Pathology Neoplasia Flashcards

0
Q

Explain the significance of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase in determining clonality.

A

G6PD active isoform ratio is 1:1 in females

  • In neoplastic growth, clonality is monoclonal so G6PD ration is disturbed
  • In hyperplastic growth, ratio is preserved
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1
Q

What are the characteristics of neoplasia? What differentiates it from dysplasia? Hyperplasia?

A

Neoplasia: unregulated, irreversible, and monoclonal

  • Hyperplasia is polyclonal and reversible
  • both dysplasia and neoplasia have mutations but dysplasia is reversible
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2
Q

Clonality of B lymphocytes - light chain phenotype

A
  • Normally light chain kappa to lambda ratio is 3:1
  • Ratio is maintained in hyperplastic growth (reactive hyperplasia to infection)
  • In neoplastic growth (lymphoma) ratio is disturbed - >6:1 or is inverted (kappa to lambda ratio 1:3)
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3
Q

Reason for lymph node enlargement

A
  1. Metastatic cancer
  2. Lymphoma
  3. Infection (reactive hyperplasia)
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4
Q

Carcinoma

A

implies epithelial origin
-generally spread lymphatically; exceptions: RCC- renal vein, HCC-hepatic vein, follicular carcinoma of thyroid, choriocarcinoma

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5
Q

Sarcoma

A

implies mesenchymal origin

-generally spread hematogenously

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6
Q

Cachexia

A

weight loss, muscle atrophy, and fatigue that occur in chronic disease (cancer, AIDS, heart failure, TB)
-mediated by TNF-a, IFN-gamma, IL-6

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7
Q

Leading causes of death in adults

A
  1. Cardiovascular disease
  2. cancer
  3. cerebrovascular disease
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8
Q

Leading causes of death in children

A
  1. accidents
  2. cancer
  3. congenital abnormalities
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9
Q

Most common cancer by incidence in adults

A
  1. Breast/prostate
  2. lung
  3. colorectal

Note: squamous cell and basal cell carcinoma very common!

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10
Q

Most common causes of cancer mortality in adults

A
  1. lung
  2. breast/prostate
  3. colorectal
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11
Q

Screening: Pap smear

A

: detects cervical squamous cell dysplasia (CIN- cervical intraepithelial neoplasia) before it becomes carcinoma

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12
Q

How many divisions occur before the earliest clinical symptoms of cancer arise?

A

30 divisions

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13
Q

Screening: mammography

A

:detect in situ breast cancer before it invades or invasive carcinoma before it becomes clinically palpable
- mammography can detect tumors as small as 1 cm, whereas palable tumors are usually at least 2 cm

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14
Q

Screening: PSA and DRE

A

:prostate specific antigen and digital rectal exam - detects prostate carcinoma before it spreads
Note:
-BPH usually occurs in the center of the prostate and may surround the urethra so clinical symptoms may appear
-prostate cancer usually occurs in the posterior peripheral zone of the prostate = asymptomatic until very large; DRE to feel posterior prostate

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15
Q

IHC stain- keratin positive cells

A

epithelium –> carcinoma

16
Q

IHC Stain- vimentin positive cells

A

Mesenchyme –> sarcoma

17
Q

IHC stain- desmin positive cells

A

muscle —> rhabdomyosarcoma

18
Q

IHC stain- GFAP positive cells

A

neuroglia

19
Q

IHC stain - neurofilament positive cells

A

neurons

20
Q

IHC stain- PSA positive cells

A

prostatic epithelium

21
Q

IHC stain- ER positive cells

A

breast epithelium

22
Q

IHC stain- thyrogloblulin positive cells

A

thyroid follicular cells

23
Q

IHC stain- chromogranin positive cells

A

neuroendocrine cells

24
Q

IHC stain: S-100 positive cells

A

melanoma, schwannoma, and langerhans cell histocytosis

25
Q

Tumor grade

A

: microscopic assessment of differentiation; how closely do the cells look like the tissue of origin
-usually from 1-4, where 1(low grade) is well differentiated and 4(high grade) is poorly differentiated

26
Q

Tumor stage

A

:assessment of size and spread of cancer; based on clinical (c) or pathology (p) findings ex. cT3N1M0
T-tumor size
N- regional nodal involvement
M- distant metastasis; most important prognostic factor