Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

Autonomy

A

Right to refuse medical treatment including a radiographic procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is responsible for determining patients chief complaint or most important issue

A

Physicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Seven elements in producing complete history

A

1) localization
2) chronology
3) quality
4) severity
5) onset
6) aggravating or alleviating factors
7) associated manifestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Scheduling of exams

A

1) non con first (KUB)
2) IVU
3) BE
4) UGI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Assault

A

Threat of touching in an injurious manner (tone of voice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Battery

A

Unlawful touching of a person without consent (wrong pt, wrong part, took against will)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Libel

A

Defamation by written or printed words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Slander

A

Defamation by spoken words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tort

A

Intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Malpractice

A

When patient is injured due to error caused by health care provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

7 C’s of malpractice prevention

A

1) competence
2) compliance
3) charting
4) communication
5) confidentiality
6) courtesy
7) carefulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Respondeat superior

A

Let the master answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

The thing speaks for itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

5 steps of grief

A

1) denial
2) anger
3) bargaining
4) depression
5) acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pulmonary Artery (Swan-Ganz) Catheters

A
  • used for diagnosis of R and L ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders, and to monitor effects of medications
  • tip of catheter placed in pulmonary artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nasal Cannula

A

21% to 60% oxygen delivered using flow of 1 to 6 L/min for adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

IV levels above vein

A

Minimum 18 inches (45cm) to maximum 24 inches (60cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adult pulse rate

A

60-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Child pulse rate

A

90-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Infant pulse rate

A

80-120 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common site to take pulse when conscious

A

Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common site to take pulse when unconscious

A

Carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hypertension

A

High arterial bp
Above 140 mmHg systolic
Above 90 mmHg diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hypotension

A

Low arterial bp
Below 95 mmHg
Below 60 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Adult Normal BP

A

Systolic 110-140 mmHg

Diastolic 60-80 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Children Normal BP

A

Systolic 70-112

Diastolic 26-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Infants Normal BP

A

Systolic 60-105 mmHg

Diastolic 22-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Repertory rate for adults

A

12 to 20 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Repertory rate for children

A

30 to 60 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Spinal injuries

A

Horizontal beam lateral view xray of the spine should be obtained and cleared of C and L spine before patient moved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Syncope

A

Fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hyperglycemia

A
  • High blood sugar
  • Characterized by flushed, dry skin and mucous membrane, air hunger and fruity smelling breath, excessive thirst and urination
  • occurs slowly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hypoglycemia

A
  • low blood sugar
  • characterized by sweating, clammy, cold skin, nervousness and irritability, blurred vision
  • occurs rapidly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Arterial blood

A

Compression directly to the site or proximal to site, between the site and the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Venous blood

A

Compression to the site or distal to the site away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Lightheaded feeling after being recumbent for too long (ex. Trendelenburg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Epistaxis

A

Bleeding from nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ETT should no go past level of what

A

Carina

39
Q

How far superior should ETT stop from carina

A

5-7 cm

40
Q

At what level does carina bifurcate

A

T5

41
Q

What anatomy is effected by blow out fracture?

A

Orbital bones

42
Q

Smiths fracture

A

Hand displaced anteriorly

Fracture of distal end of radius

43
Q

Colles fracture

A

Posterior displacement of hand in relation to forearm

44
Q

Avulsion

A

Chip of bone pulled away from rest

45
Q

Bennets fracture

A

Fx at base of thumb (1st metacarpal)

46
Q

Jons fracture

A

Base of 5th metatarsal

47
Q

What is Medical aseptic technique used for

A

Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted

48
Q

How are microorganisms eliminated with medical aseptic technique

A

-microorganisms are eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction, and chemical disinfectants

49
Q

What is surgical aseptic technique

A

-Complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform pt care

50
Q

Sterile technique

A

Any procedure that involves catheterization of urinary bladder, tracheostomy care, dressing changes, penetration of skin

51
Q

First level of medical asepsis

A

Cleanliness/Sanitation

52
Q

Second level of medical asepsis

A
  • Equipment disinfection

- Destruction of pathogens through chemical materials

53
Q

Third level of medical asepsis

A
  • equipment sterilization

- treating items with heat, gas, or chemicals to make them germ free

54
Q

Fomites

A

Inanimate object that has made contact with infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment)

55
Q

Vehicles

A

Transmission of infectious agent that is indirect by means of fomite that touches a person’s body of is ingested

56
Q

Vectors

A

An arthropod (mosquito, flea, tick)

57
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

Hospital acquired (UTI)

58
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

Hospital acquired (UTI)

59
Q

Iatrogenic infection

A

Physician caused

60
Q

Ideopathic infection

A

Unknown cause

61
Q

Chain of infection

A
Infectious agent
Resevoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission 
Portal of entry 
Susceptible host
62
Q

How long should hand washing last

A

20 seconds

63
Q

How long should hand scrubbing last for sterile procedure

A

5 minutes

64
Q

What should be removed when preparing syringes

A

Air bubbles

65
Q

Operators dressed in sterile gowns pass how?

A

back to back

66
Q

What is a common disinfectant used in radiology department

A

Bleach- mixed with water in a 1:10 ratio

67
Q

Autoclaving

A

Steam sterilization

68
Q

Alcohol is not a disinfectant but what?

A

Antiseptic- prevents the growth of microorganisms but does not kill them

69
Q

Neutropenic Precautions (protective)

A

Reverse isolation

70
Q

Sterilization

A

Complete killing of all microorganisms

71
Q

Rectal IV height

A

No less than 18 inches (45 cm) and a maximum of 24 inches (60 cm) from site of introduction

72
Q

Rectal contrast position

A

Sims position- pt lies on left side with right leg drawn forward in front of the left

73
Q

Bolus injection aka

A

IV push

74
Q

Infusion administration aka

A

IV drip

75
Q

What is the single most commonly used contrast in rad?

A

Air

76
Q

Negative contrast agents

A

Uses gas to reduce or decrease the attenuating ability of the structures filled with gas

77
Q

Positive contrast agents

A

Increases the attenuating ability of the structures containing the positive contrast

78
Q

Osmolarity

A
  • Concentration of an osmotic solution
  • increased osmolarity of contrast increases reaction risk
  • ionic solutions have higher osmolarity than non-ionic
79
Q

Viscosity

A

Thickness of contrast media

80
Q

How to reduce viscosity of an ion?

A

Warm it up

81
Q

How much kilovoltage for double barium study?

A

Above 90

82
Q

How much kilovoltage for single contrast study?

A

100-125 kVp

83
Q

Gastrografin

A

Water soluble, iodine based positive contrast

84
Q

Creatinine values

A

0.7-1.3 mg/dL

85
Q

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

A

8-25 mg/dL

86
Q

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

90-120 mL/min/1.73 m sqaured

87
Q

Estimated GFR

A

Best test to measure kidney function and determine stage of kidney disease

88
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

From external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns

89
Q

Septic shock

A

Results from massive infection

90
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

Patients that suffer head or spinal trauma resulting in a failure of arterial resistance

91
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

From cardiac failure

92
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

From being injected with foreign protein, bee sting, or iodinated media

93
Q

Symptoms of contrast reaction

A

Increase in pulse rate

A fall in bp (hypotension) accompanied with itching, flushing, and shortness of breath