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Medical Emergencies > chapter 10 written quiz > Flashcards

chapter 10 written quiz Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

the individual who first introduces an infectious agent into a population is called:

a. initial infection
b. index case
c. index carrier
d. pathogen introduction

A

index case

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2
Q

Organisms that live inside out bodies without ordinarily causing disease are known as:

a. benign pathogens
b. host flora
c. normal
d. harmless flora

A

harmless flora

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3
Q

An ordinarily harmless bacterium that may cause disease id a patient has a weakened immune system or is under unusual stress is called a

a. advantageous bacteria
b. immune deficient pathogen
c. susceptible bacteria
d. opportunistic pathogen

A

opportunistic pathogen

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4
Q

microscopic single celled organisms that range in length from 1 to 20 micrometers are called:

a. bacteria
b. exotoxins
c. viruses
d. fungi

A

bacteria

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5
Q

living pathogenic bacteria may harm their human hosts by releasing toxic waste products called:

a. endotoxins
b. bacteriacides
c. spheres
d. exotoxins

A

exotoxins

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6
Q

it is necessary to use an electron microscope to see:

a. bacteria
b. viruses
c. fungi
d. protozoa

A

viruses

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7
Q

viruses are known as obligate intracellular parasites because they:

a. can grow and reproduce within a host cell
b. are folded in such a way that protease enzymes cannot act upon them
c. can remain active for several days in fluid outside of the body
d. can reproduce quickly in body fluid

A

can grow and reproduce only within a host cell

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8
Q

yeasts, mold and mushrooms are all types of

a. bacteria
b. viruses
c. fungi
d. spores

A

fungi

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9
Q

protozoa cause diseases such as

a. pneumonia
b. malaria
c. Lyme disease
d. meningitis

A

malaria

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10
Q

epigastric pain and anemia are possible when a person is infected with:

a. pinworms
b. tape worms
c. hookworms
d. trichinosis

A

hookworms

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11
Q

an example of a disease transmitted by contact with blood or bodily fluid is:

a. hep B
b. TB
c. measles
d. meningitis

A

hep B

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12
Q

which of the following is not an example of a disease that may be transmitted through the air on droplets expelled during a productive cough or sneeze:

a. measles
b. RSV
c. rubella
d. hepatitis

A

hepatitis

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13
Q

agents and diseases that are capable of being transmitted to another host are called:

a. contaminant
b. virile
c. communicable
d. virulent

A

communicable

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14
Q

the period of time when a host cannot transmit an infectious agent to someone else is called the:

a. incubation period
b. latent period
c. noncommunicable period
d. window period

A

latent period

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15
Q

serocon version is said to have occurred when:

a. a person begins to show signs nd symptoms of a disease
b. signs and symptoms of a disease disappear
c. the host is now able to transmit the disease to someone else
d. the person develops antibodies after their exposure to the disease

A

the person develops antibodies after their exposure to the disease

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16
Q

the duration from the onset of signs and symptoms of a disease until the resolution of symptoms or death is known as

a. disease period
b. communicable period
c. window phase
d. latent period

A

disease period

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17
Q

neutrophils and macrophages are both types of

a. antigens
b. immunoglobins
c. leucocytes
d. antibodies

A

leucocytes

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18
Q

there are five classes of human antibodies. the class that attaches to mast cells and plays a major role in allergic reactions is

a. IgG
b. Iga
c. IgD
d. IgE

A

IgE

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19
Q

the overflow circulatory fluid in spaces between tissues is called:

a. plasma
b. lymph
c. serum
d. synovial

A

lymph

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20
Q

passive immunity usually lasts

a. less than 24 hours
b. from days to months
c. 5 to 7 years
d. lifetime

A

days to months

21
Q

an immunity provided by antibodies that a patient did not manufacture is called

a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
c. acquired immunity
d. artificial immunity

A

active immunity

22
Q

guidelines for prehospital infection control during patient contact include

a. wearing gloves, goggles, and gowns on all calls
b. allowing only necessary personnel to make patient contact.
c. carefully recapping IV needles after use
d. eating or drinking in the patient compartment only after it has been cleaned

A

allowing only necessary personnel to make patient contact

23
Q

there are four phases of prehospital infection control, putting on gloves and donning eye protection are part of which phase

a. preparation for response
b. response
c. patient contact
d. recovery

A

response

24
Q

any reusable item that comes in contact with the patients mucous membranes should receive

a. low level disinfection
b. intermediate level disinfection
c. high level disinfection
d. sterilization

A

high level disinfection

25
Q

the Ryan White act outlines rights and responsibilities when an infectious disease exposure occurs to

a. minor children
b. agencies and health care workers
c. institutionalized individuals
d. the general public

A

agencies and health care workers

26
Q

a common consequence of infectious disease is

a. fever
b. dehydration
c. endocarditis
d. hypertension

A

a fever

27
Q

Which of the following is true regarding HIV

a. HIV causes a cellular immune system response and then remains in a dominant phase
b. HIV specifically targets T lymphocytes with the CD4 marker
c. reports of the transmission rate from mother to infant range form 60 -70 %
d. HIV is much more contagious than hep B

A

HIV specifically targets T lymphocytes with the CD4 marker

28
Q

the most common preventable adult infectious disease in the world is:

a. pneumonia
b. hep A
c. measles
d. TB

A

TB

29
Q

the infectious agent that is most commonly associated with pneumonia is:

a. klebsiella pneumoniae
b. mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. streptococcus pneumoniae
d. haemophilus pneumoniae

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

30
Q

when purulent fluids accumulate in the lings and alveoli collapse the patient is said to have signs of:

a. consolidation
b. compartment syndrome
c. congestion
d. pleurisy

A

consolidation

31
Q

signs and symptoms associated with SARS include:

a. rhinorrhea
b. rigors
c. diarrhea
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

32
Q

all of the following are treatment steps for a patient with suspected SARS except:

a. ventilatory assistance as needed
b. placing a HEPA mask on the patient
c. place the patient in a position of comfort
d. IV fluids if the patient is dehydrated

A

placing a HEPA mask on the patient

33
Q

Varicella is most commonly known as:

a. measles
b. chickenpox
c. mumps.
d. herpes

A

chickenpox

34
Q

positive Brudzinski’s sign is suggestive of memingitis, A positive brudzinski sign is :

a. the inability to fully extend the knee when hips are flexed
b. the inability to form a fist with one or both hands
c. a physical exam flexing in which the flexion of the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees
d. the inability to flex ones head forward and touch the chin to the chest

A

a physical exam flexing in which the flexion of the neck causes the flexion of the hips and knees

35
Q

Koplik’s spots are seen in:

a. measles
b. chicken pox
c. mumps
d. meningitis

A

measles

36
Q

an infant inquiring a rubella infection in utero is likely to :

a. be born prematurely
b. be developmentally delayed
c. unaffected
d. stillborn

A

be developmentally delayed

37
Q 
pertussis has three clinical phases. which of the following is not one of those phases: 
a paroxysmal 
b. convalescent
c. catarrhal 
d. prodromal
A

prodromal

38
Q 
EMS personnel working in a dusty unoccupied buildings for extended times should wear masks to prevent exposure to : 
a. RSV
b. T
C. hantavirus
d. sinusitis
A

hantavirus

39
Q

the predominant infectious agents for encephalitis are:

a. viruses
b. fungi
c. bacteria
d. parasites

A

viruses

40
Q

left untreated rabies can cause death within:

a. 2-6 days
b. 3-6 months
c. 1-2 weeks
d. within hours of a bite by an affected animal

A

2-6 days

41
Q

Lyme disease is a recurrent inflammatory disorder caused by bacteria transmitted through the bite of a:

a. bat
b. tick
c. flea
d. fly

A

tick

42
Q

_____ is one of the most commonly diagnosed communicable diseases in the US.

a. syphilis
b. genital warts
c. herpes
d. gonorrhea

A

gonorrhea

43
Q

syphilis may occur in four stages. the period of time when symptoms improve or disappear completely which may last from moths to many years is known as

a. primary syphilis
b. secondary syphilis
c. latent syphilis
d. tertiary syphilis

A

latent syphilis

44
Q

bedbugs have been known to travel over _____ feet in one night

a. 10
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100

A

100

45
Q

lice are a parasitic ______ of the skin, scalp, trunk or pubic area.

a. infection
b. rash
c. infestation
d. burrowing

A

infestation

46
Q

you should not go to work if you have strep throat unless:

a. you no longer have a sore throat
b. you no longer have a fever
c. you have been taking antibiotics for at least 24 hours
d. you have been taking antibiotics for at least 48 hours

A

you have been taking antibiotics for at least 24 hours

47
Q

hospital acquired diseases are called:

a. nosocomial
b. zoonotic
c. opportunistic
d. infectious

A

nosocomial

48
Q

the tenth most common cause of death in the world and the common cause of death in a debilitated patient in the hospital intensive care unit is:

a. pneumonia
b. sepsis
c. influenza
d. meningitis

A

sepsis

Medical Emergencies (19 decks)

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