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Pathophysiology Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

The most abundant cation in the intracellular fluid is:
Question 1 options:

A)

magnesium.

B)

potassium.

C)

calcium.

D)

sodium.

A

potassium

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2
Q

Which type of shock is differentiated from other types by the presence of laryngeal edema?
Question 2 options:

A)

Hypovolemic

B)

Anaphylactic

C)

Septic

D)

Cardiogenic

A

anaphylactic

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3
Q

One of the primary functions of cortisol as it is released during the stress response is to:

Question 3 options:

A)

inhibit lipolysis.

B)

potentiate serotonin.

C)

promote the release of beta-endorphins.

D)

stimulate gluconeogenesis.

A

stimulate gluconeogenesis

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4
Q

Mast cells activate the inflammatory response through:

Question 4 options:

A)

degranulation and synthesis.

B)

granulation and synthesis.

C)

degranulation and agglutination.

D)

granulation and agglutination.

A

degranulation and synthesis

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5
Q

The study of the ways in which diseases interfere with normal body functions is called:

Question 5 options:

A)

pathophysiology.

B)

immunology.

C)

epidemiology.

D)

pathology.

A

pathophysiology

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6
Q

The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type, is:

Question 6 options:

A)

AB negative.

B)

AB positive.

C)

O negative.

D)

O positive.

A

O negative

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the body’s response in secondary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

Question 7 options:

A)

Inflammatory mediators enter the system.

B)

Endorphin release contributes to vasodilation.

C)

Catecholamine release is inhibited.

D)

Plasma protein systems are activated.

A

catecholamine release in inhibited

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s three chief lines of defense against infection and injury?

Question 8 options:

A)

Homeopathic secretions

B)

Immune response

C)

Anatomic barriers

D)

Inflammatory response

A

homeopathic secretions

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9
Q

Which of the following barriers provides the greatest degree of specificity when eliminating foreign substances from the body?

Question 9 options:

A)

Immunity

B)

Anatomical barriers

C)

Inflammation

D)

Apocrine secretions

A

immunity

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10
Q

Which of the following factors may contribute to the development of disease in geriatric patients?

Question 10 options:

A)

Genetic predisposition

B)

Preexisting disease(s)

C)

Inadequate nutrition

D)

All of these

A

All of these

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11
Q

B lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:

Question 11 options:

A)

producing antigens.

B)

directly attacking antigens.

C)

producing antibodies.

D)

neutralizing antigens.

A

producing antibodies

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12
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the use of energy?

Question 12 options:

A)

Active transport

B)

Osmosis

C)

Diffusion

D)

Facilitation

A

diffusion

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13
Q

Poisons released from bacterial cells when they die are known as:

Question 13 options:

A)

epitoxins.

B)

endotoxins.

C)

ectotoxins.

D)

exotoxins.

A

endotoxins

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14
Q

The process in which the size of a cell decreases as a result of a decreasing workload is known as:

Question 14 options:

A)

hypertrophy.

B)

atrophy.

C)

metaplasia.

D)

hyperplasia.

A

atrophy

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15
Q

The excess elimination of hydrogen ions, as may occur in vomiting, can result in:

Question 15 options:

A)

respiratory alkalosis.

B)

respiratory acidosis.

C)

metabolic alkalosis.

D)

metabolic acidosis.

A

metabolic alkalosis

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16
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of anaerobic metabolism?

Question 16 options:

A)

It occurs only during very strenuous exercise.

B)

It occurs only in the presence of oxygen.

C)

It occurs only in pathological conditions.

D)

It is a normal part of cellular metabolism.

A

it is a normal part of cellular metabolism

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT an acute inflammatory response?

Question 17 options:

A)

Thrombolysis

B)

Cellular infiltration

C)

Vasodilation

D)

Increased vascular permeability

A

thrombolysis

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18
Q

Which of the following pH values indicates acidosis in the human body?

Question 18 options:

A)

7.40

B)

7.30

C)

7.45

D)

7.35

A

7.30

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19
Q

The attraction of leukocytes to the site of inflammation during degranulation is called:

Question 19 options:

A)

apoptosis.

B)

catabolism.

C)

histocompatibility.

D)

chemotaxis.

A

chemotaxis

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20
Q

The shift of intravascular fluid to the interstitial spaces is commonly called:

Question 20 options:

A)

turgor.

B)

insensible water loss.

C)

third-space fluid loss.

D)

diuresis.

A

third- space fluid loss

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21
Q

The activation of several body systems’ baroreceptors to reestablish a normal blood pressure is a process known as:

Question 21 options:

A)

pathological.

B)

positive feedback.

C)

compensation.

D)

inflammatory.

A

compensation

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22
Q

Oncotic force is related to the amount of ________ in a solution.

Question 22 options:

A)

anions

B)

electrolytes

C)

water

D)

protein

A

protein

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23
Q

As blood volume is lost due to a traumatic injury, the body’s response is to:

Question 23 options:

A)

decrease heart rate and vasoconstrict major veins.

B)

decrease heart rate and promote peripheral vasoconstriction.

C)

increase heart rate and decrease systemic vascular resistance.

D)

increase heart rate and close precapillary arterioles.

A

increase heart rate and close precapillary arterioles

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24
Q

Which of the following is considered the body’s “first line of defense” when preventing infection and injury?

Question 24 options:

A)

Anatomic barriers

B)

Chemotactic reactions

C)

Immune response

D)

Inflammatory response

A

anatomic barriers

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25
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is most likely when an Rh ________ mother has previously given birth to an Rh ________ infant and is now pregnant with an Rh ________ fetus.

Question 25 options:

A)

positive; negative; positive

B)

negative; positive; negative

C)

negative; positive; positive

D)

positive; negative; negative

A

negative positive positive

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26
Q

Adequate perfusion depends on:

Question 26 options:

A)

intact pump, intact container and fluid.

B)

the presence of oxygen in the blood.

C)

adequate production of carbon dioxide.

D)

adequate blood pressure.

A

intact pump, intact container and fluid

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27
Q

On average, the human body weight is about ________ percent water.

Question 27 options:

A)

50

B)

60

C)

80

D)

70

A

60

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28
Q

Blood pressure is represented by:

Question 28 options:

A)

the difference between cardiac contractile force and peripheral vascular resistance.

B)

cardiac output multiplied by peripheral vascular resistance.

C)

stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

D)

the difference between preload and afterload.

A

cardiac output multiplied by peripheral vascular resistance

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29
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of leukotrienes?

Question 29 options:

A)

They are released by B lymphocytes.

B)

They inhibit vascular permeability.

C)

They promote faster effects than histamines.

D)

They are known as SRS-As.

A

they are known as SRS-As

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30
Q

Which of the following best describes an antibody?

Question 30 options:

A)

A cell that engulfs and destroys invading pathogens

B)

A substance secreted by apocrine glands

C)

A toxin released when cells die

D)

A substance produced by B lymphocytes that binds with an antigen

A

a substance produced by B lymphocytes that binds with an antigen

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31
Q

Pulmonary edema is characteristic of which of the following types of shock?

Question 31 options:

A)

Neurogenic

B)

Cardiogenic

C)

Hypovolemic

D)

Septic

A

cardiogenic

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32
Q

T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:

Question 32 options:

A)

producing antibodies.

B)

producing antigens.

C)

directly attacking antigens.

D)

neutralizing antigens.

A

directly attacking antigens

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33
Q

The term pH is a measure of:

Question 33 options:

A)

sodium hydroxide concentration.

B)

hydrogen ion concentration.

C)

carbonic acid concentration.

D)

sodium bicarbonate concentration.

A

hydrogen ion concentration

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34
Q

Which of the following processes is used when glucose enters a body cell?

Question 34 options:

A)

Hydrostatic pressure

B)

Facilitated diffusion

C)

Diffusion

D)

Active transport

A

facilitated diffusion

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35
Q

What is the primary constituent of plasma?

Question 35 options:

A)

Electrolytes

B)

Clotting factors

C)

Proteins

D)

Water

A

water

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36
Q

What is the name of the level of structural organization that consists of groups of tissues working together?

Question 36 options:

A)

Organism

B)

Organ system

C)

Organelle

D)

Organ

A

organ

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37
Q

Which one of the following is most likely to result in hypovolemic shock?

Question 37 options:

A)

Gunshot wound to the hand

B)

Left ventricular failure

C)

Acute spinal cord injury

D)

Penetrating trauma to the abdomen

A

penetrating trauma to the abdomen

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38
Q

When cells are moderately differentiated with some structural similarity to the tissue of origin and the prognosis is fair, this is what grade of cancer cell?

Question 38 options:

A)

3

B)

X

C)

1

D)

2

A

2

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39
Q

How many molecules of ATP are produced from glycolysis?

Question 39 options:

A)

2

B)

4

C)

3

D)

5

A

4

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40
Q

Which of the following impairs cellular metabolism in shock?

Question 40 options:

A)

Impaired use of metabolic substrates and glucose

B)

Impaired use of glucose only

C)

Impaired use of both oxygen and glucose

D)

Impaired use of oxygen only

A

impaired use of oxygen and glucose

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41
Q

The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid is:

Question 41 options:

A)

potassium.

B)

magnesium.

C)

calcium.

D)

sodium.

A

sodium

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42
Q

A patient is given antibody therapy in the hospital to prevent infection after exposure to a communicable disease. This is an example of ________ immunity.

Question 42 options:

A)

active acquired

B)

passive acquired

C)

active natural

D)

passive natural

A

passive aquired

43
Q

Which of the following is a response to histamine release?

Question 43 options:

A)

Decrease in vascular wall permeability

B)

Increase in blood flow at the site of injury

C)

Release of leukotrienes

D)

Suppression of lysosomal enzymes

A

increase in blood flow at the sight of injury

44
Q

Which of the following mechanisms buffers the acidity of the blood the fastest?

Question 44 options:

A)

The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system

B)

Increased respiratory rate

C)

Protein buffering system

D)

Increased hydrogen ion elimination in the urine

A

the carbonic acid bicarbonate buffer system

45
Q

Your patient is presenting with rapid-onset hypotension, tachycardia, and absent radial pulses. Which type of shock is LEAST likely to be the cause?

Question 45 options:

A)

Neurogenic

B)

Cardiogenic

C)

Hypovolemic

D)

Septic

A

neurogenic

46
Q

Which of the following adaptive mechanisms for cellular injury is LEAST likely to result in the proliferation of malignant cells?

Question 46 options:

A)

Atrophy

B)

Dysplasia

C)

Metaplasia

D)

Hyperplasia

A

atrophy

47
Q

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

Question 47 options:

A)

1.8 percent sodium chloride

B)

0.2 percent sodium chloride

C)

0.9 percent sodium chloride

D)

0.45 percent sodium chloride

A

1.8 percent sodium chloride

48
Q

You are presented with a patient displaying urticaria, dyspnea, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. This patient is MOST likely suffering from:

Question 48 options:

A)

cardiogenic failure.

B)

anaphylaxis.

C)

sepsis.

D)

hypovolemia.

A

anaphylaxis

49
Q

The chemical mediators that are released when mast cells degranulate primarily cause:

Question 49 options:

A)

depressed pumping action of the heart.

B)

vasodilation.

C)

enhanced cardiac contractility.

D)

vasoconstriction.

A

vasodilation

50
Q

Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiologic stability?

Question 50 options:

A)

Sympathetic tone

B)

Homeostasis

C)

General adaptation syndrome

D)

Inflammation

A

homeostasis

51
Q

What type of epithelial tissue is found in the ureters and urinary bladder?

Question 51 options:

A)

Stratified squamous

B)

Glandular

C)

Transitional

D)

Pseudostratified

A

transitional

52
Q

The tissue that lines many internal and external body surfaces is known as ________ tissue.

Question 52 options:

A)

connective

B)

fibrous

C)

parietal

D)

epithelial

A

epithelial

53
Q

Two solutions are separated by a membrane that is more permeable to water than to sodium. Solution A contains 250 mEq/mL of sodium, and Solution B contains 125 mEq/mL of sodium. Given this, which of the following is TRUE?

Question 53 options:

A)

Sodium ions will diffuse from Solution A to Solution B.

B)

Active transport is required to move sodium ions from Solution A to Solution B.

C)

Water will move from Solution B to Solution A.

D)

Water will move from Solution A to Solution B.

A

water will move from solution B to solution A

54
Q

A solution having a comparatively higher concentration of solutes is said to be:

Question 54 options:

A)

hypertonic.

B)

isotonic.

C)

osmotic.

D)

hypotonic.

A

hypertonic

55
Q

Treatment of immune deficiencies through the use of replacement therapies includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

Question 55 options:

A)

transplantation.

B)

gamma globulin therapy.

C)

gene therapy.

D)

psychoneuroimmunologic regulation.

A

psychoneuroimmunologic regulation

56
Q

Which of the following conditions may result in edema?

Question 56 options:

A)

Loss of plasma proteins

B)

Administration of a hypertonic solution

C)

Decreased hydrostatic pressure

D)

Inhibition of ADH (vasopressin)

A

loss of plasma proteins

57
Q

A positively charged atom or group of atoms is known as a(n):

Question 57 options:

A)

anion.

B)

cation.

C)

electron.

D)

neutron.

A

cation

58
Q

The abnormal or disordered growth of a cell from rapid preproduction is known as:

Question 58 options:

A)

dysplasia.

B)

mitosis.

C)

adaptation.

D)

dysphasia.

A

dysplasia

59
Q

The enzymes necessary for DNA replication are in the ________ of the cell.

Question 59 options:

A)

Golgi apparatus

B)

cytoplasmic membrane

C)

lysosomes

D)

nucleus

A

nucleus

60
Q

Hypoperfusion can result in:

Question 60 options:

A)

hypocarbia.

B)

hyperoxia.

C)

alkalosis.

D)

acidosis.

A

acidosis

61
Q

Which of the following events does NOT occur during an inflammation response?

Question 61 options:

A)

Promotion of healing

B)

Walling off of the infected and inflamed area

C)

Removal of unwanted substances

D)

Development of humoral immunity

A

development of humoral immunity

62
Q

The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole is called:

Question 62 options:

A)

preload.

B)

myocardial capacity.

C)

afterload.

D)

cardiac output.

A

preload

63
Q

Normal saline solution contains ________ percent sodium chloride.

Question 63 options:

A)

0.9

B)

9.0

C)

90

D)

0.09

A

0.9

64
Q

Allergy, autoimmunity, and isoimmunity are types of:

Question 64 options:

A)

polysensitivity.

B)

insensitivity.

C)

hyposensitivity.

D)

hypersensitivity.

A

hypersensitivity

65
Q

Which of the following is defined as the percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes?

Question 65 options:

A)

Hemoglobin

B)

Differential

C)

Complete blood count (CBC)

D)

Hematocrit

A

hematocrit

66
Q

The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is known as:

Question 66 options:

A)

atrophy.

B)

hypertrophy.

C)

metaplasia.

D)

hyperplasia.

A

hypertrophy

67
Q

Shock can best be described as:

Question 67 options:

A)

hypotension.

B)

decreased cardiac output.

C)

a state of inadequate tissue perfusion.

D)

a decrease in myocardial contractility.

A

a state of inadequate tissue perfusion

68
Q

Patients who suffer graft rejections and contact allergic reactions are experiencing which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Question 68 options:

A)

Type II

B)

Type III

C)

Type IV

D)

Type I

A

type II

69
Q

Which of the following best describes the body’s reaction to exposure to or invasion by antigens?

Question 69 options:

A)

Tachyphylaxis

B)

Adaptation

C)

Anaphylaxis

D)

Immune response

A

immune response

70
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of exudate?

Question 70 options:

A)

To carry away the products of inflammation

B)

To bring plasma proteins and leukocytes to the site to attack the invaders

C)

To dilute toxins released by bacteria and the toxic products of dying cells

D)

To destroy the infected host cell

A

to destroy the infected host cell

71
Q

The general term for creating, storing, and using energy in the body is:

Question 71 options:

A)

anabolism.

B)

metabolism.

C)

homeostasis.

D)

catabolism.

A

metabolism

72
Q

Which of the following is NOT consistent with an IgE mediated response to antigens?

Question 72 options:

A)

Nausea and vomiting

B)

Flushed, itching skin

C)

Profound vasoconstriction

D)

Increased heart rate

A

profound vasoconstriction

73
Q

Septic shock is precipitated by:

Question 73 options:

A)

exposure to an antigen.

B)

multiple organ dysfunction syndrome.

C)

poisoning.

D)

an overwhelming infection.

A

an overwhelming infection

74
Q

Substances that separate into electrically charged particles in water are known as:

Question 74 options:

A)

electrolytes.

B)

elements.

C)

anions.

D)

molecules.

A

electrolytes

75
Q

________ are the most common type of cell in the blood.

Question 75 options:

A)

Erythrocytes

B)

Thrombocytes

C)

Leukocytes

D)

Stem cells

A

erythrocytes

76
Q

When a foreign substance invades the body, the inflammatory response develops ________ compared to the immune response.

Question 76 options:

A)

more specifically

B)

more quickly

C)

with fewer cell types

D)

for a longer time

A

more quickly

77
Q

An excessive absorption and accumulation of iron in the body, causing weight loss, joint pain, abdominal pain, palpitations and testicular atrophy in males is:

Question 77 options:

A)

splenomegaly.

B)

cholecystitis.

C)

hemochromatosis.

D)

hemophilia.

A

hemochromatosis

78
Q

One of the body’s anatomical barriers to infection and injury is/are:

Question 78 options:

A)

endoplasmic reticulum.

B)

cytotoxic factors.

C)

epithelium.

D)

phagocytes.

A

epithelium

79
Q

Elevations in brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) in the blood have become the “marker” for which of the following conditions?

Question 79 options:

A)

Liver failure

B)

Congestive heart failure

C)

Brain cancer

D)

Pancreatitis

A

congestive heart failure

80
Q

What is a predisposing factor to the development of disease within the human body?

Question 80 options:

A)

Bacteria

B)

Lifestyle

C)

Biology

D)

Immunity

A

lifestyle

81
Q

In some instances, when the predisposing factors to development of a disease cannot be identified, the disease is termed:

Question 81 options:

A)

pathogenic.

B)

irreversible.

C)

congenital.

D)

idiopathic.

A

idiopathic

82
Q

A subclavian central intravenous line is placed into a patient to administer intravenous nutrition following a severe burn. During the line insertion, the dome of the lung is inadvertently punctured, resulting in a pneumothorax. The cause of the pneumothorax in this case is:

Question 82 options:

A)

teratogenic.

B)

neoplastic.

C)

ischemic.

D)

iatrogenic.

A

iatrogenic

83
Q

Why are gases such as helium considered extremely stable?

Question 83 options:

A)

They have a full valence shell.

B)

They are in the top portion of the periodic table.

C)

They are the most abundant in nature.

D)

They have a short half-life.

A

they have a full valence shell

84
Q

Covalent bonds:

Question 84 options:

A)

trade electrons equally and are the weakest of the three types of chemical bonds.

B)

trade electrons unequally and are the weakest of the three types of chemical bonds.

C)

share electrons equally and are the strongest of the three types of chemical bonds.

D)

share electrons unequally and are the strongest of the three types of chemical bonds.

A

share electrons equally and are the strongest of the three types of chemical bonds

85
Q

What makes an inorganic compound different from an organic compound?

Question 85 options:

A)

An inorganic compound is more common than organic compounds.

B)

An inorganic compound does contain carbon.

C)

An inorganic compound is found commonly in plants.

D)

An inorganic compound does not contain carbon.

A

an inorganic compound does not contain carbon

86
Q

Which of the following is an organic compound?

Question 86 options:

A)

Salt

B)

Protein

C)

Acid

D)

Base

A

protein

87
Q

What is a chemical property of amylose within the body?

Question 87 options:

A)

It is important in creating bulk and moving fecal matter through the large intestine.

B)

It is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process.

C)

It is essential for the growth and repair of living tissues.

D)

It is insoluble in water and thus allows it to serve as a storage reservoir for glucose.

A

it is insoluble in water and thus allows it to serve as a reservoir for glucose

88
Q

A highly reactive molecule or atom that has an unpaired electron in an outer orbital that is NOT contributing to molecular bonding is termed a:

Question 88 options:

A)

nucleic acid.

B)

cofactor.

C)

peptide.

D)

free radical.

A

free radical

89
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of water?

Question 89 options:

A)

The ability to absorb a large amount of heat energy

B)

The ability to dissolve both polar and charged substances

C)

The ability to carry away a significant amount of heat

D)

The ability to pass through cellular membranes with ease

A

the ability to pass through cellular membranes with ease

90
Q

What is a major enzyme found in the blood that is an important part of the protein buffer system?

Question 90 options:

A)

Acetylcholinesterase

B)

Carbonic anhydrase

C)

Monoamine oxidase

D)

Renal alteplase

A

carbonic anhydrase

91
Q

What is the major role of the phosphate buffer system?

Question 91 options:

A)

Stimulating a chloride shift in the ECF

B)

Stabilization of urine’s pH

C)

Promotion of the glycolysis process

D)

Oxidation of all free radicals

A

stabilization of urine’s pH

92
Q

When the respiratory system cannot effectively eliminate all the carbon dioxide generated through metabolic activities in the peripheral tissues, this causes:

Question 92 options:

A)

respiratory alkalosis.

B)

respiratory acidosis.

C)

metabolic alkalosis.

D)

metabolic acidosis.

A

respiratory acidosis

93
Q

The cellular membrane proteins and their functions include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Question 93 options:

A)

receptors.

B)

buffers.

C)

linkers.

D)

enzymes.

A

buffers

94
Q

The movement of water from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration is known as:

Question 94 options:

A)

osmosis.

B)

endocytosis.

C)

diffusion.

D)

active transport.

A

osmosis

95
Q

Approximately 70 percent of all body water is found within which compartment?

Question 95 options:

A)

Interstitial

B)

Intracellular

C)

Extracellular

D)

Intravascular

A

intracellular

96
Q

When the concentration of a solute is less on one side of the cell membrane, as compared to the other, the solution is referred to as:

Question 96 options:

A)

isotonic.

B)

hypotonic.

C)

hypertonic.

D)

deficient.

A

hypotonic

97
Q

Which of the following is a formed element?

Question 97 options:

A)

Electrolyte

B)

Lipid

C)

Enzyme

D)

Platelet

A

platelet

98
Q

The development of the breasts in females during puberty and enlargement of the breasts during pregnancy are two examples of:

Question 98 options:

A)

hypertrophy.

B)

hyperplasia.

C)

metaplasia.

D)

atrophy.

A

hyperplasia

99
Q

Which of the following is NOT derived from three distinct cell lines seen during early embryonic development?

Question 99 options:

A)

Mesoderm

B)

Ectoderm

C)

Endoderm

D)

Epiderm

A

epiderm

100
Q

All the organisms of the same species residing in a distinct geographic area (e.g., continent, city) are called:

Question 100 options:

A)

an ecosystem.

B)

a population.

C)

a biome.

D)

a community.

A

a population

101
Q

Which of these terms refers to a disease caused by diminished blood supply?

Question 101 options:

A)

infectious

B)

immunologic

C)

ischemic

D)

metabolic

A

ischemic

102
Q

Which of these terms refers to a disease caused by problems occurring during fetal development?

Question 102 options:

A)

congenital

B)

neoplastic

C)

iatrogenic

D)

genetic

A

congenital

103
Q

Which of these are single-celled organisms that consist of internal cytoplasm surrounded by a rigid cell wall?

Question 103 options:

A)

viruses

B)

prions

C)

parasites

D)

bacteria

A

bacteria

Medical Emergencies (19 decks)

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