Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
79
If a person receives radiation exposure sufficient to cause the gastrointestinal syndrome, fatality occurs primarily because of
catastrophic damage to the epithelial cells that line the gastrointestinal track, resulting in the death of the exposed person within 7 to 14 days from a combination of infection, fluid loss, and electrolytic imbalance.
80
Radiation-induced cataracts in humans follow a ______ dose–response relationship.
threshold, nonlinear
81
Genetic effects from exposure to ionizing radiation occur as a result of radiation-induced damage to the DNA molecule in which of the following?
1. Sperm of a man
2. Ova of a woman
3. Somatic cells of men and women
1 and 2 only
82
Radium decays with a half-life of
1622 years.
83
The term linear nonthreshold relationship implies that the biologic response to ionizing radiation is
directly proportional to the dose all the way down to levels approaching zero.
84
Tumor-suppressor genes are also known as ___________.
anti-oncogenes
85
Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit to the whole body of an occupationally exposed person who is 46 years old.
460 mSv
86
The ALARA concept adopts an extremely conservative model with respect to the relationship between
ionizing radiation and potential risk.
87
The effective dose (EfD) limit for the lens of the eye is
15 mSv.
88
The responsibility for maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel and for providing counseling for individuals who receive monitor readings in excess of allowable limits belongs to the
designated radiation safety officer of a health care facility.
89
To provide a low-exposure cut-off level so that regulatory agencies may consider a level of effective dose as being of negligible risk, an annual negligible individual dose (NID) of ________________ has been set for controlled areas.
1.0 mSv/week
90
0.2 Gy equals
200 mGy
91
Which of the following types of ionizing radiation produce virtually the same biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses?
X-rays, beta particles, and gamma rays
92
In therapeutic radiology what SI units are now routinely used to specify absorbed dose?
Gray and centigray
93
In general, which of the following can human cells do?
1. Move, grow, react, and protect themselves
2. Repair damage and regulate life processes
3. Reproduce
1, 2, and 3
94
When considering the wave properties of electromagnetic radiation, the number of waves that pass by a given point in 1 second is:
frequency
95
As a wave's wavelength increases, its frequency:
decreases
96
Wavelength is generally measured in:
meters
97
An indirect effect from ionizing radiation occurs on a ___________ molecule.
water
98
Ionizing events from irradiation are considered to be direct effects if they occur with ___________ molecules.
DNA
99
Some radiation victims of _______________ syndrome(s) may recover completely.
hematologic
100
The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole body dose of _____ Gy or more.
50
101
If the HVL in a radiology department is 0.25 mm Pb, then how thick should a shield be to reduce the technologists' exposure to one fourth the incident scatter?
0.5 mm Pb
102
Dose limits are based on a ________________ dose-response relationship to radiation.
linear, nonthreshold
103
The dose limit for the general public is _______ the dose limit for occupational exposure.
1/10
104
A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
105
A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
106
A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient?
Gastric cancer
107
Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and:
lymphatics.
108
A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used. How should the nurse respond? Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used:
after surgical removal of a tumor.
109
The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to:
cigarette smoke.
110
Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?
Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
111
In which anatomical location are metastatic bone lesions most common?
Spine
112
What is the most common form of primary bone cancer?
Osteosarcoma
## Footnote
Accounting for 35% of primary bone tumors, osteosarcomas are the most common form.
113
It is important when treating an extremity for STS to have a strip of unirradiated tissue near the treatment volume to _______________________.
I. maintain some lymphatic function
II. avoid increased fracture possibilities
III. avoid circumferential fibrosis
I and III
114
A mantle field is used to treat which type of cancer?
Hodgkin's disease (HD)
## Footnote
When found in lymph nodes above the diaphragm, HD is treated using a mantle field.
115
What is the standard dose delivered for the treatment of NHL?
3000 to 4500 cGy
116
What is the most common presenting symptom of HD?
Painless mass
117
What is the most common form of thyroid cancer seen in irradiated individuals?
Papillary
## Footnote
Papillary carcinoma is the type most frequently seen in irradiated individuals. These tumors are slow growing, are nonaggressive, and have an excellent prognosis.
118
Which of the following is the primary thyroid tumor with the worst prognosis?
Anaplastic
119
What is the total dose delivered to a primary lung cancer?
Greater than 6000 cGy
120
Why should a patient's arms be positioned above his or her head during radiation treatments of a primary lung cancer?
Avoid treating normal tissue
121
The tolerance dose (TD) 5/5 for the whole lung is approximately _____ Gy.
20
122
After what dose of radiation may xerostomia become permanent?
4000 to 5000 cGy
123
In which salivary gland do most salivary cancers occur?
Parotid
124
Bloody discharge from the nose would be a common symptom of a tumor located in the _____________________.
nasopharynx
125
What is the most common type of brain tumor?
Metastatic brain lesions
126
Which of the following is the dose at which radiation necrosis of brain tissue is most likely to occur?
6000 cGy
127
Chemicals that enhance the lethal effects of radiation are known as ____________.
radiosensitizers
128
At what age should a person of average risk have his or her first screening colonoscopy?
50
129
Which of the following cancers has the highest incidence of cancer-related deaths in the United States?
Colorectal
## Footnote
Colorectal cancer is the second leading cause of cancer death in the United States, accounting for approximately 53,000 deaths annually.
130
The width of the anterior field in the treatment of rectal cancer should the iliac lymph nodes. Therefore, the lateral borders of this field should __________________.
extend about 2 cm beyond the pelvic brim
## Footnote
The width of the PA/AP fields is designed to provide adequate coverage of the iliac lymph nodes. This border is placed 2 cm lateral to the pelvic brim and inlet.
131
Cancer of which female reproductive organ is most deadly?
Ovarian
132
Pap testing is a screening tool used to detect which cancer?
Cervical
133
Which female reproductive organ is most likely to develop cancer?
Uterus (endometrium)
134
Diarrhea is a side effect of pelvic irradiation. Patients experiencing this side effect should be advised to adhere to a _________diet.
low-fiber
135
A total dose of 7200 cGy in fractions of 180 cGy is used to treat which male reproductive cancer?
Prostate
136
What is the treatment of choice for testicular cancers?
Surgery
137
Gleason's grading system is based on the tumor's _______________.
morphology
138
At what age should women of normal risk begin having regular annual screening mammograms?
40
139
Which of the following cancers would most likely be seen in a child?
Primary brain
140
What is the most common presenting symptom of a soft tissue sarcoma of the extremity?
Mass
141
What is the most common intracranial tumor in children?
Astrocytoma
## Footnote
Low-grade astrocytomas are the most common intracranial tumors in children.
142
Medulloblastomas typically begin in which area of the brain?
Cerebellum
## Footnote
Medulloblastomas usually arises in the midline of the cerebellum.
143
What is the most common form of skin cancer?
Basal cell carcinoma
## Footnote
In 2007, the incidence of basal cell and squamous cell skin cancer was estimated to be more than 1 million new cases (basal cell cancers outnumber squamous cell cancers of the skin approximately 5 to 1), whereas malignant melanoma of the skin was expected to account for 59,940 new cases, an increase seen over the past few years.
144
Which cancer is commonly associated with HIV?
Kaposi sarcoma
## Footnote
Kaposi sarcoma is a slow-growing, temperate tumor thought to arise from vascular tissue. The associated nodular purple lesions are often multifocal and common in individuals affected with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and those living in the Mediterranean region.
145
The CT number for water is _____________.
0
146
One of the most radiosensitive tissues in the body is _____ tissue.
lymphoid
147
In the diagram, letter A represents a curve for tumor control. Curve B represents normal tissue complication. This represents a:
Radiosensitive tumor
148
The most common chemotherapeutic regimens used in the treatment of gastrointestinal tumors will include which following agent?
5-FU
149
In the shrinking field portal the ___ gets the highest dose:
central portion of tumor
150
The oropharynx extends between which two structures?
Soft palate and hyoid bone
151
The laryngopharynx continues as the esophagus at the level of the:
cricoid cartilage.
152
The thoracic duct empties into the:
subclavian vein.
153
As the SSD increases, the PDD does what?
Increases
154
As the energy increases, the tissue-air ratio does which of the following?
Increases
155
Which of the following is the equivalent square of rectangular field of 10 ´ 15?
12 ´ 12
156
Which of the following is the equivalent square of a rectangular field of 20 ´ 10?
13.3 ´ 13.3
157
Find the PDD at 3.5 cm of an 18-MV beam of radiation that has a 23 ´ 15 cm treatment field.
100%
158
The physician prescribes the AP/PA field to be weighted 3:1 for the posterior field. How much dose is coming from the AP and the PA if total dose prescribed is 200 cGy?
AP = 50 cGy, PA = 150 cGy
159
What is (are) spatial representation(s) of the magnitude of the dose produced by a source of radiation?
Dose distributions
160
Which of the following is the most favorable situation for the overall goal of radiation therapy?
Radiosensitive tumor and radioresistant normal tissue
161
Which type of intensity-modulated radiation therapy treatment delivery has the gantry in a fixed position with an initial multileaf collimators (MLC) pattern?
"Step-and-shoot"
162
Which of the following is the palpable, visible, or demonstrable extent and location of malignant growth and is the volume of known disease?
GTV
163
Which of the following accounts for target motion and uncertainty in positioning?
PTV
164
HIPAA provides guidelines and regulations for which of the following?
Use and disclosure of patient information
165
Which is information gathered during initial patient examinations?
I. Chief complaint
II. History and physical examination
III. Review of systems
I, II, and III
166
Professional conduct as it pertains to patients, consumers, employers, peers, and health care professionals is included in the
ARRT Standard of Ethics
167
The radiation therapist is responsible for which of the following?
I. Delivering radiation therapy treatments
II. Monitoring and operating sophisticated equipment
III. Maintaining detailed records of treatment
IV. Producing the patient's treatment plan
I, II, and III
168
Informed consent consists of which of the following?
I. Purpose
II. Treatment alternatives
III. Benefits and risks
IV. Disclaimer
I, II, III, and IV
169
Which of the following is not considered a part of the radiation oncology team responsible for the department's quality assurance?
Medical oncologist
170
Safety and care in the assessment of pain, mobility, and other factors affecting the patient's well-being are the responsibility of which of the following?
Radiation therapist
171
Individual treatment doses may be defined as which of the following?
Fractionation
172
Which of the following clinical situations do not lend themselves to the reproducible placement of localization marks?
I. Mobile skin surfaces
II. Elderly or obese patients
III. Areas covered by dressings
IV. Sloping surfaces such as the breast
I, II, III, and IV
173
A shifting field arrangement (feathering) often used in treatment of the brain and spinal cord is used primarily to _______________.
prevent "hot" spots
174
Where would the radiation therapist find the information regarding the status of the treatment unit?
Console
## Footnote
The console provides information to the radiation therapist regarding the status of the treatment unit. The use of beam modifiers may require verification of placement to release a safety interlock for treatment.
175
What is the melting point of Cerrobend?
165° F
## Footnote
Cerrobend has a melting point of 165° F (74° C).
176
Which of the following two-field arrangements is considered parallel opposed?
Field 1 gantry = 310; Field 2 gantry = 130
## Footnote
Parallel opposed fields are defined as those with a hinge angle of 180°.
177
The intensity of a radiation beam is measured at 10 mR/hr at a distance of 20 cm. What will be the intensity of this beam at 30 cm?
4.44 mR/hr
178
What is the practical range of a 25-MeV electron beam?
12.5 cm
179
What is the practical range of a 25-MeV electron beam?
12.5 cm
180
What is the depth of the 80% isodose line of a 15-MeV electron beam?
5 cm
181
Which of the following central axis depth dose quantities would most likely be used to compute an accurate MU setting on an 18-MV unit for an isocentric treatment?
TMR
182
Two parallel opposed equally weighted 6-MV fields are separated by 20cm of tissue and treated with an SSD technique. The maximum dose will occur:
1.5cm under the skin surface
183
Mayneord's factor is used to convert:
PDD with a change in SSD from the standard
184
In an isocentric treatment technique, the dose is routinely normalized:
at the isocenter
185
The depth of maximum ionization is most dependent upon:
beam quality
186
Which beam would produce the maximum amount of backscatter:
1.25 MV
187
A patient is treated with parallel opposed fields, weighted 2:1, R:L. %DD at 7cm is 0.688. Find the given dose on the left side, if the tumor is treated to 5750cGY.
2786cGy
188
It is discovered that a patient receiving 200cGy daily has been given 25 fractions at 77 SSD instead of 80cm SSD. Instead of the prescribed 5000cGy total, the patient received:
5397cGy
189
A dose of 5000cGy is to be delivered at a depth of 8 cm where the percent depth dose is 60.3. What is the dose to an underlying sensitive organ at a depth of 10cm where the percent depth dose is 55.5?
4600cGy
190
Parallel opposed fields are prescribed to give 180cGy at the midplane of the patient. The prescription also says to treat the patient 2:1, A:P. What dose is to be given from the anterior?
120cGy
191
A patient has to be treated at 110cm SSD in order to obtain the field size. The doserate at the standard distance of 100cm for the same field size is 1.043cGy/mu. What is the doserate at 110cm?
0.862cGy/mu
192
Which of the following drugs is often prescribed to reduce nausea caused by a CNS tumor or external beam irradiation?
antiemetic
193
Dr. Smith is planning a radiation therapy treatment for a patient using a 6MV linear accelerator. The goal is to deliver a dose of 200 cGy to a tumor via parallel opposed fields located at a depth of 10 cm. The treatment involves several factors that need to be considered:
Beam Energy: The accelerator operates at 6MV.
Field Size: The treatment field size is set to 10x10 cm², which has a field size factor of 1.0.
Treatment Technique: The technique used is a standard conformal technique, with a treatment technique factor of 1.0.
Percentage Depth Dose (PDD): At a depth of 10 cm, the PDD is 0.85.
Tissue-Air Ratio (TAR): The TAR at 10 cm depth for the 6MV beam is 0.804.
Dose Rate: The dose rate of the accelerator is 1.03 cGy/mu in air.
Given these factors, calculate the monitor units (MU) required to deliver the prescribed dose of 200 cGy to the tumor.
121 mu
194
The tissue air ratio (TAR) at the depth of maximum electron buildup (Dmax) is:
1. Always less than or equal to 1 2. The backscatter factor 3. Dependent on the field size
1, 2, 3
195
A patient received 2084cGy given dose from the anterior port of a parallel opposed evenly weighted pair of fields. 3000cGy total tumor dose was given. What %DD was used?
72
196
Which of the following drugs is often prescribed to reduce edema caused by a CNS tumor or external beam irradiation?
corticosteroid
197
Bone scans are used to evaluate the:
spread of metastatic disease
198
This type of decay converts a proton into a neutron:
beta plus
199
What is the relationship between these nuclei? They are:
isobars
200
Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called _____.
isomers
201
The atomic number of molybdenum is 42 and the atomic mass number is 98. How many neutrons does it have?
56
202
8.4 x 10^3 is _________________ in standard form
8,400
203
If sufficient energy is given to the atom, one or more electrons of the atom can overcome their binding energy and can be completely removed from the atom. This process is called:
ionization
204
The directional term contralateral refers to which of the following?
On the opposite side
205
The term antebrachial refers to the area of the:
forearm
206
Which of the following is a parameter that allows for the adjustment of the gray scale?
Window width
207
Which of the following imaging studies could be best described as studies that do not use ionizing radiation (choose the best answer)?
1. x-ray
2. x-ray studies using contrast agents
3. CT (computed tomography)
4. nuclear medicine
5. ultrasound
6. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
5 and 6
208
vA system of determining how much a cancer has spread from its original site is:
staging.
209
Increased levels of which of the following may indicate BPH or prostate cancer?
PSA
210
Of the following, which radionuclide is used for permanent prostate implants?
gold 198
## Footnote
Some isotopes, such as radon 222 and gold 198, have very short half-lives and are implanted permanently rather than temporarily. This type of therapy is used frequently in the case of prostate cancer. The prostate can benefit from interstitial implants with permanent gold seeds because other isotopes would require surgical procedures for both insertion and removal of sources.
211
Brachytherapy is being used to treat cancer in a patient. What types of cancers respond well to brachytherapy? (select all that apply)
Cervix
neck
lung
prostate
head
cervix
prostate
## Footnote
Radiation sources can be temporarily placed into body cavities through a delivery method termed brachytherapy. Brachytherapy is useful in the treatment of cervical, prostate, and head and neck cancers. It is not used in the treatment of lung cancer.
Radiation sources can be temporarily placed into body cavities through a delivery method termed brachytherapy. Brachytherapy is useful in the treatment of cervical, prostate, and head and neck cancers. It is not used in the treatment of lung cancer.
212
The primary technique used to change contrast is:
kVp
213
Which of the following coordinates corresponds to the coronal plane and results in table shifts anterior or posterior?
Z
214
What is an information system designed for the collection, management, and analysis of data on a person with a malignant disease?
Cancer registry
215
Which of the following does not describe EMR?
Requires little or no training
216
A radioactive sample is measured to contain 1,000 mCi of radioactivity. If the decay constant of this isotope is 0.105 hr-1, how much activity will remain after 48 hours?
6.474 mCi
## Footnote
At = Aoe–λt = (1000 mCi)e(–0.105)(48) = 6.474 mCi.
217
Protons have an accepted relative biological effect (RBE) value of which of the following?
1.1
218
If you measure 1st, 2nd, and 3rd HVT of a 250 KVP therapy machine you will find that:
2nd HVT is more than 1st but less than 3rd
219
A 12 MeV electron beam is used to deliver 180cGy to a breast boost field. The cone size is 10 x 10cm and the inster measures 5 x 7.5cm. The output is 1.000 and the output factor is 1.007. If this field is prescribed to the 90% isodose line. What is the MU for this field.
199
220
Fiducial markers act as a _____ for structures to help in localization.
surrogate
