Mock Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the half-life of Palladium-103?
A
17 days
2
Q
A positive ion is
A
an atom with more protons than electrons
3
Q
Except for the K shell, the maximum number of electrons that can be in the outermost shell of an atom is
A
8
With the exception of the K shell, no more than 8 electrons can be in the atom’s outermost shell. This is called the octet rule.
4
Q
Half-life is defined as
A
the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of a radioactive element to decay
Half-life is the time it takes for half the remaining atoms in an amount of a radioactive element to decay.
5
Q
In photoelectric absorption to dislodge an inner-shell electron from its atomic orbit, the incoming x-ray photon must be able to transfer a quantity of energy
A
as large as or larger than the amount of energy that holds the electron in its orbit.
6
Q
The steps, or rungs, of the DNA ladder-like structure consist of complementary chemicals that are
A
pairs of nitrogenous bases.
7
Q
A biologic reaction is produced by 8 Gyt of a test radiation. It takes 40 Gyt of 250-kVp x-rays to produce the same biologic reaction. What is the relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) of the test radiation?
A
5
8
Q
The probability of Compton scattering depends on the energy level of the incident x-ray photon.
A
True
9
Q
The probability of a photoelectric interaction depends on the atomic number of the atom.
A
True
10
Q
Cesium-137 decays with a half-life of
A
30 years.
11
Q
During the major response stages of acute radiation syndrome after the prodromal stage, the period when symptoms that affect the hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular systems become visible, is called
A
manifest illness.
12
Q
As the pitch increases, the image quality:
A
decreases
13
Q
The epigastric region is the area located
A
superior to the umbilical region
14
Q
The four abdominopelvic quadrants are named
A
right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant, left lower quadrant, right lower quadrant
15
Q
The surgical removal of pieces of the prostate gland tissue by using a resectoscope inserted through the urethra is called
A
transurethral resection of the prostate gland
16
Q
Stereotactic breast biopsy is a technique that combines computer-assisted biopsy and
A
mammography
17
Q
The term that means abnormal reduction of all blood cells is
A
pancytopenia
18
Q
A tumor composed of blood vessels is called
A
angioma
19
Q
The device used for measuring blood pressure is a
A
sphygmomanometer
20
Q
A blood test to find blood that is present in the stool but can only be detected by chemical testing is
A
fecal occult blood test
21
Q
Difficulty in swallowing is called
A
dysphagia
22
Q
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is also called
A
adenohypophysis
23
Q
The dorsal cavity can be further subdivided into which of the following cavities?
A
Cranial and spinal
24
Q
The foramen magnum is a structure of which cranial bone?
A
Occipital
25
Which of the following is not one of the zones dividing the prostate gland?
Transverse
26
By which route are parenteral medications administered?
Injection
27
Interferon is an example of what category of antineoplastic agents?
Immunomodulating agents
28
The proper steps for operating an AED are:
Power on the AED, attach electode pads, analyze the rhythm, clear the individual, and deliver shock
## Footnote
The patient must be analyzed before the AED will advise a shock This represents the correct steps for operating an AED. The rhythm must be analyzed before the AED will advise a shock. A pulse check should have been done prior to attaching the AED and is not part of AED operation. This sequence does not begin with powering on the AED.
29
Where should you attempt to perform a pulse check in a child who is anywhere from one year to puberty?
Carotid or femoral artery
## Footnote
The brachial artery located on the upper arm is used in infants below 1 year old. The ulnar artery is not used to perform pulse checks in BLS. The temporal artery is not used to perform pulse checks in BLS. The carotid and femoral arteries are used to perform pulse checks in BLS on children from 1 year of age to puberty.
30
In an adult with an advanced airway in place during two-rescuer CPR, how often should the breaths be administered?
Every 6 to 8 seconds (8 to 10 breaths per minute)
## Footnote
Twenty to thirty breaths per minute will result in hyperventilation which impedes return of spontaneous circulation. One breath every 4 to 5 seconds will result in hyperventilation and is faster than the AHA guidelines recommend. One breath every 6 to 8 seconds results in 8 to 10 breaths per minute, and is the correct ventilation rate for an adult victim with an advanced airway. One breath every 10 to 12 seconds is slower than AHA guidelines recommend.
31
The normal red blood cell count for an adult male is approximately:
5, 000, 000 per cc
32
You should discontinue radiation therapy when the white blood cell count falls below:
2000/mm3
33
All of the following are side effects of radiation treatment to the head and neck except:
epistaxis
34
The drug, Decadron, is a/an:
coticosteroid
35
What is the most common type of pediatric leukemia?
ALL
36
A lung tumor that most often occurs at the periphery of the lung is:
adenocarcinoma
37
What defines the superior radiation field border for the treatment of a low staged larynx cancer?
superior aspect of the hyoid
## Footnote
The superior border of a low staged laryngeal cancer is set at the location of the superior aspect of the hyoid or at the upper thyroid notch.
38
The n of the cell survival curve represents:
the extrapolation number of cells
39
In discussing therapeutic ratio, when a tumor can be destroyed but normal tissue suffers severe complications, the tumor is thought to be:
Radioresistant
40
The most common site of pancreatic tumors is:
head of the pancreas
41
Cancer of the pleura of the lung is called:
mesothelioma
42
Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker:
colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
43
What is the most common source of brain metastases?
lung
## Footnote
The most common primary site of disease responsible for producing brain metastases is the lung.
44
For brachytherapy to the cervix, where is point A located in relation to the cervical os?
2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral
## Footnote
Point A is located 2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral to the center of the cervical canal (at the cervical os) in the plane of the uterus.
45
Superior sulcus tumors are also called ______ tumors:
Pancoast
46
The most common site of distant metastasis from primary bone cancer is which of the following?
lung
47
The craniospinal treatment technique is used to treat what specific type of pediatric cancer?
medulloblastoma
## Footnote
Craniospinal irradiation is a treatment option for medulloblastomas.
48
What form of skin cancer has the highest mortality rate?
melanoma
## Footnote
Melanomas are much more lethal than their nonmelanoma counterparts. About 8110 people (5220 males and 2890 females) will die from melanoma in 2007. Although nonmelanomas outnumber melanomas approximately 30:1, more people die each year from melanoma than from nonmelanoma skin cancers.
49
Which of the following is in order of increasing radiosensitivity:
FPM, RPM, DIM, VIM
50
Who has the most significant risk of developing ovarian cancer?
65-year-old woman with one child
## Footnote
Ovarian carcinoma occurs primarily in women between the ages of 50 and 70. Furthermore, few or late pregnancies increase a woman's risk.
51
____ most commonly arise fom the 4th ventricle.
ependymoma
52
Which bone marrow transplant involves the harvesting and reinfusion of the patient's own bone marrow.
autogenic
53
The most common presenting symptom of cerebellar astrocytoma is:
ataxia
54
Which of the following are abnormal cells significant in the diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Reed-Sternberg
55
The diagram below demonstrates a typical radiation portal arrangement for treatment of the:
oral cavity
56
What is the most common histologic type of cancers that occur in the lower third of the esophagus?
adenocarcinoma
## Footnote
The most common pathologic types of esophageal cancer are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. Squamous cell carcinomas are found most frequently in the upper and middle thoracic esophagus. Adenocarcinoma typically occurs in the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction; however, it can occur in other regions of the esophagus.
57
Osteosarcomas are most commonly found in the _____________.
distal femur
58
What is the most superficial layer of the skin?
epidermis
## Footnote
The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis are the layers of tissue associated with the skin. The epidermis is the most superficial layer.
59
The shape of the isodose distribution for a tandem and ovoid treatment is:
pear shaped
## Footnote
Once loaded with sources, the tandem and ovoids typically demonstrate a pear-shaped isodose distribution.
60
The anatomic relationship of the esophagus to the trachea and vertebral column is:
The esophagus is posterior to the trachea and anterior to the vertebral column.
## Footnote
Figure 20-47 shows CT images documenting the anatomic relationship between the trachea, esophagus, and vertebral body.
61
This pediatric cancer is closely associated to nephroblastomatoses.
Wilms tumor
## Footnote
Benign embryonal rests called nephroblastomatoses can be associated with malignant Wilms tumor, especially in bilateral cases.
62
A ____ isodose curve will have an hourglass shape of the highest intensity isodose line.
parallel opposed field
63
A ___ is the use of independent variable secondary collimator jaws moving during treatment.
dynamic wedge
64
A 4MV linear accelerator is used at 100cm SSD. The location of maximum dose is found at a depth of:
1.0cm
65
A 6MV linear accelerator is used at 100cm SSD. The location of maximum dose is found at a depth of:
1.5cm
66
Calculate the depth of the 90% isodose line for a 10 x 10cm 12MeV electron beam. The prescription is written for 200cGy and the machine output is cGy/mu is 0.787.
3.0cm
67
Absorbed dose at depth x 100% = absorbed dose at Dmax is the definition of:
PDD
## Footnote
PDD is the ratio expressed as a percentage of the absorbed dose at a given depth to the absorbed dose at a fixed reference depth. This factor is used when calculating nonisocentric treatments.
68
The measurement of the angle between central rays of two intersecting treatment beams is called the:
hinge angle
## Footnote
The orientation of multiple fields to one another during treatment may produce inhomogeneous dose distributions over the target volume. The wedge is designed to change the angle of the isodose curve relative to the beam axis at a specified depth within the patient. The hinge angle (measure of the angle between central rays of two intersecting treatment beams) decreases and doses delivered to overlapping areas vary significantly, thus creating areas of high- and low-dose regions in the desired target volume.
69
If a patient's lateral thickness measures 25cm. If the left lateral SSD is 89cm, what is the right lateral SSD?
86cm
70
The field size when using an SSD technique and a photon beam is usually defined:
on the skin surface
71
Vaginal cancers most commonly occur in the:
Upper posterior wall
72
To which lymphatics do the cervical tumors most commonly drain?
common iliac
73
What is the most common histologic form of ovarian cancer?
epithelial
74
What is the most common histologic form of endometrial cancer?
adenocarcinoma
75
What is the most common histologic form of vulvar cancer?
squamous
76
Usually a ____ margin is utilized for field margins around lung tumors
2 cm
77
The volume of actual tumor mass as detected on physical exam or in imaging studies is:
tumor volume
78
A ____ margin is utilized for field margins around soft tissue sarcoma tumors.
5-10 cm
79
The most common route of spread for carcinomas is:
lymphatic vessels
80
The most common route of spread for sarcomas is:
hematogenous
81
The most common lymph node involvement for bladder cancers occurs in the:
external & internal iliac nodes
82
The peak incidence age of bladder cancer is:
50-70
83
A characteristic of benign tumors is that they:
seldom recur after excision.
84
The tolerance dose for 3/3 of the parotid gland is:
3200 cGy
## Footnote
TD 5/5 of the parotid is 3,200 cGy
85
The tolerance dose for 3/3 of the brain is:
4500 cGy
86
The tolerance dose for 3/3 of the lung is:
1750 cGy
87
The retromolar trigone is located in the:
oral cavity
88
Anatomic sites that are sanctuaries for medulloblastoma and leukemic cells are the:
1. Testes 2. Spleen 3. CNS
1 and 3 only
89
The AJCC on cancer staging classification uses the ______ staging system for lymphoid neoplasms.
Ann Arbor
90
What treatment provides the greatest chance of survival for leukemias?
bone marrow transplant
## Footnote
Bone marrow transplantation, which was considered an experimental procedure until approximately 25 years ago, is the treatment of choice for several diseases, including ALL, AML, and CML.
91
The minimum number of treatment fields used for conventional breast irradiation is ____.
2
92
To what dose are medulloblastomas traditionally treated?
5600 cGy
93
A side effect of the chemotherapy drug Adriamycin is:
cardiomyopathy
94
From which type of tissue do MOST sarcomas arise?
mesenchymal
95
The most commonly involved group of nodes in oropharyngeal cancer is the:
jugulodigastric nodes
96
The most common presenting sign/symptom of nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
epistaxis
97
The most common presenting sign/symptom of oral cavity carcinoma:
ulceration
98
The vertebral level used to identify the location of the true vocal cords:
C4
99
The _____ is composed of the pyriform sinuses, postcricoid, and lower posterior pharyngeal walls below the base of the tongue :
hypopharynx
100
IGRT is useful because it can:
I. result in a more focused treatment
II. account for interfraction and intrafraction motion
III. compare in-room image set with treatment planning image set
I, II, and III
101
The node of Rouviere is also called the:
lateral retropharyngeal
102
The process by which somatic cells proliferate is termed:
mitosis
103
Which of the following has the highest LET?
alpha particle
104
Death from acute radiation exposure follows a _____, _____ dose-response relationship.
nonlinear, threshold
## Footnote
Death from acute radiation exposure follows a nonlinear, threshold dose-response relationship.
105
The law of _____ states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the metabolism and maturation of that tissue.
Bergonie and Tribondeau
106
The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the _____.
DNA
107
The three cardinal principals of radiation protection involve _____.
time, distance, and shielding
108
Most patient support assemblies can support up to:
450lbs
109
As a result of _______, the intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance.
divergence
110
What SSD is used to check ODI?
100 cm
111
Of the following, which brachytherapy application would be used to treat the breast?
Interstitial
## Footnote
Interstitial brachytherapy is commonly used in the treatment of neck, breast, prostate, soft tissue sarcomas, and skin tumors.
112
What term is defined as "planned or systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that a product or service will satisfy given requirements for quality"?
quality assurance
113
The table vertical and longitudinal motion of a CT simulator table should be checked
monthly
114
Dry desquamation usually occurs at:
3,000 to 4,000 cGy
115
The normal pulse rate for an adult is between?
60 and 100 beats per minutes
116
When infection is present, there is a temporary increase in the number of:
Leukocytes
117
The patient decribes her chest pain as "it feels like someone is standing on my chest." This information is considered
subjective data
118
Which of the following reactions might be seen within the first two weeks of radiation therapy?
1. erythema
2. moist desquamation
3. epilation
1 and 3 only
119
What is the TD 5/5 for the spinal cord:
45-50Gy
120
A civil wrong that involves individual property rights is called:
a tort.
121
The term res ipsa loquitur means the:
thing speaks for itself.
122
A classic example of _____ is when a medical instrument is left inside a patient after surgery.
res ipsa loquitur
123
Which of the following cell types are likely to express radiation injury shortly after a D0 dose of radiation is received? (Mark all that apply.)
FPM
DIM
RPM
VIM
DIM VIM
## Footnote
Vegetative intermitotic (VIM) and differentiating intermitotic (DIM) cells are the most and second most radiosensitive types of cells, respectively, and are likely to express radiation injury.
124
Fractionation of radiation dose administration to neoplastic tissues has which of the following effects? (Mark all that apply.)
1. reoxygenation of hypoxic tumor cells thus promote their sensitivity to subsequent doses
2. reduces or blunts the effects of the radiation injury in early responding normal tissues
3. favors repopulation of normal tissues slightly
4. favors repair of radiation injury in normal cells over that of cancer cells
all but 3
125
The goal of radiation therapy planning is to deliver an evenly distributed radiation dose to the ________ while minimizing the dose to the normal surrounding tissue.
target volume
126
Treatment for malignant fibrous histiocytoma involves:
I. radiation therapy
II. surgery
III. chemotherapy
I, II, and III
## Footnote
The primary treatment for all bone tumors, including fibrous histiocytomas, is surgical resection. Because of the relatively poor prognosis of fibrous histiocytomas, radiation therapy and chemotherapy are also used as part of an aggressive treatment regime.
127
Which chemotherapy regimen has proven to be as effective and less toxic than MOPP?
ABVD
128
Total dose for prophylactic cranial irradiation is typically around ___:
36 Gy
129
The layer of meninges closely adhering to the brain tissue is the:
pia mater.
130
When blocking is added to a treatment prescription, the open area of the collimator is used in determining:
1. Sc 2. Sp 3. PDD
1 only
131
When blocking is added to a treatment prescription, the effective field size is used in determining:
1. Sc 2. Sp 3. PDD
2 and 3 only
132
The dose is highest at the ____ of a photon beam.
central axis
133
A terminal patient who wants to stay alive long enough to see an offspring graduate from college, would be in what stage of the dying process?
Bargaining
## Footnote
Some patients experience a bargaining stage that focuses on hope and may be based in religion—for example, prayers for small extensions of life to perform good deeds and heal family wounds. Supporting the patient's beliefs at this time is important because the hope itself can reduce stress.
134
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, our first and most basic need is
shelter, nourishment, and water.
135
When negligence occurs to a patient, who is responsible for proving injury?
Plaintiff
## Footnote
For a patient (plaintiff) to recover damages for injuries sustained because of alleged negligence, four elements must be proved by the plaintiff: (1) a duty to the patient by the health care practitioner, (2) breach of this duty by an act or by failing to perform some act, (3) a compensable injury, and (4) a causal relationship between the injury and the breach of duty.
136
By what method are pathogens spread when a person coughs or sneezes?
Droplet
## Footnote
When caring for patients who are infected with such pathogenic organisms as rubella, mumps, influenza, and adenovirus, droplet precautions should be used. These pathogens disseminate through large particulate droplets expelled from the patient during coughing, sneezing, or even talking.
137
You are the director of a busy radiation therapy department. One of your co-workers has been accused of looking up the personal medical records and imaging reports of a family member. Disciplinary action for this staff member would be appropriate because of a violation of
professional ethics.
## Footnote
Of the values associated with the radiologic and imaging sciences, patient confidentiality is the most easily identified and the most prevalent. On the surface it seems that the trust that patients place in their health care providers cannot be compromised. Information obtained directly from the patient, observed, or obtained from other sources should be kept strictly confidential. The astute professional should be alert to situations that may compromise patient confidences and the radiologic and image science professional should be alert to situations that may compromise patient confidences.
138
A disorganized cardiac rhythm in which the ventricle “flutters” and loses cardiac output is called
fibrillation.
## Footnote
Ventricular fibrillation is a fluttering or ineffective cardiac rhythm that results in the heart's inability to pump blood. Effective ventricular rhythm must be restored within a few minutes to preserve life.
139
Contrast agents can be generally classified as
positive and negative.
## Footnote
Contrast media are generally classified as negative or positive contrast agents and ionic or non-ionic contrast agents. Negative contrast agents used in radiography decrease attenuation of the x-ray beam and produce areas of increased density on the radiograph, whereas positive contrast agents increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam and produce areas of decreased density on the radiograph.
140
Photons with the highest frequencies have the ____________.
shortest wavelengths
## Footnote
Photons with the highest frequencies have the shortest wavelengths.
141
All the hereditary information about an individual is contained in the _______ cells.
germ
## Footnote
All the hereditary information about an individual is contained in the germ cells.
142
The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed _____________.
radiolysis
## Footnote
The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed radiolysis.
143
Two OH* free radicals can join to form __________________ molecules.
hydrogen peroxide
## Footnote
Two OH* free radicals can join to form hydrogen peroxide molecules.
144
The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be ________________.
indirect effects
## Footnote
The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be indirect effects.
145
Arrange the following tasks involved in delivering a dose of radiation therapy in the proper order.
I. Complete the treatment record.
II. Initiate the beam-on setting, and monitor the patient and equipment.
III. Align the field using lasers, light field, and surface landmarks.
IV. Prepare the room.
IV, III, II, I
146
The cones used during electron beam therapy extend collimation in order to prevent which of the following?
Increased electron interactions in air
## Footnote
The mass and charge of the electron give rise to increased interactions in air compared to those of a photon beam. This scattering of the electron beam necessitates the extension of collimation (field shaping) close to the treatment surface, improving radiation dose distribution by sharpening the dose gradient at the beam edges. Secondary collimation systems for the electron beam take the form of cones attached to the treatment accessory tray of the gantry.
147
What is the half-life of gold 198?
2.7 days
## Footnote
Gold 198 is a popular replacement for radium 226 in permanent implants. It has a very short half-life of 2.7 days.
148
TomoTherapy differs from some other volumetric imaging techniques because it __________________________.
uses the same source for imaging and treating
## Footnote
The TomoTherapy unit is a combined linear accelerator and CT unit that uses the same source for imaging and treating. The unit can only treat and image in a helical fashion.
149
A single fraction of radiation to a brain metastasis would be which kind of stereotactic treatment?
Stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)
## Footnote
Single fraction using stereotactic radiation therapy is SRS.
150
Which structure is located approximately 2 cm anterior and 2 cm superior to the external auditory meatus?
Sella turcica
## Footnote
The sphenoid sinus is related superiorly to the sella turcica (which is approximately 2 cm anterior and 2 cm superior to the external auditory meatus) and the pituitary.
151
Wedge systems used include which of the following? (select two)
Universal
Global
Virtual
Hinge
Universal
Virtual
Standard wedge systems use externally mounted wedges that must be positioned on a tray above the patient. Treatment units using internal wedging methods allow for customizing the wedge angle for each treatment plan. One system uses a 60-degree universal wedge. Other systems use a virtual wedge system in which a dynamic, or moving, jaw starts at one side of the field and opens to a full field over the course of dose delivery.
Standard wedge systems use externally mounted wedges that must be positioned on a tray above the patient. Treatment units using internal wedging methods allow for customizing the wedge angle for each treatment plan. One system uses a 60-degree universal wedge. Other systems use a virtual wedge system in which a dynamic, or moving, jaw starts at one side of the field and opens to a full field over the course of dose delivery.
152
To avoid beam divergence from the tangential fields into the supraclavicualr field, which of the following methods can be used? (select two)
The foot of the couch is turned away from the collimator.
Use asymmetrical collimators and a single isocenter
153
A patient is prone for a total CNS setup. The PA spine field is treated at 100 cm SSD with a 6 x 34 cm field size. The RT/LT lateral brain fields are treated at 100 cm SAD with a 20 x 24 cm field size. Calculate the appropriate collator angle for the RT/LT lateral brain fields.
9.6 degrees
## Footnote
Collimator Angle = arctan(1/2 upper spine length/SSD)
Collimator Angle = arctan(17/100)
Collimator Angle = arctan(0.17)
Collimator Angle = 9.6o
154
If a 10 MV photon unit is employed at an 80.0 SSD for a 15.0 cm x 15.0 cm field size and the %DD at 10.0 cm depth is 74%, what new %DD is obtained at the same field size and depth for a 100.0 cm SSD?
76.4
155
Determine the equivalent square for a rectangular field with a width of 8.0 cm and a length of 15.0 cm.
10.3
156
If a patient set-up calls for the use of a wedge but it is inadvertently omitted, which of the following statements is true of the delivered dose?
Patient dose will increase
157
A patient has a blood pressure reading of 120 mm Hg systolic and 30 mm Hg diastolic. The reading for this person indicates he/she has:
Below normal diastolic pressure
158
Calculate the stop angle for a counterclockwise rotational arc treatment that has a start angle of 45 with an MU setting of 105 and a MU/degree setting of 1.50.
335 degrees
159
The total time over which radiation treatment is delivered is:
Protraction
160
The "Beam On" interlock of a linear accelerator is functional only when:
The treatment door is closed
161
After the start of a treatment, the Radiation Therapist notices that the proper wedge is not in place. The Radiation Therapist should:
Stop the treatment immediately and inform the Radiation Oncologist
162
A 10 x 10 matrix consists of ______ pixels.
100
163
Pixels in a digital image representing information contained in a volume of tissue in the patient are referred to as a:
voxel
164
The photoelectric effect occurs more frequently in tissues with a:
I. high atomic number
II. low atomic number
III. high Z number
IV. low Z number
I and III
165
In the SI system, an energy absorption of 1 J/kg of matter in the irradiated object equals which of the following?
1 Gy
166
The I in “CAUTION” represents
Indigestion
167
Common clinical features of spinal cord compression include all of the following EXCEPT:
headaches
radiating back pain
weakness
hesitancy and urgency
headaches
168
Which of the following is not a type of white blood cell?
Thrombocyte
169
Which tumor grade represents a highly aggressive tumor?
G3
170
The treatment of choice for spinal cord compressions is:
Radiation therapy
171
The treatment of choice for brain metastasis is:
Radiation therapy
172
The hockey stick field extends superiorly from to the bottom of the ischial tuberosity.
T-10
173
Which of the following is a specific characteristic of CML?
Philadelphia Chromosome
174
What is the dose/fraction schedule for TBI?
2 Gy, 6 fx, bid
13.5 Gy, 6 fx, bid
6 Gy, 2 fx, bid
all of the above
all of the above
175
Which artery do you check for the pulse of a child in CPR?
carotid
176
When treating with electrons, the carousel rotates to place a _________________ in the beam to spread it out.
scattering foil
177
Depth of maximum dose for a 15 MV beam is _________ below the skin surface.
3 cm
