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Infectious disease Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

After receiving the hepatitis B vaccine, the blood of a paramedic reveals no circulating antibodies for the disease. Which of the following phases would the paramedic most likely be in regarding the immunization?

Question 1 options:

A)

Window

B)

Incubation

C)

Latent

D)

Seroconversion

A

window

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2
Q

Which of the following agencies is the primary agency responsible for establishing guidelines and standards to regulate health care worker safety as it relates to communicable disease transmission?

Question 2 options:

A)

CDC

B)

FEMA

C)

OSHA

D)

NFPA

A

OSHA

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3
Q

A paramedic within your service was treating an IV drug addict when the patient spit at her, hitting her in the eye. At the hospital, when asked for blood, the patient refused to consent for testing. In this case, which of the following is TRUE?

Question 3 options:

A)

The patient can be placed under detention and be required to give a blood sample.

B)

It is within the patient’s right to refuse blood testing.

C)

A judge will issue a court order requiring the patient to allow his blood to be tested.

D)

By law the patient is required to submit blood for testing.

A

it is within the patients right to refuse blood testing

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4
Q

Which of the following measures is most important in protecting EMS providers from infectious disease?

Question 4 options:

A)

Hand washing after all patient contact

B)

Glove use for all patient contact

C)

Tuberculosis vaccination

D)

Thorough disinfection of the ambulance after every call

A

hand washing after all patient contact

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5
Q

For which of the following diseases is there no vaccine?

Question 5 options:

A)

Rubella

B)

Mumps

C)

Croup

D)

Measles

A

croup

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6
Q

Which of the following statements about prions is TRUE?

Question 6 options:

A)

Prions are single-celled animals capable of causing disease.

B)

Prions are easily destroyed by heat sterilization.

C)

Eastern equine encephalitis is the most common prion disease.

D)

They are neither prokaryotes nor eukaryotes.

A

they are neither prokaryotes or eukaryotes

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7
Q

HIV attacks and destroys the:

Question 7 options:

A)

T lymphocytes.

B)

macrophages.

C)

B lymphocytes.

D)

pluripotent stem cells.

A

T lymphocytes

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8
Q

Which of the following statements about herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) is FALSE?

Question 8 options:

A)

HSV-2 is responsible for 70 to 90 percent of all genital herpes cases.

B)

In addition to painful lesions to the infected area, fever and enlarged lymph nodes can be present during the initial presentation of the infection.

C)

Treatment with acyclovir can eradicate the virus.

D)

There is a low risk of disease transmission via casual contact.

A

treatment with acyclovir can eradicate the virus

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9
Q

Which of the following statements about mumps is TRUE?

Question 9 options:

A)

Mumps are of no concern to the adult patient.

B)

There is no vaccine for the mumps virus.

C)

Mumps are not highly communicable.

D)

Mumps are characterized by enlargement of the salivary glands.

A

mumps are characterized by enlargement of the salivary gland

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10
Q

Which of the following organisms causes mononucleosis?

Question 10 options:

A)

Herpes zoster

B)

Epstein-Barr virus

C)

Treponema

D)

Pediculus humanus capitis

A

Epstein- Barr virus

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11
Q

All the following are common signs or symptoms of lice infestation EXCEPT:

Question 11 options:

A)

red macules or papules on the affected areas.

B)

itching.

C)

open lesions in the affected areas.

D)

white, oval-shaped nits on the hair shafts.

A

open lesions in the affected areas

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12
Q

Your patient is a 40-year-old male. As a child he would have been least likely to have suffered from:

Question 12 options:

A)

pertussis.

B)

mumps.

C)

RSV.

D)

measles.

A

pertussis

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13
Q

Which of the following agencies monitors national disease data and provides disease information to health care providers?

Question 13 options:

A)

NIOSH

B)

DHHS

C)

OSHA

D)

CDC

A

CDC

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14
Q

Which of the following techniques destroys some, but not all, microorganisms?

Question 14 options:

A)

Decontamination

B)

Cleaning

C)

Sterilization

D)

Disinfection

A

Disinfection

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a known transmission route for hepatitis B?

Question 15 options:

A)

Blood transfusion

B)

Dialysis

C)

Tattooing

D)

Insect bites

A

insect bites

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16
Q

Your patient was bitten on the hand by a wild raccoon he tried to capture. Which of the following is the first step in management for this patient?

Question 16 options:

A)

Irrigate the wound with sterile saline, dry the area around the wound, and apply a thin layer of antibiotic ointment.

B)

Wash the wound with soap and running water.

C)

Clean the area with a povidone-iodine swab.

D)

Clean the area with an isopropyl alcohol pad.

A

wash the wound with soap and running water

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17
Q

Health care workers can best avoid hepatitis B infection by:

Question 17 options:

A)

receiving gamma globulin in the event of an exposure.

B)

completing the hepatitis B vaccine series.

C)

using standard precautions for all patients.

D)

using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer after each patient contact.

A

completing the hepatitis B vaccine

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18
Q

While working in the emergency department, you accidentally stick yourself with the stylette of an IV needle you just used to start an IV. What should you do immediately?

Question 18 options:

A)

Wipe the area with a povidone-iodine swab.

B)

Wash the area thoroughly with soap and running water.

C)

Stop the bleeding with a sterile gauze pad.

D)

Wipe the area with an alcohol prep.

A

wash the area with sop and running water

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19
Q

Which of the following is best described as a change from the absence of antibodies to detectable levels of antibodies in the blood after exposure to an infectious disease?

Question 19 options:

A)

Virulence

B)

Seroconversion

C)

Clinical horizon

D)

Chemotaxis

A

seroconversion

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20
Q

Which of the following cells play a functional role in the inflammatory response?

Question 20 options:

A)

T lymphocytes

B)

B lymphocytes

C)

Stem cells

D)

Neutrophils

A

neutrophils

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21
Q

Clostridium botulinum has its effect primarily by:

Question 21 options:

A)

releasing a toxin that results in muscular paralysis.

B)

altering cellular structure to create syncytia.

C)

causing septicemia.

D)

creating gas through the fermentation of carbohydrates in muscle tissue.

A

releasing a toxin that results in muscular paralysis

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22
Q

A memory or specific response is considered a(n) ________ response.

Question 22 options:

A)

immune

B)

cell-mediated

C)

inflammatory

D)

humoral

A

humoral

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23
Q

Which of the following types of agents acts specifically by inhibiting bacterial growth or reproduction?

Question 23 options:

A)

Antiseptic

B)

Pathological

C)

Bacteriostatic

D)

Aseptic

A

bacteriostatic

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24
Q

Demographics are:

Question 24 options:

A)

statistics related to the incidence of infectious disease.

B)

geographical distributions of illness and injury.

C)

characteristics of human populations.

D)

statistics related to the morbidity and mortality of all illnesses and injuries.

A

characteristics of human populations

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25
Q

Which of the following statements about rubella and the rubella virus is FALSE?

Question 25 options:

A)

EMS providers should receive an MMR vaccination.

B)

Infection in the first trimester of pregnancy increases the risk of birth defects.

C)

Immunization via the MMR vaccination is 98 to 99 percent effective.

D)

The virus is spread via contact with infected blood and body fluids.

A

the virus is spread via contact with infected blood and body fluids

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26
Q

The alternate pathway that reacts quickly to foreign bodies and uses antibodies and inflammation to combat pathogens is the ________ system.

Question 26 options:

A)

cell-mediated

B)

lymphatic

C)

complement

D)

humoral

A

complement

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27
Q

Which of the following is a mobile, single-celled, parasitic organism?

Question 27 options:

A)

Bacterium

B)

Virus

C)

Fungus

D)

Protozoan

A

protozoan

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28
Q

The destructive substances released from some bacteria when they die are known as:

Question 28 options:

A)

prions.

B)

endotoxins.

C)

exotoxins.

D)

syncytia.

A

endotoxins

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29
Q

A 44-year-old male staying in a homeless shelter is alert and complaining of shortness of breath. He has a two-week history of cough with hemoptysis, fever, chills, and night sweats. Physical examination reveals skin to be warm and moist and lung sounds decreased in the right upper lobe with rhonchi. HR = 100, BP = 142/100, RR = 20, SaO2 = 95%. You should assume this patient has a high likelihood of having:

Question 29 options:

A)

pneumonia.

B)

tuberculosis.

C)

hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.

D)

RSV.

A

TB

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30
Q

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who is alert and oriented, complaining of a rash that started about 36 hours ago, first appearing on his trunk. The rash has now spread to his face and extremities. You notice multiple small, fluid-filled vesicles on the patient’s body. The patient is concerned that he will miss work as a second-grade student teacher. He has no medical history, including childhood diseases. The patient is most likely suffering from:

Question 30 options:

A)

rubella.

B)

varicella.

C)

herpes simplex.

D)

Epstein-Barr virus.

A

varicella

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31
Q

Mononucleosis presents with all the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT:

Question 31 options:

A)

sore throat.

B)

fatigue.

C)

enlarged and tender lymph nodes.

D)

hepatomegaly.

A

hepatomegaly

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32
Q

Which of the following is classified as a helminth?

Question 32 options:

A)

Spirochete

B)

Fluke

C)

Treponema

D)

Trichomonas

A

fluke

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33
Q

Which of the following statements about influenza and the influenza virus is FALSE?

Question 33 options:

A)

High-risk individuals include the elderly.

B)

The disease is characterized by nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

C)

An influenza vaccine confers immunity against only a few strains of the virus each year.

D)

Influenza is the leading cause of respiratory disease worldwide.

A

the disease is characterized by nausea , vomiting and diarrhea

34
Q

You are suspicious that a patient is suffering from active tuberculosis. Which of the following would be most appropriate?

Question 34 options:

A)

You should wear an N95 mask.

B)

Neither you nor the patient should wear a HEPA respirator.

C)

Both you and the patient should wear a HEPA respirator.

D)

The patient should wear a HEPA respirator.

A

you should wear an N95 mask

35
Q

Your patient is a 23-year-old male prisoner who is alert and oriented, complaining of general malaise. He describes a month-long history of weakness, joint pain, nausea and occasional vomiting, and anorexia. He has no medical history and takes no medications. Physical examination reveals clear lung sounds bilaterally; warm, dry skin; several prison tattoos; a firm liver; and jaundice to his sclera. Which of the following is most likely?

Question 35 options:

A)

HIV

B)

Cirrhosis of the liver

C)

Hepatitis B

D)

Fatty liver

A

Hep B

36
Q

Which of the following statements about hepatitis A is TRUE?

Question 36 options:

A)

The incubation period for hepatitis A is three to five days.

B)

Transmission via needle stick injury is common.

C)

Many patients are asymptomatic with hepatitis A infection.

D)

Hepatitis A is transmitted through direct contact with blood and body fluids.

A

many patients are asymptomatic with a hepatitis A infection

37
Q

Which of the following statements about measles and the measles virus is FALSE?

Question 37 options:

A)

Immunization is ineffective until age 15.

B)

Measles is transmitted by inhalation of infected droplets.

C)

Signs of measles infection include high fever and a maculopapular rash.

D)

Measles is highly communicable.

A

immunization is ineffective until age 15

38
Q

Which hepatitis often presents with hepatitis D?

Question 38 options:

A)

B

B)

A

C)

D

D)

C

A

B

39
Q

Your patient is a 20-year-old female college student who lives in a dormitory. She complains of weakness, fever, chills, nausea, a rash on her chest, and neck pain. Physical examination reveals warm, moist skin; pain with flexion of her neck; and a petechial rash on her chest. HR = 92, BP = 108/68, RR = 14, SaO2 = 99%. Which of the following is most appropriate?

Question 39 options:

A)

Administer oxygen by nonrebreather, BLS, and transport

B)

Place a face mask on your patient and yourself, transport BLS, notify the hospital before arrival

C)

Place an N-95 respirator on the patient, transport BLS, notify the hospital before arrival

D)

Administer O2 via nonrebreather mask, cardiac monitor, IV of normal saline, and transport

A

place a facemask on your patient and your self and transport BLS, notify the hospital before arrival

40
Q

From which of the following incidents would infection with Clostridium tetani be most likely?

Question 40 options:

A)

Drinking contaminated well water

B)

Being bitten by an infected animal

C)

Receiving a puncture wound to the foot

D)

Eating improperly prepared, home-canned food

A

receiving a puncture wound to the foot

41
Q

Which of the following statements about Streptococcus pneumoniae is TRUE?

Question 41 options:

A)

Vaccines are ineffective against Streptococcus pneumoniae.

B)

It is the second most common cause of pneumonia in adults.

C)

It is the leading cause of meningitis in children.

D)

It is an infrequent cause of otitis media in children.

A

it is the second most common cause of pneumonia in adults

42
Q

All the following pathogens typically cause meningitis in children EXCEPT:

Question 42 options:

A)

Neisseria meningitidis

B)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

C)

Paramyxovirus

D)

Haemophilus influenza type B

A

paramyxovirus

43
Q

Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitidis is TRUE?

Question 43 options:

A)

Signs and symptoms of infection can take weeks to develop.

B)

It is responsible for 90 percent of patients with a viral meningitis.

C)

The vaccine is recommended for health care workers.

D)

It is the bacteria that most often causes serious cases of meningitis.

A

it is the bacteria that most often causes serious cases of meningitis

44
Q

Hepatitis E is often associated with:

Question 44 options:

A)

HBV infection.

B)

contaminated drinking water.

C)

tuberculosis infection.

D)

HIV infection.

A

contaminated drinking water

45
Q

Mushrooms and yeasts are examples of:

Question 45 options:

A)

fungi.

B)

protozoa.

C)

helminthes.

D)

parasites.

A

fungi

46
Q

To test for Brudzinski’s sign you would:

Question 46 options:

A)

stroke the bottom of the foot from heel to toe with a pen.

B)

check for periumbilical ecchymosis.

C)

have the patient take a deep breath while you palpate under the right costal margin.

D)

place the patient in a supine position and flex the neck.

A

place the patient in a supine position and flex the neck

47
Q

Your patient is a 27-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He states that he has just returned from a month-long backpacking trip across Arizona. He describes a two-week history of fatigue, fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. He started experiencing difficulty breathing yesterday. He has no significant medical history and takes no medications. Physical examination reveals hot, moist skin; bilateral lower-lobe rales on auscultation of the lungs; and the abdomen is soft and nontender. Which of the following is most likely?

Question 47 options:

A)

Scorpion bite

B)

Hantavirus infection

C)

Anthrax

D)

Legionnaire’s disease

A

Hantavirus infection

48
Q

Which of the following statements about Haemophilus influenzae type B is TRUE?

Question 48 options:

A)

It is the leading cause of conjunctivitis in adults.

B)

It was once the leading cause of meningitis in children aged 6 months to 3 years.

C)

It is a Gram-positive rod.

D)

Vaccines are ineffective against Haemophilus influenzae type B.

A

it was once the leading cause of meningitis in children ages 6 months to 3 years

49
Q

Which of the following findings would be most specific to mumps?

Question 49 options:

A)

Fluid-filled vesicles on the trunk

B)

Swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands

C)

Redness of the face that gives a “slapped cheeks” appearance

D)

Temperature of 103°F or higher

A

swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands

50
Q

Your patient is a 19-year-old female college student complaining of a low-grade fever, extremely sore throat, tenderness of the cervical lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue. Examination reveals warm, moist, flushed skin. Heart rate = 88, respirations = 12, and blood pressure = 118/78. There is tenderness to palpation of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Which of the following is most likely?

Question 50 options:

A)

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

B)

Bacterial meningitis

C)

Fifth disease

D)

Mononucleosis

A

mononucleosis

51
Q

While on a call you receive a laceration to your thigh from a jagged piece of metal. Which of the following is the correct recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?

Question 51 options:

A)

If you are over the age of 60, you should receive tetanus immune globulin but not a tetanus booster.

B)

If you received the entire series of tetanus immunizations as a child, you do not need a tetanus booster.

C)

You must receive a tetanus booster annually to be protected from tetanus.

D)

You should receive a tetanus booster if you have not had one in the past ten years.

A

you should receive a tetanus booster if you have not had one in the past ten years

52
Q

A life-threatening medical condition that is caused by systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is:

Question 52 options:

A)

septicemia.

B)

thrombocytopenia.

C)

pernicious anemia.

D)

hypoglycemia.

A

septicemia

53
Q

Which of the following is NOT a government organization involved with infectious diseases?

Question 53 options:

A)

FEMA

B)

EPA

C)

CDC

D)

OSHA

A

EPA

54
Q

Poisonous proteins shed by bacteria growth are called:

Question 54 options:

A)

endotoxins.

B)

fungi.

C)

spores.

D)

exotoxins.

A

exotoxins

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common form of pathogen transmission?

Question 55 options:

A)

Sexual contact

B)

Sneeze

C)

Cough

D)

Organisms shed into the environment

A

organisms shed into the environment

56
Q

The body will produce antibodies in response to:

Question 56 options:

A)

T cells.

B)

antigens.

C)

phagocytes.

D)

pathogens.

A

antigens

57
Q

Cell-mediated immunity generates:

Question 57 options:

A)

B lymphocytes.

B)

inflammation.

C)

histamine.

D)

T lymphocytes.

A

T lymphocytes

58
Q

When the body produces antibodies against itself, this is known as:

Question 58 options:

A)

autoimmunity.

B)

immunocompromise.

C)

allergy.

D)

immunology.

A

autoimmunity

59
Q

The lymphatic system is comprised of all of the following EXCEPT:

Question 59 options:

A)

thymus.

B)

spleen.

C)

liver.

D)

lymph nodes.

A

liver

60
Q

Contaminated sharps need to be placed in:

Question 60 options:

A)

the decontamination room.

B)

They can be thrown in the trash if they are “self containing.”

C)

properly labeled puncture-resistant containers.

D)

biohazard containers in the dirty-utility room.

A

properly labeled puncture resistant containers

61
Q

You respond to an ill patient. Upon arrival, you find out that the patient has just traveled from an area with active Ebola virus disease (EVD). You should initially:

Question 61 options:

A)

examine the patient like any other.

B)

wait for a hazmat tech who is also a paramedic.

C)

assess the patient from at least three feet away.

D)

examine the patient over the phone.

A

assess the patient from at least three feet away

62
Q

One of the most effective ways to prevent disease transmission is:

Question 62 options:

A)

washing your hands.

B)

using an alcohol-based sanitizer.

C)

use of gloves.

D)

sterilizing all equipment.

A

washing your hands

63
Q

According to the 2009 extension of the Ryan White Care Act, an employee who has been exposed to an infectious disease has the right to:

Question 63 options:

A)

ask about the source patient’s infection status.

B)

demand that the patient be tested for infectious disease.

C)

nothing; HIPAA is in effect.

D)

have the receiving ED draw a sample of the patient’s blood for testing.

A

ask about the patients infection status

64
Q

In response to fever, the patient’s metabolic needs will:

Question 64 options:

A)

increase.

B)

decrease.

C)

become anaerobic.

D)

remain the same.

A

increase

65
Q

HIV uses the host cell to copy itself by:

Question 65 options:

A)

infiltrating the mitochondria.

B)

carrying its genetic material in its RNA.

C)

replicating its genetic material in its DNA.

D)

glucogenolysis.

A

carrying its genetic material in its RNA

66
Q

As hepatitis progresses, the patient may become:

Question 66 options:

A)

edematous.

B)

jaundiced.

C)

more infectious.

D)

less Infectious.

A

jaundiced

67
Q

Hepatitis A is can exist on unwashed hands for:

Question 67 options:

A)

6 hours.

B)

5 days.

C)

4 hours.

D)

4 days.

A

4 hours

68
Q

Hepatitis B is stable on surfaces with dried visible blood for:

Question 68 options:

A)

3 days.

B)

8 days.

C)

3 hours.

D)

8 hours.

A

8 days

69
Q

You are caring for a patient who is complaining of chills, fever, night sweats, sudden weight loss, and hemoptysis. You suspect:

Question 69 options:

A)

Ebola virus disease (EVD).

B)

AIDS.

C)

hepatitis B virus.

D)

tuberculosis.

A

TB

70
Q

You are caring for a patient you suspect of having an active TB infection. Your personal protective equipment (PPE) should include:

Question 70 options:

A)

Tyvek suit.

B)

N-95 mask.

C)

powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) mask.

D)

hazmat level B protection.

A

N-95 mask

71
Q

The most common complication in adults contracting the varicella virus is:

Question 71 options:

A)

chickenpox.

B)

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

C)

paranoia.

D)

pneumonia.

A

pneumonia

72
Q

You respond to an ill patient. Upon your arrival, the patient’s caregivers state that the patient has been complaining of lethargy, vomiting, and nuchal rigidity. You suspect:

Question 72 options:

A)

varicella.

B)

pneumonia.

C)

pertussis.

D)

meningitis.

A

meningitis

73
Q

While examining a patient, you note that he exhibits a positive Brudzinski’s sign. You suspect:

Question 73 options:

A)

pertussis.

B)

varicella.

C)

meningitis.

D)

tuberculosis.

A

meningitis

74
Q

You and your partner have just been notified by the infection control officer that you have been exposed to an active meningitis case. You would expect to receive prophylactic:

Question 74 options:

A)

penicillin.

B)

nothing, just self-monitor.

C)

Cipro.

D)

Zithromax.

A

Cipro

75
Q

Whooping cough is also known as:

Question 75 options:

A)

pneumonia.

B)

meningococcus.

C)

varicella.

D)

pertussis.

A

pertussis

76
Q

You are called to evaluate an ill child. The mother states that the child was fine a few hours ago but now is exhibiting, dysphonia, drooling, dysphagia, and distress. You suspect:

Question 76 options:

A)

influenza A.

B)

croup.

C)

epiglottitis.

D)

bronchitis.

A

epiglottitis

77
Q

You respond to a 2-year-old child who has a seal-like cough and stridor. You suspect:

Question 77 options:

A)

pharyngitis.

B)

influenza.

C)

laryngotracheobronchitis.

D)

pneumonia.

A

laryngotracheobronchitis.

78
Q

One area in which paramedics have a chance to assume leadership is:

Question 78 options:

A)

CDC studies.

B)

public education and infectious disease prevention.

C)

FEMA studies.

D)

hospital advisory boards.

A

public education and infectious disease prevention

79
Q

You respond to a patient who has been having trouble with his indwelling urinary catheter. Vital signs are: pulse, 110; respiration rate, 22; ETCO2, 28; temperature, 101.2°F. You suspect:

Question 79 options:

A)

renal failure.

B)

rhabdomyolysis.

C)

sepsis.

D)

urinary tract infection (UTI).

A

sepsis

80
Q

You are treating a patient you suspect may be suffering from septic shock. You should consider fluid and pressor therapy to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of:

Question 80 options:

A)

below 120 mmHg.

B)

below 60 mmHg.

C)

above 90 mmHg.

D)

above 60 mmHg.

A

above 60 mmHg

Medical Emergencies (19 decks)

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