Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BCSCSAP Review > Pathology & Tumors > Flashcards

Pathology & Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

epitheliod melanocytes in the superficial epithelium of conjunctival biopsy

A

risk for malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

histology of an iris nevus

A

localized proliferation of BRANCHING DENDRITIC melanocytic cells typically oblong or ovoid with indistinct nucleli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

polyhedral cells with large round nuclei with clumped chromatin and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli

A

epithelioid melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mortality rate for iris melanoma

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diagnosis

Risk factor for poor outcome

A

Iris melanoma

risk for metastatic death is AC angle invasion which may present as poorly controlled glaucoma, mimicking pigmntary glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

enlarged, deeply eosinophilic filaments

A

rosenthal fibers - found in optic nerve glioma in NF1 -> low-grade juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Location of periocular lymphoma with lowest risk of systemic lymphoma

A

conjunctiva < orbital < eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

clinical feature typically leads to phthisis bulbi

A

low intraocular pressure

phthisical globes demonstrate

Shrinkage

Atrophy

Disorganized

‘SAD’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hemosiderin-laden macrophages

A

hemolytic glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diffuse choroidal hemangiomas are a/w this clinical entity

A

Sturge-Weber syndome (SWS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hypoplastic scleral spur and anomalous insertion of the ciliary muscle

A

primary congenital glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

marks the termination of Descemet membrane on gonioscopy

A

Schwalbe line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MC eye finding in leukemia

A

retinal hemorrhages (white-centered)

typically have anemia and thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Virus identified as RF for this lesion

A

human papillomavirus 18

HPV 16 and 18 a/w CIN + sessile papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a/w pedunculated papillomas

A

HPV 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

optic nerve cells involved with support and nutrition

A

astrocytes

note: oligodendrocytes produce and maintain the myelin sheath of the optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

produce and maintain the myelin sheath of the optic nerve

A

oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

phagocytes of the CNS

A

microglial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

disruption in architecture of the inner and outer segments of the photoreceptors

A

commotio retinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stain senile calcific plaque

A

alizarin red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

retinal blood supply the

A

NFL

ganglion cell layer

IPL

inner 2/3 of inner nuclear layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

choroidal circulation supplies the

A

outer 1/3 inner nuclear layer

outer plexiform

outer nuclear

photoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

inflammation in phacoantigenic uveitis

(AKA phacoanaphylactic endophthalmitis or lens-induced granulomatous endophthalmitis)

A

zonal granulomatous inflammation

lens protein -> IgG against lens protein -> multinucleated giant cells and neutrophils adjacent to lens material -> lymphocytes/histiocytes -> fibrous connective tissue with chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Langhans giant cells

A

sarcoidosis

multinucleated giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
this mutation in tumor correlates with increased RF for metastasis in ocular melanoma
BAP1 'BAD'
26
Good prognostic mutations in ocular melanoma
EIF1AX and SF3B1
27
sign indicates malignant transformation of a choroidal nevus
**increase in basal dimension**
28
Tx for ciliary body medulloepithelioma
enucleation
29
What cell type would stain positive for hemosiderin
microglial cells
30
IHC stain for neuroectodermal origin
S-100
31
Diagnosis
Granular corneal stromal dystrophy
32
Composed of which material
Granular - hyaline - masson trichrome - electron-dense material with rod-shaped bodies in an amorphous mix keratoepithelin
33
Diagnosis
touton giant cells in iris - juvenile xanthogranuloma
34
composition of asteroid bodies
calcium hydroxyapatite alcian blue
35
MOA of glaucoma 2/2 angle recession
damage to TM
36
RF for malignant transformation of choroidal nevus
thickness \> 3 mm
37
Carriers of the APC mutation for Gardener syndrome would have this ocular fundus finding
**congenital HYPERPLASIA of RPE**
38
Any retinal lesion of any size within 3 mm of fovea without focal or diffuse vitreous seeds is this reese-ellsworth classification (for Rb)
group B
39
MC secondary tumor in Rb survivors
**osteosarcoma** (40% arising within field of radiation and 36% outside field of radiaiton in patients previously treated for Rb)
40
incomplete closure of embryonic fissure result in
coloboma
41
COMS large melanoma study
pre-enucleation XTR **no effect on survival**
42
mutation AW congenital aphakia
FOXE3
43
Dalen-Fuchs composed of this cell
histiocyte
44
morphologic feature of nanophthalmos
**normal lens (or slightly large)** short AL (15-20 mm) thickened sclera RF uveal effusion + glaucoma
45
CB melanoma may reduce vision by this mechanism
lenticular astigmatism
46
primary cellular element observed in periretinal membranes excised during vitrectomy for PVR
RPE cells
47
Diagnosis
**Glaukomflecken** - elevated IOP causes degeneration of lens epithelial cells leading to irregular white patches just beneath the anterior lens capsule necrosis of lens epithelial cells with adjacent degeneration of anterior lens cortex demonstrate damage from previous episodes of ACG
48
MC clinical presentation of primary intraocular lymphoma
vitritis
49
Diagnosis
subretinal infiltrates (occasional) more often - vitritis, iritis, reitnal vasculitis asterisk - overlying retinal gliosis choroidal inflammation. Subretinal tumor
50
typical presentation of Coats dz
unilateral
51
unilateral retinal vasculopathy more commonly in boys younger than 10 yo
Coats disease
52
Diagnosis
iris nevus
53
pathologic exam of combined hamartoma of the RPE will show what?
dysplastic glia
54
Description
peripapillary combined hamartoma of the retina and RPE (note radiating lines through the fovea
55
Seen in combined hamartoma of the RPE
mass of proliferating RPE cells dysplastic glia reitnal blod vessels
56
Description and associations
**medium-sized combined hamartoma** A/W: NF2, incontinentia pigmenti, XL retinoschisis
57
most prominent cell type in vitritis a/w bacterial endophthalmitis
neutrophils (PMLs)
58
ocular finding a/w aniridia
**corneal pannus** cataract foveal hypoplasia
59
Gene mutation correlating wih nevi of ota, blue nevi, and uveal melanoma
GNAQ GNA11
60
Sudan black B
lipids
61
Diagnosis and systemic dx
scleromalacia perforans long standing RA
62
RPMI media
flow cytometry media (or fresh)
63
mechanism of orbital extension of choroidal melanomas
growth through scleral emissary canals
64
Translocation implicated in most common orbital malignant tumor in children (rapid proptosis, bony destruction)
FOXO1
65
medulloepitheliomas of the ciliary body develop from what tissue?
medullary epithelium
66
Diagnosis
sebaceous adenocarcinoma
67
polycoria
more than one pupillary opening in the iris
68
corectopia and polycoria
axenfeld-Rieger syndrome
69
What determines iris color?
melanin granules in **anterior stromal** melanocytes
70
RPE derived from what embryonic layer
neuroectoderm, outer layer of optic cup
71
Diagnosis
Macular corneal dystrophy AR 'limbus to limbus' Alcian blue and colloidal iron
72
Diagnosis
sebaceous gland carcinoma
73
Systemic condition a/w this
congenital hypertrophy of the RPE (CHRPE) a/w **hamartomas of the RPE (RPEH)** and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) which are bilateral, more haphazard, irregular and jagged borders
74
OCP biopsy should be placed in this medium
Michel or Zeus transport medium
75
fixative for EM
glutaraldehyde
76
fixative for crystals
absolute ethanol or methanol
77
fixative for liquid biopsies or smears (eg, vitreous biopsies, FNAs)
Saccomanno fixative
78
Diagnosis Visual field expected
Optic disc drusen enlarged blind spot arcuate scotomas
79
Diagnosis
Choroidal melanoma
80
4 yo boy present since birth. Diagnosis. Management
**congenital nevocellular nevus** lesions \>20 cm have a 5%-20% risk of malignant transformation Note: nevus of ota is diffusely pigmented dermal lesion frequently involves the sclera
81
glycosaminoglycan found in normal composition of sclera
dematan sulfate
82
glycosaminoglycans found in the cornea
Chondroitin sulfate Keratan sulfate
83
cyst lined by double layer of cuboidal epitehlium with an empty lumen (translucent cyst)
**eccrine cyst** | (ductal (sweat gland) eccrine cyst)
84
cyst lined with a double layer of cuboidal epithelium a/w decapitation secretion
apocrine cyst (note: brown color related to cellular decapitation secretion containing lipofuscin pigment)
85
Diagnosis
ductal eccrine cyst
86
MOA botulinum toxin type A
**_inhibits release_** **of acetylcholine** binds to receptor sites on motor nerve terminals, entering nerve terminals and INHIBITING RELEASE of AcH contrast to muscarinic antagonists (atropine) which react with postsynaptic muscarinic receptors and block the action of AcH
87
MOA atropine
muscarinic antagonists which react with postsynaptic muscarinic receptors and **block the action of AcH**
88
Organism
viridans streptococci (alpha-hemolytic) infectious pseudocrystalline keratopathy
89
Timeframe after corneal abrasion for epithelial anchoring fibrils to reform
**4-6 weeks**
90
length of time for migrating epithelial cells to cover a defect (K abrasion)
24 to 48 hours
91
Which layer of the cornea when incompeltely healed may allow for fibrous ingrowth?
**Descemet membrane** - stromal fibrocytes may continue to proliferate into the AC as fibrous ingrowth Note: bowman layer is not replaced when incised or destroyed so if a thin layer of anterior stroma is lost, th eipthelium fills the crater forming a facet.
92
pathology of fibrous histiocytoma or fibroxanthoma
proliferation of spindle fibroblasts, wounded histiocytes, and occaisional multinucleated giant cells
93
Orbital solitary fibrous tumors are these classes
hemangiopericytomas fibrous histiocytoma giant cell angiofibroma
94
multinucleated floret-type giant cells and angioectatic spaces
giant cell angiofibroma
95
spindle-shaped, plump histiocyte-like cells with a focal stoiform architecture
fibrous histiocytoma
96
staghorn sinusoidal blood vessels
hemangiopericytoma
97
Pallisading arrangement of epithelioid histiocytes around a central core of necrotic collagen
episcleritis

BCSCSAP Review (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions