Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3rd Quarter > Pathophysiology Exam #2 > Flashcards

Pathophysiology Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What the two categories of bones that makes up the skull?

A

Neurocranium (brain case) and the Viscerocranium (face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the paired bones of the neurocranium?

A

Parietal bone and the temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the unpaired bones of the neurocranium?

A

Frontal bone, sphenoid bone, occipital bone and the ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the paired bones of the viscerocranium?

A

Maxilla bone, zygomatic bone, palatine bone, lacrimal bone and the nasal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the unpaired bones of the viscerocranium?

A

Mandible and the Vomer bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many total bones make up the skull (cranium) of the axial skeleton?

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If your looking at a superior view of the skull…. what is the view?

A

From the top looking down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the suture that separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones?

A

The Coronal Suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What suture line separates the right and left parietal bones?

A

The Sagittal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What suture line separates the occipital bone of the skull from the parietal bones?

A

The Lambdoid suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If your looking at a posterior view of the skull what are you looking at?

A

The back of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What other bones does the Lambdoid suture line separate the Occipital bone from?

A

The left and right temporal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the bone that is filled with air that conducts sound impulses from the outer ear to the inner ear. It is also part of the Temporal bone?

A

The Mastoid Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What paired bone does the first vertebrae (Atlas) of the vertebral column articulate with?

A

The Occipital condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the lateral view of the skull show?

A

The skull from a side view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What large bone of the skull forms the tops of the eye orbits?

A

The Frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the name of the suture line that separates the Temporal bone from the Parietal bone?

A

Squamous suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the name of the condyle in which the mandible articulates with the Temporal bone?

A

The Mandibular Condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Zygomatic arch is part of what bone?

A

The Temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The proper name of the jawbone is what?

A

The mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the name of the bone that is superior to the mandible located between the oral cavity and the nares?

A

The Maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the description of the word foramen?

A

Its an opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An anterior view of the skull is from what angle?

A

From the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a fissure of a bone?

A

A fairly wide separation between bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does a canal differ from a foramen or a fissure?

A

They are an elongated area in which something passes through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What part of the eye orbit does the Frontal bone contribute?

A

The roof of the orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What part of the eye orbit does the Sphenoid bone contribute?

A

Part of the roof and the lateral wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What two parts of the orbit of the eye does the Zygomatic bone contribute?

A

Part of the roof and the lateral wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What bone makes up the floor of the eye orbit?

A

The Maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What three bones compose the medial wall of the eye orbit?

A

The Lacrimal, Ethmoid and Palatine bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is the Infraorbital Foramen in the eye orbit?

A

No it is located below the orbit as part of the Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the name of the structures of the frontal bone that holds the inferior parts of the frontal lobes of the brain?

A

Left and Right Anterior Cranial Fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the importance of the Crista galli?

A

The dura mater that surrounds the brain attaches to the Crista galli which helps to hold the brain in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What bone is the Critsa Galli part of?

A

The Ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the name Crista galli mean?

A

Cocks Comb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The optic foramen is located within what unpaired bone of the skull?

A

Within the Lesser Wing of the Sphenoid Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the name of the structure in which the anterior posterior pituitary glands sit?

A

Sella turcica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the meaning of the name Sella turcica?

A

Turkish saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What bone is the Sella turcica part of?

A

The greater wing of the Sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the only part of the pituitary gland that is not surrounded by bone?

A

The most superior aspect-→if the pituitary enlarges its only option is to grow up and out of Sella turcica into the space that optic nerves lie.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Due to the anatomy, what deficit is created if the pituitary gland enlarges?

A

Visual field deficit due to its impeding upon the optic nerves on the Sella turcica’s superior aspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What two areas make up the unpaired Sphenoid bone?

A

Greater and Lesser Wing of the Sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where do the inferior parts of the temporal lobes of the brain sit?

A

Middle Cranial Fossa right and left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the opening that cranial nerve 8 passes through?

A

Internal acoustic meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where does the superior part of the spinal cord junction with the inferior part of the brain stem?

A

Foramen magnum-→junction between spinal cord and brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the largest opening of the skull?

A

Foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the inferior parts of the occipital lobes of the brain sit in?

A

Posterior cranial fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The Frontal sinuses are ____ - filled.

A

Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the inferior perspective of the skull?

A

From the bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What articulates with the Occipital condyle?

A

C1 atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In adults the Foramen lacerum is…

A

Filled with cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In what bone is the Carotid canal found?

A

Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What passes through the carotid canal?

A

Internal carotid artery and Sympathetic nerve plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In what bone is the External auditory meatus found?

A

Temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What passes through the External auditory meatus?

A

Sound waves to the eardrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In what bone is the Internal auditory meatus found?

A

Temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What passes through the Internal auditory meatus?

A

CN VII (facial exits) and CN VIII (auditory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Between what two bones is the Jugular foramen found?

A

Between the temporal and occipital bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What structures pass through the Jugular foramen?

A

Internal jugular vein (most venous blood from brain to right side of the heart), CN IX (glossopharyngeal, CN X (vagus), CN XI (spinal accessory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In what bone is the Optic foramen located?

A

Sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What structures pass through the Optic foramen?

A

CN II (optic) and the Ophthalmic artery (major artery that perfuse eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In what bone are the Superior orbital fissures located?

A

Sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What structures pass through the Superior orbital fissures?

A

CN III (oculomotor), CN IV (trochlear), CN V (trigeminal ophthalmic division), CN VI (abducens), Ophthalmic veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What bone does the Foramen magnum pass through?

A

Occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What structures pass through the Occipital bone via the Foramen magnum?

A

Spinal cord/inferior medulla oblongata, CN XI (spinal accessory), Vertebral arteries (pass upwards…also passes blood to brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What separates the right and left hemisphere of the brain?

A

Longitudinal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a fissure?

A

A wide and deep separation between anatomical structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the Longitudinal fissure?

A

It runs the entire length of the brain separating the right and left hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What separates the Parietal lobe from the Frontal lobe?

A

The Central sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a sulcus?

A

an indentation of the surface of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the very front part of the Frontal lobe called?

A

The Prefrontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are gyri(gyrus)?

A

Up foldings on the surface of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is the Pre central gyrus located?

A

Located in the Frontal lobe, it is anterior to the Central sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where is the Post central gyrus located?

A

Located in the Parietal lobe, it is posterior to the Central sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the specific anatomical separation between the Parietal and the Occipital lobes of the brain?

A

There is no specific anatomical separation. The division is based on function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the Lateral fissure of the brain?

A

The Lateral fissure separates the Temporal lobe from all of the Frontal lobe and most of the Parietal lobes of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the Corpus callosum?

A

Located in the middle of the brain, consist of axons of tracks from one cerebral hemisphere to the other cerebral hemisphere, it connects the right and left hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the Corpus callosum function?

A

Allows the right and left brain a connection so each hemisphere knows what the other hemisphere is doing. If severed the right and left sides of the brain/body do know communicate with the other side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the largest component of the Diencephalon?

A

the Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the 4 components of the Diencephalon?

A

Thalamus

Hypthalamus

Epithalamus
Subthalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where does the brainstem end?

A

The foramen magnum of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are 4 components of the Brainstem?

A

Midbrain Pons Medulla oblongata Reticular formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Ascending and descending spinal tracts pass this area of the Brainstem that is the most inferior of the 4 categories of the Brainstem.

A

Medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the structure located in the anterior inferior medulla oblongata?

A

Pyramidal decussation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the function of the Pyramidal decussation?

A

It is the area in the lower medulla where many descending somatic motor pathways cross over and continue descending on the opposite side of the spinal cord. They decussate or cross over —–>(hence Pyramidal DECUSSATION!) and continue descending. Because of the Pyramidal decussation, motor centers on the right side of the brain can regulate moment on the left side of the body and motor control centers on the left side of the brain can regulate movement on the right side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the function of the Olive on/in the Medulla oblongata?

A

Involved in the transmission of sound impulses and balance. Inner ear to higher parts of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the?

A

Medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What cranial nerves have their origin in the medulla?

A

9(glossopharyngeal), 10(vagus), 11(spinal accessory), 12(Hypoglossal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the function of the Nucleus cuneatus and the Nucleus gracilis?

A

Important areas of the Medulla oblongata, they are components of ascending sensory pathways. These ascending sensory pathways pass through either the Nucleus cuneatus or the Nucleus gracilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the related functions of the Raphe magnus nucleus, Reticularis paragigantocellularis of the Medulla and the Periaqueductal gray matter of the Pons?

A

These structures are concerned with modulation of pain transmission. They have lots of opioid(kappa delta) receptors and many opioid peptides are found within the synapses of this area. ****PAIN TRASMISSION PATHWAYS*****

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

When individual nuclei within the brain is referred too what is the reference?

A

clusters of gray matter within the brain, nerve cell bodies and their dendrites where probably axons synapse with dendrites. ****EACH SPECIFIC NUCLEUS HAS ITS OWN FUNCTION*****

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are 5 autonomic reflex centers(nuclei) found within the medulla?

A
  1. Cardiovascular/vasomotor center 2. Swallowing center 3. Vomiting center 4. Coughing center 5. Sneezing center *****there is sensory input which activates these autonomic reflex centers leading to regulation of sympathetic and parasympathetic outflows of these centers****
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Where in the Medulla oblongata is the Chemoreceptor trigger zone located and what is it associated with?

A

CTZ is found in the 4th ventricle of the Medulla where CSF is located. It is highly associated with nausea and vomiting. Many receptors in the CTZ that respond to noxious stimuli which lead to nausea which can lead to vomiting. *****MANY ANTI-NAUSEA ANTI-VOMITING ARE AIMED AT CHEMORECPTORS FOUND HERE*****

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What cranial nerves are associated with the Solitary nucleus?

A

CN# 9(glossopharyngeal) and CN# 10(vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What cranial nerves are associated with the Nucleus ambiguus?

A

CN#9(glossopharyngeal), #10(vagus) and #11(spinal accessories)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

As related to these two structures and cranial nerves, where is the location of important baroreceptors which are involved in the regulation of central BP?

A

CN#9 associated with baroreceptors in the carotids and CN#10 associated with baroreceptors in the aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

As the sensory fibers of CN #9 and 10 approach the medulla they combine to form the _____ which terminates into the _____.

A

tractus solitarius; nucleus solitarius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Trace the nerve pathway of high blood pressure.

A

Sensory baroreceptors in the aortic arch(CN#10) and in the carotids(CN#9) are stimulated and excited—>they send impulses up the fibers—>the fibers join and form the tracts solitarius as they approach the nucleus solitarius—>impulses are then sent to the Nucleus ambiguus(which is the CV control center)—>alpha 2 receptors are excited which decreases sympathetic outflow and increases parasympathetic outflow(HR decreases, blood vessels dilate bringing BP down) BARORECPTOR RESPONSE REGULATES BP ON A SEC-BY-SEC BASIS!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Trace the nerve pathway of low blood pressure.

A

Sensory baroreceptors in the aortic arch(CN#10) and in the carotids(CN#9) are inhibited and not excited—>they send less impulses up the fibers—>the fibers join and form the tracts solitarius as they approach the nucleus solitarius—>fewer impulses are then sent to the Nucleus ambiguus(which is the CV control center)—>alpha 2 receptors are no longer excited so there is an increase in outflow of sympathetic and a decrease in parasympathetic outflow(HR increases, SV increases, strength of contraction increases) BARORECPTOR RESPONSE REGULATES BP ON A SEC-BY-SEC BASIS!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which nerve transmits from baroreceptors in the aortic arch?

A

sensory fibers and CN X (Vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which nerve transmits from internal carotid baroreceptors?

A

sensory fibers and CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the 3 important neuro tracts that pass through the Pons?

A
  1. Ascending(Sensory) tracts to higher brain centers 2. Descending(Motor) tracts from higher brain centers 3. Tracts connecting the Cerebrum to the Cerebellum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What 4 cranial nerves originate in the Pons?

A

5, 6, 7, 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Besides the important tracts and the ordination of CN, what are 3 other important contents of the Pons?

A
  1. Pneumotaxic respiratory center 2. Periaqueductal gray matter 3. part of the Locus ceruleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the function of the Periaqueductal gray matter that is found in the Pons?

A

Concerned with modulation of PAIN TRANSMISSION. Lots of opioid receptors (Mu, Kappa, Delta) and many opioid peptides are found at the synapses within these areas. o Part of pain modulation pathways. Built in systems for decreasing the severity of pain transmissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the function of the part of the Locus ceruleus that is located in the Pons?

A

major neurotransmitter is NE § One part of the brain that keeps us awake and alert when it is active. § When it is not active or inhibited, alertness decreases, and allows sleep to occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What 2 CN have their nuclei origin in the Midbrain?

A

3, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the 2 major divisions of the Midbrain?

A

Tectum(the roof) Tegmentum(the floor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the name of the “four twin bodies” located in the Tectum of the Midbrain?

A

Corpora quadrigemina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The Corpora quadrigemina is further divided into 2 parts what are they?

A

Inferior colliculi Superior colliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the function of the Inferior colliculi located in the Corpora quadrigemina of the Tectum in the Midbrain?

A

neurons from inner ear synapse before transmitting impulses to primary auditory center Ø Sound impulses from the inner ear are transmitted thru the inferior colliculi before they get to the primary auditory center (where the sound is interpreted). *sounds are not interpreted in the inferior colliculi, they just pass through on their way to primary auditory centers*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the function of the Superior colliculi located in the Corpora quadrigemina of the Tectum in the Midbrain?

A

visual reflexes and visual tracking of moving objects; receive impulses from inferior colliculi, eyes, skin, and cerebrum -Involved in tracking images with your eyes -Input into the superior colliculi, from CN II, vision. *IF, someone comes behind me and taps me on the back, you have to have an intact superior colliculi in order to turn. Ø EX. duck hunting*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What 3 anatomical significant contents are in the Tegmentum of Midbrain?

A

Ascending tracts Red nuclei Substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the function of the Ascending tracts that pass through the Tegmentum of the Midbrain?

A

MANY Ascending SENSORY tracts pass thru the floor of the midbrain (Tegmentum) to the higher brain centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the path of the Ascending tracts that pass through the Tegmentum of the Midbrain?

A

SENSORY tracts start in the SPINAL CORD, then the MEDULLA, then the PONS, then they pass thru the floor of the MIDBRAIN (TEGMENTUM), on the way to the higher brain centers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the function of the Red nuclei found in the Tegmentum of the Midbrain?

A

—origin of rubrospinal tract, an extrapyramidal motor tract (unconscious coordination of movements)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the function of the Substantia nigra located in the Tegmentum of the Midbrain?

A

—origin of nigrostriatal tract, which terminates on corpus striatum of cerebrum; part of basal nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The Cerebral peduncles are also part of the Midbrain, what is their function?

A

descending tracts from cerebrum to spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Where is the Reticular Formation and Reticular Activating system located?

A

Clouds of gray matter distributed throughout the brainstem…receive impulses from nerves that innervate face (eyes, skin, ears, nose, etc.) § NO one place to point to, that shows the reticular formation. -Widely distributed throughout the brainstem and throughout the pons and probably the diencephalon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The reticular activating system receives info from where?

A

visual auditory olfactory sensosomatic limbic(emotional) cerebral cortex(mental)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The ___ ___ is located in the RAS and it is related to the consciousness and sleep/wake cycle.

A

Locus ceruleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What major neurotransmitter is believed to be involved in the sleep/wake/consciousness cycle of the RAS?

A

NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How does NE affect the sleep/wake/consciousness cycle of the RAS?

A

-When the reticular formation is excited, that leads to a state of wakefulness, alertness and higher brain centers. -When inhibited, those excitatory sensations are no longer transmitted to higher brain centers, and that leads to a state of sleepfulness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The sleep/wake/consciousness cycle is highly associated with the ___ ___ ___ located throughout the Midbrain.

A

Reticular Activating System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The major control of the respiratory cycle is in the ___ and the ___.

A

MEDULLA, PONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the sequence events that occurs related to inspiration and the Medullary Inspiratory Center.

A
  1. spontaneous active neurons(Meaning they spontaneously initiate and discharge action potentials) transmits impulses from MIC towards the spinal cord.
  2. This collateral nerve synapses with the phrenic nerve which innervates the diaphragm.
  3. when the diaphragm is ineervated by the phenic nerve, it contracts(becomes shorter) and pulls the lungs downward, increasing the longitudinal size of the thorax(lungs).
  4. The other collateral continues on down the SC and synapses w/ intercostal nerves to the external intercostal muscles.
  5. When the external intercostal muscles contract, they pull the ribs UP and OUT, which increases the anterior-posterior size of the thoracic and lungs. v It increases the size of the lungs, which increases the VOLUME in the lungs.
  6. As intrapulmonary volume increases, the intrapulmonary pressure decreases. Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure, AIR FOLLOWS THE PRESSURE GRADIENT. Air moves thru the tracheobronchial tree, into the alveoli.
  7. AIR STOPS when the AIR EQUILIBRATES.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the other location and sequence of events occurring as the impulse is innervating the Phrenic/Intercostal nerve?

A

At the same time that impulses are being sent down to the phrenic n. and intercostal nerves; impulses are also being transmitted to the pontine pneumotaxic center [PPC]. 1. Once the PPC is excited, it sends an inhibiting impulses to the MIC. 2. Once inhibiting is stops sending impulses to the phrenic/intercostal nerves. 3. When the diaphragm is no longer excited, it relaxes, or domes back up. Pushes the lungs up. External intercostal muscles relax, and the ribs move DOWN and IN. 4. THIS decreases the size and volume of the lungs. Intrapulmonary pressure INCREASES and moves passively out of the tracheobronchial tree with the pressure gradient 5. When the pressures equilibrate, the movement of AIR stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the function of the Medullary Expiratory Center?

A

Normally expiration is a quiet, passive process that occurs when the signal to inspire is inhibited. § MEC is activated when the person needs to make a STRONG, ACTIVE expiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the sequence of events involved with the Medullary Expiratory Center?

A
  1. When it does become excited, it transmits impulses to the INTERNAL INTERCOSTAL NERVES that innervate the INTERNAL INTERCOSTAL MUSCLES.
  2. When the internal intercostal muscles are excited, that REALLY pulls the ribs DOWN and IN. If the ribs were really pulled DOWN and IN, the volume of the lungs decrease even more, the pressure increases even more for an ACTIVE outflow of air *USUALLY does not come in to play except for active, forceful expiration.*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are the 6 reflexes/regulators involved with respiration?

A
  1. Central chemoreceptors 2. Peripheral chemoreceptors 3. Stretch receptors 4. Proprioceptors 5. Receptors for touch, temperature and painful stimuli 6. Higher brain centers where our emotions reside
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Where are the central chemoreceptors involved in the regulation of respiration located?

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How does the central chemoreceptors involved in the regulation of respiration function?

A

Primarily monitors pH of CSF § pH of CSF is determined (on an ongoing, breath-by-breath basis) by the amount of CO2 in the body fluids (CO2 diffuses very readily into blood and CSF). § As CO2 accumulates in CSF, and the pH of CSF drops down to the acid side, which is detected by the central chemoreceptors;. § Positive input to the respiratory centers to increase rate and depth of ventilations. § As rate and depth of ventilation increases, then the excess CO2 should be exhaled, bringing the pH of the CSF back into a normal range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?

A

Located in the aortic arch and the bifurcation of the carotid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How does the peripheral chemoreceptors involved in the regulation of respiration function?

A

o Primarily monitors pO2 at these locations. o Strategic location: blood has just returned to the lungs where it has been oxygenated, then ejected into the aorta, and then onto the carotids. o pO2 has to drop below ~60mmHg (some references say ~50) before there is any response from the peripheral chemoreceptors. o When they are excited, activated, from the low pO2; that has an excitatory affect on the respiratory centers, to INREASE rate and depth of respirations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

So what does the central chemoreceptors and the peripheral chemoreceptors monitor in relation to the regulation of respiration. Which is more involved in the minute-by-minutes regulation of respiration?

A

central chemoreceptors = CO2 peripheral chemoreceptors = pO2 *For normal people, the CENTRAL chemoreceptors that has a much more minute-to-minute role in regulating respiratory cycles than the PERIPHERAL chemoreceptors.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is another name for the stretch receptors that help regulate respiration?

A

Hering-Breuer reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Where are stretch receptors located?

A

Within lung tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the function of stretch receptors?

A

monitors the stretch of the lungs. Inhibits(negative) affect * As the lungs expand, those stretch receptors are excited, and as they become excited they send an inhibitory impulse to the MIC to STOP INSPIRATION to prevent OVER-INFLATION of the lungs.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the function of the Proprioceptors?

A

involved in muscle tension, has a + affect on respiration. As tension INCREASES, that tends to have a positive impact on INREASING rate and depth of respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What affect does Receptors for touch, temperature and painful stimuli have on respiration?

A

Common response of pain = hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What affect do the higher brain centers of the body have on respiration?

A

o We can consciously alter (to some extent) rate and depth of ventilations. o Fairly common response is change of rate and depth of ventilations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What two nerves are collaterals from the MIC?

A

phrenic nerve intercostal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What two structures do the collateral nerves from the MIC innervate?

A

phrenic nerve —> diaphragm intercostal nerve —> external intercostal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

When the external intercostal muscle is innervated what happens?

A

When the external intercostal muscles contract, they pull the ribs UP and OUT, which increases the anterior-posterior size of the thoracic and lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

When excited, what type of impulse does the Pontine Pneumotaxic Center send to the Medullary Insp. Center?

A

Which excites the PPC. When the PPC is excited, it then sends INHIBITORY impulses to the MIC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What happens once the external intercostal muscles relax?

A

The ribs move down and in. THIS decreases the size and volume of the lungs. Intrapulmonary pressure INCREASES and moves passively out of the tracheobronchial tree with the pressure gradient. When the pressures equilibrate, the movement of AIR stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Normally expiration is a ___ and ___ process that occurs when the signal to inspire is inhibited.

A

quiet and passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

The Medullary Expiratory Center is activated when the person needs to make a ___ and ___ expiration.

A

strong and active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the 4 major parts of the Diencephalon?

A
  1. Thalamus 2. Sub thalamus 3. Epi thalamus 4. Hypothalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Where in the brain does the Diencephalon sit?

A

BELOW the CORPUS CALLOSUM, right below the lateral ventricle

151
Q

What is located between the 2 lobes of the Thalamus?

A

the 3rd ventricle

152
Q

The _____ is the largest part of the Diencephalon.

A

Thalamus; its not as large as the 2 lateral ventricles

153
Q

What is the primary function of the Thalamus?

A

The Thalamus is a Sensory Relay Center.

154
Q

Define how the Thalamus functions as a Sensory Relay Center.

A

-Sensations ascend up the SC from various parts of the body. -at some point these sensations terminate in the Thalamus at their specify nuclei -from there they synapse with other pathways that relays the sensory information to the appropriate place in the brain ***most important role of Thalamus is once the sensation reaches it, it must know where in the higher brain to send the impulse*****

155
Q

Almost all sensory input projects to the thalamus and then are projected to the _____ _____ for _____ _____.

A

cerebral cortex; conscious recognition

156
Q

What fills the third ventricle which is located between the two lobes of the Thalamus?

A

CSF

157
Q

What is the function of the Lateral geniculate bodies, and where are they located?

A

Located in the thalamus their function is associated with CN#2-Visual Impulses/Visual Pathways -CN II have their origin in rods and cones of the retina -When they enter the brain, CN II stops at the lateral geniculate bodies. - Then there are synapses w/ neurons that continue from the lateral geniculate body, back to primary visual centers and the occipital lobe.

158
Q

What is the function of the Medial geniculate bodies, and where are they located?

A

Located in the thalamus § associated with CN VIII Auditory input § CN VIII fibers will terminate first in the medial geniculate bodies § Then synapse with neurons that transmit the auditory impulses to the primary auditory centers in the temporal lobes.

159
Q

What is the function of the Ventral posterior and medial nuclei and where are they located?

A

Located in the thalamus There function is related to most other sensory input

160
Q

What is the Sub Thalamus associated with?

A

Its part of the basal nuclei

161
Q

What are the two major parts of the Epi Thalamus?

A
  1. Haenular nucleus 2. Pineal body
162
Q

What is the function of the Haenular nucleus part of the Epithalamus which is a part of the Diencephalon?

A

—part of limbic system; PLAYS A MAJOR ROLE in emotional and visceral responses to odors § EX: “ruptured gut in a trauma unit”

163
Q

What is the function of the Pineal body which is a part of the Epithalamus which is a part of the Diencephalon?

A

body—secretes melatonin(MAJOR SOURCE OF MELATONIN); function unknown human, possibly related to onset of puberty § melatonin is secreted during times of darkness v suppressed by light also somehow is involved in the estrous cycle of animals

164
Q

What are the two major parts of the Hypothalamus?

A

Anterior Pituitary and the Posterior Pituitary

165
Q

What is the function of the Hypothalamus?

A

The function of the Hypothalamus is to regulate the Anterior and the Posterior Pituitary glands

166
Q

If the Hypothalamus is abnormal, the _____ _____ will have abnormal function.

A

Pituitary Gland

167
Q

What is the anatomical structure that connects the anterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus?

A

The anatomical structure is the infundibulum

168
Q

What is another name for the anterior pituitary gland?

A

adenohypothesis

169
Q

What is the relationship between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland?

A

hormones from hypothalamus influence synthesis and secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary gland

170
Q

What system connects the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland that helps carry out their functions?

A

hypothalamohypophosial portal system

171
Q

What is a portal system?

A

one that begins in a capillary network and ends in a capillary network and those two networks are connected by a vein

172
Q

How does the Hypothalamohypophosial portal system work.

A

-Capillary networks from the hypothalamus join together to form a portal vein. -this vein travels down the Infundibulum and terminates in another capillary network in the anterior pituitary gland -through this portal system, hormones that are synthesized in the hypothalamus can be transmitted and bind to receptors located in the anterior pituitary gland to regulate hormone synthesis and secretion

173
Q

SO, how are hormones from the anterior pituitary first regulated?

A

BY hormones from the hypothalamus. *HORMONES (from hypothalamus)-hypothalamohypophosial portal system -anterior pituitary-regulate synthesis and secretion of specific hormones from the anterior pituitary*

174
Q

What is the corresponding anterior pituitary response to these hypothalamus hormones: Growth hormone releasing hormone

A

Growth hormone synthesis and secretion

175
Q

What is the corresponding anterior pituitary response to these hypothalamus hormones: Growth hormone inhibiting hormone (somatostatin)

A

Inhibition of growth hormone synthesis and secretion

176
Q

What is the corresponding anterior pituitary response to these hypothalamus hormones: Thyroid stimulating hormone releasing hormone

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone synthesis and secretion

177
Q

What is the corresponding anterior pituitary response to these hypothalamus hormones: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone releasing hormone

A

ACTH synthesis and secretion

178
Q

What is the corresponding anterior pituitary response to these hypothalamus hormones: Gonadotrophin releasing hormone

A

Follicle stimulating hormone and Luteinizing hormone synthesis and secretion

179
Q

What is the corresponding anterior pituitary response to these hypothalamus hormones: Prolactin releasing hormone

A

Prolactin synthesis and secretion

180
Q

What is the corresponding anterior pituitary response to these hypothalamus hormones: Prolactin inhibiting hormone

A

Inhibition of Prolactin synthesis and secretion

181
Q

What connects the posterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus?

A

hypothalamohypophosial tract

182
Q

What is a tract?

A

bundle of axons and their myelin sheaths

183
Q

What is the relationship between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Nerve cell bodies located in the nuclei of the hypothalamus have axon bodies that extend down the hypothalamohypophosial tract and terminate in the posterior pituitary gland. *hormones produced in the hypothalamus are transmitted through the axoplasm, then released from the posterior pituitary gland through action potentials*

184
Q

What are two hormones that are produced in the hypo plasm that is released by the posterior pituitary gland?

A
  1. Anti diuretic hormone(ADH)—>also known as vasopressin
  2. Oxytocin
185
Q

What is the function of ADH as related to its relationship with the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary gland?

A

Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus monitor osmolality of body fluids. Increased osmolality causes osmoreceptors to secrete ADH from posterior pituitary gland. Decreased osmolality causes osmoreceptors to inhibit secretion of ADH from posterior pituitary gland. ADH secretion causes water reabsorbtion in the renal tubules for hyper osmolality ADH inhibits water reabsorbtion in the renal tubes for hypo osmolality Body osmolality ~300

186
Q

What is the function of oxytocin?

A

Oxytocin synthesized in hypothalamus and stored and secreted from posterior pituitary. Stimulus includes uterine contraction and stimulation of nipples. Oxytocin causes more uterine contraction and contraction of smooth muscles of mammary ducts for milk expression

187
Q

What are the other autonomic centers that are located in the diencephalon?

A

o Autonomic centers-§ Neurons from higher brain centers synapse with autonomic centers in the hypothalamus. § Neurons from hypothalamus synapse with autonomic neurons in brainstem and spinal cord for control of heart rate, vasoconstriction/vasodilatation, urination, peristalsis, and others § Thus, hypothalamus coordinates emotional effects on physical responses (e.g., stress, anger, joy,sexual pleasure, etc.) o Swallowing center o Temperature regulation center: controls shivering and sweating o Hunger and satiety centers o Coordinates sleep-wake cycle with reticular activating system

188
Q

Where is the Optic chasm located and what is it associated with?

A

It is located right below the hypothalamus and right above the pituitary gland It is associated with CN#2-the optic nerve

189
Q

What happens if the pituitary gland becomes enlarged?

A

The pituitary gland which is surrounded on 3 sides by the bones of the Sellica turcia if it becomes enlarged has no other place to go but to push up on the optic chasm causing visual disturbances

190
Q

What separates the right and left cerebrum hemispheres?

A

Longitudinal fissure

191
Q

Where is the precentral gyrus located?

A

Precentral gyrus:located anteriorly to the Central sulcus, in the Frontal lobe.

v aka,PRIMARY MOTOR CORTEX

192
Q

Where is the postcentral gyrus located?

A

Postcentral gyrus: located posteriorly to the Central sulcus, in the Parietal lobe.

v aka, the PRIMARY SENSORY CORTEX

193
Q

Inward foldings of brain tissue is called?

A

Inward foldings = sulcus (singular), sulci (plural)

194
Q

Outward foldings of brain tissue is called?

A

Gyrus (Gyri – plural): the upfoldings on the surface of the brain.

195
Q

Where is the prefrontal lobe located?

A

The prefrontal lobe is located in the anterior part of the frontal lobe

196
Q

What separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?

A

Central sulcus

197
Q

What separates the temporal lobe from rest of cerebrum?

A

Lateral fissure

198
Q

How are the occipital lobe and the parietal lobe delineated?

A

THERE IS NOT ANY SPECIFIC ANATOMIC DEMARCATION THAT CLEARLY DELINEATES PARIETAL AND OCCIPITAL LOBES. Division is based more on function than it is on a specific anatomic demarcation

199
Q

What is the function of the corpus collsum?

A

consists of axons of tracts, connect the R cerebrum hemisphere to the L. And L to R. So one side of the brain will know what’s going on with the other side.

200
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Frontal lobe?

A
  1. Prefrontal lobe
  2. Pre motor area
  3. Pre central gyrus(primary motor cortex)
201
Q

What is the function of the prefrontal lobe of the frontal lobe?

A

Its the area of the brain that is responsible for PERSONALITY (creative talents, abstract reasoning talents, mathematical talents, and our “ARTSY-FARTSY talents.

*If someone loses their function of the prefrontal lobes, they lose their personality and all the above*

202
Q

What are the characteristics of Left prefrontal dominant people?

A

L prefrontal lobe dominant:

v VERY organized

v VERY detailed oriented

v (usually) have high mathematical/ scientific reasoning abilities

v (most) people are R hand dominant

203
Q

What are the charcteristics of Right prefrontal dominant people?

A

R prefrontal lobe dominant:

v (sometimes) drives L prefrontal lobe people crazy

v artsy-fartsy people

v (sometimes) rather disorganized and disheveled

v produce beautiful art, music, and creative designs

v (often) they are L handed

204
Q

What is associated with the Premotor area of the frontal lobe?

A

Broca’s premotor speech area (left frontal lobe in most people)

205
Q

What is the function of the Precentral gyrus(primary motor cortex)?

A

origin of many upper motor neurons for lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts for conscious muscular movements

*MOTOR HOMUNCULUS:the larger the body part or area, the more muscles that have to carry out very carefully synchronized function*

206
Q

List the areas of the body from lateral to medial that are associated with the primary motor cortex and the motor humonculus.

A

The upper body is in the lateral portions of the primary motor cortex, while the lower body is in the medial portions.

Lateral:Pharyanx, tongue, face, lips, jaw……..hip,knee,ankle,toes:Medial

207
Q

MUSCLES ON THE Right SIDE OF THE BODY ARE REGULATED BY

the?

A

Left primary motor cortex

208
Q

Muscles on the left side of the body are regulated by the?

A

right primary motor cortex

209
Q

What makes the Left:Right brain motor control possible?

A

THE DECUSSATION OF PYRAMID IN THE INTERIOR/ INFERIOR

MEDULLA

210
Q

Almost all motor movements have their orgin in the ___ ____ ____.

A

primary motor cortex

211
Q

What is the purpose of the primary motor cortex?

A

PURPOSE IS: pre-plan, presequence, pre-organize muscle movements

212
Q

What originates in the primary motor cortex that is involved in mortor responses of the body?

A

The descending pathways that descend from the brain to the SC and then synapse with mucles throughout the body to bring about motor movements.

213
Q
A

motor;sensory

214
Q

What are the 3 main divisions of the parietal lobe?

A
  1. Postcentral gyrus(sensory motor cortex)
  2. Sensory association areas
  3. Wernicke’s sensory speech area (left parietal lobe in most people)

*Somatic Sensory Areas*

215
Q

What is the function of the Postcentral gyrus?

A

primary somatic(sensory) cortex -termination

of tertiary neurons for most sensory pathways (except visual and

auditory); conscious interpretation and localization of stimuli on surface

of body

216
Q

What is the function of the Sensory Association Area?

A

Sensations are recived from the primary sensory cortex, Sensory association area prepare that sensation with previous experience

with the SAME SENSATION AND begins to determine the

relative significance of the sensation and what the brain and the body need to do about those sensations

217
Q

What is the function of Wernicke’s area?

A

Wernicke’s sensory speech area (left parietal lobe in most people)—

interpretation of visual and auditory words

218
Q

What is the primary sensory pathway?

A

ascending sensory tracts stops first at the thalamus

o then the thalamus directs those sensations to parts of the brain that

can best deal w/ that specific sensation

o sensations from various parts of the body (primarily the surface of the

body) are first transmitted here, and then again in the sensory association center, sensations are stored in the sensory association area o compares a given sensation with previous experience with that sensation

o determines the relative significance of the sensation

o and begins to decide what the brain needs to do, what the response needs to be, to a given sensation

219
Q

How does the Sensory Association Area compare sensory info?

A

the more experience a person has with the experience, the more attention the brain pays to it; if a person has repetitive sensations, over and over and over, then the brain is going to pay more attention to the repetitive sensation than then other o sensations that are likely to be more detrimental to physiologic existence get more attention than

relatively minor, non-harmful sensations get

220
Q

The Primary Sensory Cortex is also associated with the Sensory Humonculus. How is it organized from Lateral to Medial?

A

Lateral:intra abdominal, pharynx, tongue, lips, gum……hip, leg, foot, toes:Medial

221
Q

What can be expected with people who have left sided strokes?

A
222
Q

In what lobe is the Primary visual cortex?

A

Occipital lobe

223
Q

Whre is the termination of the optic pathways?

A

Primary visual cortex

224
Q

Where is the Visual association area and what is its fuction?

A

It lies adjacent to the primary visual cortex and its funciton is to compare visual imput with previous input and recognition, BUT NOT INTERPRETATION!

225
Q

Where is the origin os the CN#2 the optic nerve?

A

Rods and cones of the retina

226
Q

What intially happens when we see an image?

A
  • The image is seen and tranmited via nerve fibers of CN#2 first to the thalamus
  • Then from the thalamus to the primary visual cortex(the primary visual cortex is where the image is seen but not interpreted)
  • the image is tranmitted from the primary visual cortex to the visual association area
  • the visual association area compares that image with previous experiences with that image; the VAA starts making a decision about the significance of that image and how much attention the brain needs to pay to it
  • depending on what the image is, the VAA often transmits it to other parts of the brain for final processing; for example if its a word it must go to Wernicke’s area for actual interpretatino of the word
227
Q

What occurs in the Primary Visual Cortex?

A

The image is seen but not interpreted

228
Q

What happens in the Visual associaton area?

A

The image is compared with previous experiences and a decison is made if the brain needs to pay attention to it. If so the VAA transmits it to the part of the brain associated with it for final processing

229
Q

What is the function of Wernicke’s area of the brain?

A

Wwernicke’s area is invovled in the the actual interpretation of the word that was recieved from the optic nerve to the Primary visual cortex

230
Q

What is the fuction of Broca’s area and where is it located?

A

Broca’s area is located in the frontal lobe; it is the motor area for speaking

231
Q

What is the sequence of events related to seeing a word, understanding that word and then speaking the word.

A
  1. The image of the “WORD” is transmitted through the pupils to the rods and cones of the retina(the origin of CN#2-optic nerve_
  2. Action potential impulses transmit the image through CN#2 fibers and they terminate in the lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus
  3. In the thalamus, they synapse with other neurons that extend from the lateral geniculate bodies back to the primary visual cortex
  4. In the primary visual cortex, the image of the “WORD” is seen only, no interpretation there!
  5. The image is transmitted to the visual association which compares and recognizes the “WORD” from prevous associations.
  6. The image is then transmitted to Wernicke’s area for final interpretation of the “WORD”
  7. The “WORD” is chosen in Wernicke’s area and is then transmitted to Broaca’s area(the motor area for speaking, in the frontal lobe).
  8. Broca’s area transmits the impulse to the primary motor cortex(according to the handout, the muscles involved with speaking ar on the lateral sides).
  9. The primary motor cortex excites the nerve pathways—>to the muscles that are involved with speaking
232
Q

If a person has a dysfunctional Wernicke’s area, that then are said to have? because of what? what is the S&S?

A

receptive aphasia;

d/t ischemia,hypoxia or stroke;

they cannot understand spoken or written words

233
Q

Someone with a lesion in the Broca’s area with a normal Wernickes area is said to have what?why?

A

they have expressive aphasia

they can understand spoken or written words they just cannot inititate the sequence of muscle activities involved with speaking that word

234
Q
A
235
Q

What is the sequence of events of repeating a word that you have heard spoken?

A

§ Sound waves enter the inner ear (CN VIII)

§ CN VIII terminates below the nucleus of thalamus

§ Synapses with pathways that transmit that sound, from the thalamus to the primary auditory cortex (in the temporal lobe)

§ Primary auditory cortex hears the sound but does not interpret the sound

§ Sound is then transmitted to the auditory association area, which associates that sound with previous experience with that sound, and begins to determine the relative significance of that sound

§ Depending on what the sound is, determines where that sound will transmit for final interpretation

§ IF the sound is perceived as a word, it is transmitted to Wernicke’s area

§ If you are going to speak the word, its chosen in the Wernicke’s area

§ Transmitted to Broca’s area, which transmits it to the primary motor cortex

236
Q

Where is the primary auditory area located?

A

Temporal lobe(left temporal for most people)

*termination of auditory pathways*

237
Q

What is the function of the auditory association area?

A

association of auditory input with previous input and recognition, but not interpretation of sounds

238
Q

Where is the Basal Nuclei located and what is its function?

A

Located in many parts of the brain(intergrated with primary moter cortex and their pre-motor areas in the crebral hemispheres);

work together to regulate skeletal muscle movements operating at the UNCONSCIOUS LEVEL—>as opposed to primary motor cortex which is conscious muscle movement

*all components have to be functional in order for normal skeletal muscle movement to occur*

239
Q

Where is the nigrostriatal tract located and what is its function?

A
  • nigrostriatal tract is located in the midbrain
  • originates with the substantia nigra, where the nerve cell bodies are.

§ Extends upward into the cerebral hemispheres, and synapses on the caudate nucleus.

§ The neurotransmitter released at that synapse is DOPAMINE

240
Q

The Substantia nigra is part of the _____ _____, it is located in the _____ and its fuction is?

A
  • basal nuclei
  • midbrain
  • orgin of the nigrostrital tract with nerve cells that produce dopamine that synapse on the caudate nucleus
241
Q

Where is the Subthalamic nuclei located?

A

diencephalon

242
Q

What is the result of the release of the specific neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal tract?

A

Dopamine binding with dopaminergic receptors is INHIBITORY to the output of the caudate nucles

243
Q

Where is the Corpus striatum located, what are the 2 major divisions and what are their overall function?

A
  1. cerebrum
  2. Caudate nucleus & Lentiform nucleus
  3. inhibition of unwanted muscular movements for controlled, coordinated movements
244
Q

Where is the Caudate nucleus located?

A

in the Cerebrum; it is a part of the Corpus striatum

245
Q

What three types of neurotransmitters affect the Caudate nucleus and what is the response?

A
  1. Dopamine receptors-dopamine via the nigrostriatal tract—>inhibits
  2. Glutamate-binds with nicotinic receptors-from globus pallidus—>excitatory
  3. Acetylcholine-nicotinic receptors-from primary motor cortex—>excitatiory
  4. THERE NEEDS TO BE A VERY DELICATE BALANCE OF THESE NEUROTRANSMITTERS, TO REGULATE OUTPUT FROM ALL PARTS OF THE BASALNUCLEI, WHICH THEN REGULATES SKELETAL MUSCLE MOVEMENT, PRETTY MUCH AT THE UNCONSCIOUS LEVEL
246
Q

What is an example of an inbalance in the Caudate nucleus?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

247
Q

What is the imbalance associated with Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • If there is a deficit of inhibitory dopamine at that synapse, excitatory glutamate and acetylcholine dominates at that synapse causing Parkinson disease
248
Q

What are some S&S of Parkinson’s and their progression?

A

Ø Resting (non-intentional) tremors: when a person is AT REST, they have a pill rolling movement of their fingers and thumbs, and an alternating supination/ pronation of their hands.

Ø In the early stages of Parkinson dz, those tremors may go away during intentional movement

Ø Person with Parkinson’s dz has very stout posture, gait is abnormal (slow, shuffling, unsteady gait), ability to speak is hindered, drooling d/t inability to swallow secretions well, handwriting becomes very small (micrographia)

249
Q

What is an early non-surgical approach to treatment of Parkinson’s?

A

replacement of dopamine with the help of a precursor like L-dope

*Dopamine does not cross the BBB so you have to give Ldopa*

250
Q

What are the two components of the Lentiform nucleus of the Basal nuclei?

A
  • Globus pallidus
  • Putmen
251
Q

What is the function of the Globus pallidus?

A

There’s a tract that has its origin in the globus pallidus that synapses on the caudate nucleus and that neurotransmitter is (probably, perhaps maybe, but not necessarily) glutamate

v Glutamate is always excitatory

252
Q

Much of what is known about the limbic system is based

A

on abnormalities of various parts of the limbic system

253
Q

What is the function of the Limbic system as related to emotion?

A

Controls to a great extent our emotions; how we emotional perceive our environment and how we emotionally respond to our environment

254
Q

What is the function of the Limbic system as related to Pain?

A

What one person considers pain, another person may consider it pleasure and vice versa, we’ve all heard, “Whip me, beat me, show me you care!”

255
Q

What is the function of the Limbic sytem as related to Motivation?

A

Motivation (to some extent) resides in various parts of the limbic system (also resides in the pre-frontal and many other parts of the brain)

256
Q

What is the function of the Limbic system as related to Appetite?

A

Appetite: people who have limbic system lesions often have very perverse appetites, meaning those are the ones who eat red clay or chalk

257
Q

What is the function of the Limbic system as related to Anger?

A

Anger (to some extent), people who have limbic system lesions usually don’t express anger; very docile people

258
Q

What is the function of the Limbic system as related to Fear?

A

Fear: people with limbic system lesions often LOSE the fear response

259
Q

What is the fuction of the Limbic system related to Sexual satisfaction

A

Sexual satisfaction: Much of what a person perceives as the object of their sexual expression/satisfaction is mediated through the limbic system. It has been proposed that the amygdala regulates choice of sexual expression/ satisfaction.

260
Q

The Hippocampus is part of the Limbic system; what is its function?

A

Hippocampus (derived from the greek word that means seahorse): (plays a major) part of transfer of short-term memory to long-term memory and recall of long-term memories and their emotional associations

§ Major advance dementia, the hippocampus shrinks

§ They cannot store memory

§ Initially people can recall long term memory better than short-term

§ No TX for dementia

261
Q

What happens in the dysfunction of the Hippocampus?

A

§ Major advance dementia, the hippocampus shrinks

§ They cannot store memory

§ Initially people can recall long term memory better than short-term

§ No TX for dementia

262
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

“the little brain”

263
Q

What is the anatomic location of the cerebellum?

A

located posterior and inferiorly to occipetal lobe

264
Q

What is the anterior commissure?

A
  • is a bundle of nerve fibers (white matter), connecting the two cerebral hemispheres across the midline
  • involved in pain and pain sensation
265
Q

What is the Cingulate gyri?

A

part of the limbic system it helps regulate emotion and pain

266
Q

What are the results of abnormalities of the cerebellum?

A

Abnormalities of the cerebellum are also motor movement abnormalities, which are usually called INTENTION TREMORS

o aka, cerebellar intention tremor

o So when a person consciously starts to do something, that is when the tremors start

o If the cerebellar is dysfunctional, body parts are unknown in time and space

267
Q

Proper function of the cerebellum is necessary for?

A

Necessary for unconscious control of smooth, coordinated muscular movements

268
Q

What is the function of the Midbrain?

A
269
Q

What is the function of the Reticular formation?

A
270
Q

What is the function of the Cerebellum?

A
271
Q

What is the sequence of events when we consciously decide to move a muscle?

A
  1. the motor impulse travels downward from the primary motor cortex through the medulla towards the spinal cord
  2. before reaching the spinal cord, it encounters a collateral that informs the cerebreum of the desired skeletal muscle movement
  3. the main impulse reaches the spinal cord continues down the spinal cord until it synapses with a neuron and excits as a peripheal nerve
  4. the peripheal nerve synapses with skeletal muscle fibers causing movement of that skeletal muscle fiber
  5. the skeletal muscles move, that stretches golgi tendon bodies and muscle spindles
  6. Which leads to transmission of proprioceptive sensations of the muscle that just moved (Type-A α)
  7. Proprioceptive information is transmitted back to the SC and then eventually to the cerebellum NOW the cerebellum is receiving information about actual skeletal muscle movement So there cerebellum can now compare desired skeletal muscle movement with actual skeletal muscle movement
  8. When the cerebellum receives information about desired as well as actual It sends information via the thalamus, back to the primary motor cortex So the brain will consciously know how much that body part is moving Cerebellum ALSO sends information via unconscious pathways, that is called extrapyramidal motor pathways, that regulates that neuron and the skeletal movement at the unconscious level
272
Q

What is the function of the Diencephalon and its associated parts?

A
273
Q

What is the function of the Cerebrum, basal nuclei and the limbic system?

A
274
Q

What is the function of the Medulla oblongata?

A
275
Q

What is the function of the Pons?

A
276
Q

What is the difference between non-intentional tremors and intentional tremors?

A

non-intentional tremors is associated with Parkinson’s while intentional tremors is associated with disorders of the cerebellum

277
Q

What are the meninges?

A

These are the membranes that cover the brain. They anchor the brain and the CSF cushions the brain

278
Q

What is the superior sagittal sinus?

A

infold of the dura matter that runs the entire length of the longitudinal fissure

279
Q

What happens in the Dural Sinus?

A

Where CSF mixes with venous blood

280
Q

MENINGES AROUND THE BRAIN ARE _____ W/ THE MENINGES AROUND THE SC

A

continous

281
Q

What are the layers of the brain from the Skull inward(8)?

A
  • SKULL
  • PERIOSTEUM
  • DURA MATER
  • SUBDURAL SPACE
  • ARACHNOID MATER
  • SUBARACHNOID SPACE
  • PIA MATER
  • CEREBRUM
282
Q

The Periosteum is the ?

A

(innermost part of the skull)

283
Q

What is the function of the Dura mater?

A

(1st meningeal membrane)composed of two layers that around most of the brain are fused together into a single layer; to form the functional layer

284
Q

What is the epidural space?

A

epidural space: the space between the dura mater and the

skull so if someone has an epidural bleed or epidural hematoma,

its between the dura mater and the skull

285
Q

What is the subdural space?

A

Subdural space: usually a very thin filled fluid area.

§ normally not a real space but a potential space

286
Q

What is the Arachnoid mater?

A

Arachnoid mater (2nd meningeal membrane

287
Q

What are the characteristics of the Subarachnoid space?

A
  • lots of small very fragile blood vessels at risk of bleeding related to HTN
  • Bleeds here are very close to the brain
  • a subarachnoid hemmoraghe is related to rupture of blood vessels in this space
  • subarachnoid space around the brain is continous with subarachnoid space around the spinal cord
  • has CSF in it
  • little extension of arachnoid mater that is bound into that space
288
Q

What is the function of the Pia mater?

A

(3rd or last meningeal membrane)directly attached to brain surface and not removable

289
Q

When the dura mater gets down to the corpus callosum, it?

A

turns and goes up the other side.

290
Q

What 3 structrues compose the Dural sinus?

A
  1. Dural mater goes down the longitudinal fissure
  2. Superior saggital sinus
  3. Inferior saggital sinus
291
Q

What is the Falx cerebri?

A

Falx cerebri: infolding of the dura mater

§ separates (in the midline) the R & L cerebral hemispheres

§ provides for the superior and inferior sagittal sinus

292
Q

The superior and inferior saggital sinus is where what two things mix?

A
  1. CSF
  2. Venous blood
293
Q

What is the Falx cerebelli?

A

Falx cerebelli: infolding of the dura mater between the two lobes of the

cerebellar hemispheres

294
Q

What is the Tentorium(tent/roof) cerebelli?

A

Tentorium (tent/ roof) cerebelli: infolding of the dura mater between the

cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres

295
Q

What is the Supratentorial structures?

A

Supratentorial: structure ABOVE the tentorium cerebelli

§ cerebral hemispheres and everything that is contained in

the cerebral hemispheres

296
Q

What are the Infratentorial structures?

A

Infratentorial: structures BELOW the tentorium cerebelli

§ Cerebellar hemispheres

§ Midbrain: sitting right at the

tentorium

§ Pons

§ Medulla

297
Q

What is the tentorial ring (notch) and what is its significance?

A

When the tentorium cerebelli infolds and the dural membrane from the other side meet, there is an opening there which allows structures to pass through going to higher brain centers.

*Tentorial ring is often where hernation occur.*

298
Q

If a lesion is classified as being infratentorial or supratentorial; which do you suppose is more lethal?

A
  • Usually lesions that are SUPRATENTORIAL, there is more room for it to expand before it causes increase ICP.
  • INFRATENTORIAL IS WORSE: starts growing and there is little room for it to expand,
  • and it can very quickly cause herniation of the medulla, down thru the foramen magnum and down to the SC.
  • MEDULLA: CV and respiratory control centers; all of the ascending and descending pathways from the SC to the brain and brain to the SC
299
Q

THE MENINGES AROUND THE BRAIN ARE CONTINUOUS W/ THE MENINGES AROUND THE SC W/ SOME DIFFERENCES: WHAT ARE THESE DIFFERENCES?

A
  • the dura mater around the SC is only one layer
  • dura mater around the SC is not attached to the bones of

the vertebral column, it is separated by the epidural space: between the dura mater and thevertebral column

  • there are openings in the dura mater for nerve roots to

pass through

  • the subdural space is underneath that
  • then the arachnoid mater
  • then subarachnoid space where CSF is present
  • pia mater is attached directly to the SC itself; inseparable

from the SC

300
Q

Formation, circulation and reabsorption of CSF needs to be a ___ ___ without interruption in order to maintain a normal volume and ICP

A

continuous cycle

301
Q

Where is the majority of CSF synthesized?

A

The two lateral ventricles of the brain.

302
Q

Where are the lateral ventricles locate?

A

located in the medial part if the cerebral hemispheres underneath

the corpus callosum

303
Q

How is CSF formed?

A
  • CSF is produced(synthesized) by ependymal cells that form (make-up) the choroid plexuses
  • CSF is produced from plasma—>although it is not the same composition as plasma and its not a plasma filtrate
304
Q

once CSF has been formed by the choroid plexuses within the

two lateral ventricles, what happens to it?

A

, it moves thru the interventricular foramen into the third ventricle

305
Q

What are some characteristics of the third ventricle(4)?

A

§ located in the diencephalon,in between to the two lobes of the thalamus

§ considerably smaller than the lateral ventricles

§ has a very small choroid plexus

§ synthesizes a very small percentage of CSF

306
Q

After CSF leaves the third ventricle what happens to it?

A

from the third ventricle, theCSF passes thru the cerebralaqueduct into the fourth ventricle

307
Q

What are some characteristics of the fourth ventricle(5)?

A

§ located posterior to the midbrain and anterior to the cerebellar hemispheres

§ smallest of the ventricles

§ very tiny choroid plexus

§ produces a very tiny percentage of CSF

§ continuous with the central canal of the SC

308
Q

central canal of the SC continues all the way down to where the SC terminates, which is?

A

(lumbar vertebrae 1 or 2 depending on the individual)

309
Q

What is the only NORMAL exit of CSF from the ventricular system?

A

3 small holes or openings call formina in the 4th ventricle

310
Q

Once CSF exits the ventricular system via the forminas, where does it go?

A

Moves into the subarachnoid space around the brain and the subarachnoid space around the SC

311
Q

What is the sequence of CSF formation and flow?

A
  1. EPENDYMAL CELLS(FROM PLASMA TO CSF)
  2. CHPOROID PLEXUSES
  3. INTERVENTRICULAR FORAMEN
  4. THIRD VENTRICLE
  5. CEREBRAL AQUEDUCT
  6. FORTH VENTRICLE
  7. EXITS AT THE 3 FORMINA
  8. TO THE BRAIN AND SC(ARACHNOID SPACE)
312
Q

In order to maintain normal volume in the subarachnoid space and normal volume/ pressures in the ventricles of the brain; what must happen relation to CSF?

A
  • Once the CSF moves into the subarachnoid space it has to be
  • reabsorbed back into the blood
  • The rate of formation of CSF by the choroid plexuses continues at about the same rate all the time
  • So if its formed at the same rate, it needs to be reabsorbed back into the blood at about the same rate all the time
313
Q

Where is the normal place that CSF exits the subarachnoid into the venous sinus where it mixes with venous blood?

A

ARACHNOID GRANULATIONS

~ A ONE-WAY STREET

*the venous blood and CSF mixes together and primarily leaves the brain through the jugulars*

314
Q

Normal CSF pressure while patient laying supine?

A

50-100 cm H2O

315
Q

Total volume of CSF in the average adult?

A

~150 ml

316
Q

Total volume of CSF in all 4 ventricles?

A

~23 mls

§ it is so important that it is kept in that very narrow range of that volume

§ if that volume increases in the ventricles because its exit is occluded, that will increase the pressure

§ that pushes the brain tissue against the skull

317
Q

Amount of CSF in subarachnoid space?

A

127 mg(avg adult)

318
Q

How much CSF produced daily?

A

Daily production: 500 – 750 mL; continues despite rate of absorption and CSF pressure

319
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

total protein 15 - 45 mg/dl

A

CSF

320
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

Clear amber fluid

A

serum/blood

321
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

total protein 6 - 8.5 gm/dl

A

serum/blood

322
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

colorless/clear fluid

A

CSF

323
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

albumin 10 - 30 mg/dl

A

CSF

324
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

Chloride level 98 - 106

A

serum/blood

325
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

albumin 3.5 - 5 gm/dl

A

serum/blood

326
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

chloride 18 - 132

A

CSF

327
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

WBC 5K - 10K/microl

A

serum/blood

328
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

Mag level 0.78 - 1.26

A

CSF

329
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

WBC 0 - 5/microl

A

CSF

330
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

mag level 0.65 - 1.05

A

serum/blood

331
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

RBC of 0

A

CSF

332
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

K 4.0 - 5.1

A

serum/blood

333
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

RBC 4 - 6 X 10/microl

A

serum/blood

334
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

K 2.8 - 3.2

A

CSF

335
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

glucose of 70 - 110

A

serum/blood

336
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

Na 147 - 151

A

CSF

337
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

glucose of 50 - 75

A

CSF

338
Q

Is the a sample of CSF or Serum/Blood?

Na 135 - 145

A

serum/blood

339
Q

Bacterial or Viral Meningitis?

yellow/turbid appearance

marked increase in Polymorpho nuclear WBCs

Light increase or normal Lymphocytes

Protein slight increase or normal

Glucose decreased

A

Pyogenic bacterial meningitis

340
Q

Bacterial or viral meningitis?

Clear appearance

slight increase or normal polymorphonuclear WBCs

marked increase in Lymphocytes

marked increase in protein

normal glucose

A

Viral meningitis

341
Q

What are the two pathways of blood flow from the Right side?

A

R SIDE BRAIN CIRCULATION PATHWAY(via internal carotid patway):

  • L VENTRICLE
  • AORTIC VALVE
  • ASCENDING AORTA
  • R BRACHIOCEPHALIC ARTERY
  • R COMMON CAROTID ARTERY
  • INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY
  • FURTHER DIVISIONS
  • LATERAL (PARIETAL AND FRONTAL LOBES) AND MEDIAL (FRONTAL LOBE)

R SIDE BRAIN CIRCULATION PATHWAY(via the subclavian pathway):

  • L VENTRICLE
  • AORTIC VALVE
  • ASCENDING AORTA
  • R BRACHIOCEPHALIC ARTERY
  • R SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY
  • VERTEBRAL ARTERY
  • THROUGH THE FORAMINA OF THE TRANSVERSE PROCESSES OF THE CERVICAL VERTEBRAE
  • FORAMEN MAGNUM
  • TO THE BRAIN TISSUE
342
Q

The first branch off the aorta to the R side is the?

A

brachiocephalic artery(innominate artery - R side only)

343
Q

Right above the clavicle the brachiocephalic artery divides into the?

A

R subclavian artery and the R common carotid artery

344
Q

At what anatomical point does the internal carotid enter the skull?

A

carotid canal

345
Q

At what anatomical point does the vertebral arteries enter the skull?

A

foramen magnum

346
Q

What is the circulation pathway of blood from the left ventricle to the brain from the left side?

A
  • The common carotid branches directly off the aorta (NO brachiocephalic artery on the L side)
  • Then pretty soon the L subclavian branches directly off the aorta
  • The common carotid of the L continues up the neck
  • Divides into the external carotid and internal carotid

o internal carotid enters thru the carotid canal and continue on up to the brain tissue

  • From the L subclavian, the L vertebral artery passes thru the foramina of transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae
  • continues on up to the base of the skull and enters thru the foramen magnum
  • up to the brain tissue

SAME THING ON BOTH SIDES MINUS THE BRACHIOCEPHALIC ARTERY

347
Q

Once blood flow reaches the brain via the internal carotid, what is the bloodflow pathway?

A

o Internal carotids divide into the middle cerebral artery and then very

quickly the anterior cerebral artery

o The middle cerebral arteries will perfuse: Right Lateral Parietal, Frontal & Temporal lobes & parts of diencephalon

o Anterior cerebral arteries will perfuse: Prefrontal & Medial Frontal & Parietal lobes

o Anterior communicating artery: connects the two anterior cerebral arteries

*from this point the anterior communicating artery joins the right and left verterbral artery and blood flows into the Basilar Artery(perfuses Pons, cerebellum and parts of brainstem)*

*next the basilar artery flows into right and left Posterior cerebral arteries which perfuse right and left occipital, right and left temporal lobes and part of the diencephalon(right and left depending on which side is being perfused*

348
Q

Once bloodflow reaches the brain via the vertebral arteries what is the blood flow pathway?

A

o coming up on the anterior part of the brainstem

o one of the first divisions is the posterior inferior cerebellar artery(going to perfuse part of the cerebellar hemisphere)

o next is the anterior inferior cerebellar artery(going to perfuse the other part of the cerebellar hemisphere)

o then the TWO vertebral arteries diverge into the BASILAR artery; branching off of the basilar artery are the:

§ pontine arteries (bilaterally) perfuse parts of the pons, medulla, and the midbrain

§ superior cerebellar artery (bilaterally) perfuses the rest of the cerebellum

o the basilar artery then divides to form the posterior cerebral arteries (bilaterally)

§ the POSTERIOR cerebral arteries perfuse: the occipital lobes (laterally and medially) and almost all of the temporal lobe (inferiorly, laterally and medially) and parts of the diencephalon

349
Q

Posterior communicating artery connect posterior cerebral to middle cerebral artery this is called?

A

The circle of Willis

350
Q

What is the anatomical relationship to the brain and the Circle of Willis?

A

§ in the middle of the circle of willis, CN II passes thru there

§ just inferior to that in the sella turcica, is the pituitary

§ just above that is the hypothalamus of the diencephalon

§ the infundibulum that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary, passes right thru there

§ THIS IS VERY VERY VERY IMPORTANT ANATOMIC RELATIONSHIPS

351
Q

How does blood exits the brain?

A

BLOOD exits the brain:

o First into the venous sinuses

o then the venous sinuses empty into various veins, primarily empty into the internal jugulars

o then eventually into the superior vena cava

o back to the R atrium

352
Q

What arteries make up the Circle of Willis?

A
  1. R&L anterior cerebral arterys
  2. posterior communicating artery
  3. Anterior Communicationg artery
  4. R&L posterior cerebral arterys
353
Q

What does the Right anterior cerebral artery perfuse?

A
  1. prefrontal
  2. medial frontal
  3. parietal lobes
354
Q

What does the left anterior cerebral artery perfuse?

A
  1. prefrontal
  2. medial frontal
  3. parietal lobes
355
Q

What does the left post. cerebral artery perfuse?

A
  1. left occipital lobe
  2. left temporal lobes
  3. part of the diencephalon
356
Q

What does the right post cerebral artery perfuse?

A
  1. right occipital lobe
  2. right temporal lobe
  3. parts of the diencephalon
357
Q

What doe sthe right middle cerebral artery perfuse?

A
  1. right lateral parietal lobes
  2. right frontal lobes
  3. right temporal lobes
  4. parts of the dienephalon
358
Q

What does the left middle cerebral artery perfuse?

A
  1. leftlateral parietal lobes
  2. left frontal lobes
  3. left temporal lobes
  4. left of the dienephalon
359
Q

study brain flow chart!!!!

A
360
Q

What is the normal contents of the intracranial space?

A
  1. brain tissue
  2. blood
  3. CSF
361
Q

What is the Lancaster modified Monroe-Kelly doctrine?

A

Increase in volume of one of the compartments (volumes) of the brain must be compensated for by a reciprocal decrease in the volume of one or more of the other compartments for the total brain volume to remain fixed and for the ICP to remain unchanged.

362
Q

What are 2 places where CSF can be displaced?

A

o down central canal of the SC

o through arachnoid granulations into venous blood (if there is normal venous outflow)

363
Q

In relation to ICP and intracranial volume, what is the normal pressure at the 0ml “normal volume” point?

A

10 - 15 mmHg

364
Q

An increase in how many milimeters of volume of CSF starts making a difference in ICP?

A
  • 4 mL of volume shows a significant change in pressure
  • 5 mL of volume shows an even more significant change in pressure
  • >5 mL = pressure dramatically rises after that amount
  • IC volume may tolerate an additional 3-4 mL of volume but beyond that, adding more volume, with each mL after that is an exponential increase in pressure that does not sustain life
365
Q
A
366
Q

Brain MUST have ___ & ___ blood flow to meet oxygen and glucose needs

A

continous and uninterrupted

367
Q

What is the formula of autoregulation of pressures inpact upon brain perfusion?

A

CPP = MAP – ICP

368
Q

What are the effects of pO2 and pCO2 on ICP?

A

High pCO2 causes brain tissue to vasodialte therby increasing ICP

Low pO2(50mmHg) causes brain tissue to vasodialte therby increasing ICP

369
Q

What are the 4 herniation syndromes?

A
  1. Cingulate
  2. Central transtentorial
  3. Uncal
  4. Tonsillar
370
Q

What are the characteristics of Cingulate Herniation syndrome?

A

Cingulate: medially and above the corpus callosum

§ cingulate gyrus herniates underneath the falx cerebri

§ the anterior cerebral artery on the side of the herniation is compressed

§ so if there is decreased blood flow thru the anterior cerebral artery these will become ischemic

§ PARTS OF THE BRAIN AFFECTED:

v prefrontal lateral

v prefrontal medial

v medial part of the frontal lobe

v medial parietal lobe

371
Q

What are the characteristic of Central transtentorial Herniation syndrome?

A

Central transtentorial:

§ both cerebral hemispheres

§ diencephalon

§ midbrain

§ tentorial ring/notch

§ rapid loss of consciousness (because of the reticular activating system)

§ inability to follow movement lost

§ decerebrate or decorticate posturing

372
Q

What are the characteristics of Uncal herniation syndrome?

A

Uncal

§ Little projection of the temporal lobe called the uncus,

§ herniates through the tentorial ring/ notch

§ usually s/t supratentorial lesions, increased ICP, about the tentorium

§ as an outcome, the pupil on the same side is dilated and fixed

§ compressing CN III on the same side as the herniation

§ rapid decrease of LOC, from the reticular activating fibers are cut-off

§ abnormal posturing, more decerebrate than decorticate

§ usually hyperventilation

§ AND THE POSTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY ON THE SIDE OF HERNIATION IS OBSTRUCTED, FLOW IS CUT OFF

§ POSTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY, POSTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY,

§ POSTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY, POSTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY

§ PERFUSES: occipital lobe, inferior and lateral parts of the temporal lobe

373
Q

What are the characteristics of Tonsillar herniation syndrome?

A

Tonsillar

§ r/t to the tonsils of the cerebellar hemispheres

§ sitting right above the foramen magnum

§ is when the tonsils of the cerebellar hemispheres herniate down thru the foramen magnum

§ that cuts off connection between the SC and the brain; and the brain and the SC

§ literally the medulla herniates fown thru the foramen magnum into the SC

§ medulla: medullary CV system and respiratory centers

§ HENCE: usually rapid in progression and rapidly lethal, with very little successful interventions

3rd Quarter (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions