Neurology Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Patient presents with bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in cape like distribution across upper extremities. Fine touch preserved. Diagnosis?

A

:Syringomyelia; cystic fluid -filled cavity within the spinal cord @ C8-T1 disrupting anterior white commissar fibers = protopathic - may be congenital (Arnold Chiari malformation) or due to trauma -Can expand to involve 1. anterior horn cells = LMN in upper extremities 2. Intermedial lateral cell column = Horner syndrome (ptosis, anhidrosis, miosis) -Recall: Hypothlamospinal tract

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2
Q

What malformation is associated with syringomelia?

A

Arnold Chiari I malformation: congenital cerebellar tonsillar herniation through the foramen magum -ususally asymptomatic in childhood, presents as headaches and cerebellar symptoms

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3
Q

Poliomyelitis

A

Infection with poliovirus = fecal-oral route -presents as fever, sore throat, nausea, vomiting -damage to anterior horn cells =LMN signs

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4
Q

Werdnig-Hoffman disease

A

:Spinal muscular atrophy; congenital degeneration of anterior horn cells = LMN signs -presents in early infancy (“floppy baby”),marked hypotonia, tongue fasciculations -autosomal recessive -median age to death 7 months

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5
Q

UMN and LMN deficits with no sensory findings, cognitive, or oculomotor deficits. Diagnosis? Pathogenesis? Treatment?

A

:Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis or “Lou Gehrig Disease”; mostly sporadic -congenital forms caused by SOD = free radical injury to neurons -atrophy and weakness of hands may be early sign–> distinguish from syringomyelia b/c no sensory findings -treatment: Rilouzole

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6
Q

Patient: muscle weakness in the lower extremities, loss of DTRs, loss of vibratory sense and proprioception. Reports frequent falling and staggering. PE: nystagmus, dysarthria, high arches, hammer toes. Diagnosis? What is the usual cause of death?

A

: Fredreich ataxia; autosomal recessive trinucleotide repeat disorder (GAA) on chromosome 9 -gene encodes for frataxin (iron binding protein –> iron build up + free radical damage via fenton run) -cause of death = hypertrophic cardiomyopathy -presents in childhood with kyphoscoliosis

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7
Q

Tabes dorsalis. Pathogenesis? Signs/Symptoms?

A

:caused by tertiary syphilis; results in degeneration/demylination of dorsal columns and roots -impaired sensation and proprioception and progressive sensory ataxia (inability to sense of feel the legs -> poor coordination) -associated with charcot joints, shooting pain, argyll robertson pupil (constrict to accommodation but not light) -exam will demonstrate absence of DTRs and + Romberg

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8
Q

Vitamin B12 or vitamin E defeciency neurologic effects?

A

:subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord- demyelination of dorsal columns, lateral CST, and spinocerebellar tracts -results in ataxic gait, paresthesia, impaired position and vibration sense.

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9
Q

What are the microscopic changes seen in ischemic brain stroke and timeframes?

A

“1 day” : within 12 hrs -> red neurons

“1 week” : 24-72 hrs ->liquefactive necrosis + neutrophils; 3-5 days-> microglia (macrophages)

“1 month”: 1-2 weeks-> reactive gliosis (astrocytes) + vascular proliferation; 2 weeks or more -> fluid filled cystic cavity w/surrounding fibrotic tissue = glial scar

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10
Q

What are the imaging findings you expect with ischemic stroke? timeframe?

A
  1. MRI (highest sensitivity) - hyperintense (bright) area w/in 3-30 minutes
  2. Noncontrast CT scan- hypodense (dark) area 12-24 hrs
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11
Q

How can CT scan be used be used in the immediate treatment of ischemic stroke?

A

absence of hyperdense (bright) areas to exclude hemorrhage = can use tPA - tPA contraindicated in acute hemorrhage

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12
Q

Thrombotic stroke

A

: d/t clot formation directly at the site of infarction, usually over ruptured atherosclerotic plaque -results in pale infarct -usually in MCA territory -Risk factors: HTN, DM

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13
Q

Embolic stroke

A

:an embolus from another part of the body obstructs the vessel -results in hemorrhagic infarct -most common source of emboli is left side of heart -> atrial fibrillation

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14
Q

Lacunar stroke

A

:most commonly d/t lenticulostriate vessel, resulting in small cystic areas of infarction -secondary to hyaline arteriosclerosis –> HTN ! - internal capsule involvement = pure motor deficits - thalamus involvement = pure sensory deficits

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15
Q

What areas of the brain are particularly susceptible to hypoxia?

A
  1. Pyramidal neurons of cortical layers 3, 5 & 6 = cortical laminar necrosis 2. Pyramidal neurons of hippocampus 3. Purkinje layer of cerebellum 4. watershed areas
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16
Q

Hypoxic stroke

A

: due to hypoperfusion (i.e. shock) or hypoxemia. -common during cardiovascular surgeries -effects watershed areas, cortex, hippocampus, cerebellum

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17
Q

Difference between stroke and TIA

A

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is a brief reversible episode of focal neurologic dysfunction lasting <24 hours without acute infarction (- MRI) -d/t focal ischemia -majority resolve in 15 minutes

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18
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke

A

: intracerebral bleeding -classically d/t Charcot-Bouchard microaneuryms of lenticulostriate vessels -often due to HTN! anticoagulation, cancer (abnormal vessels) -may be secondary to ischemic stroke followed by reperfusion -common sites: internal capsule, basal ganglia

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19
Q

Berry aneurysm

A

aka saccular aneurysm; most common site is junction of the A Comm and ACA -rupture is common complication = subarachnoid hemorrhage (WHOML) -can cause bitemporal hemianopia via compression of optic chasm -risk factors: advanced age, HTN, smoking, black race

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20
Q

Which diseases are associated with berry aneurysms?

A

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)

Marfan syndrome

Ehlers-Danlos

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21
Q

Patient complains of “worst headache of my life.” Diagnosis?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage!; rupture of berry aneurysm -rapid time course -causes= HTN, Marfan, Ehlers- Danlos, ADPKD or AVM -lumbar puncture : bloody or xanthochromatic (yellow = bilirubin breakdown)

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22
Q

What complication are patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage at risk for?

A
  1. Vasospasm 2-3 days afterward –> not visible on CT, treat with nimodipine
  2. Rebleed –> visible on CT
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23
Q

Diagnosis?

A

:epidural hematoma; d/t ruputre of the middle meningeal artery often secondary to fracture of the temporal bone

  • not crossing suture lines and can cross falx, tentorium
  • Presents with lucid interval but have rapid progression
  • Can progress to transtentorial herniation (uncal herniation)

Recall: tentorium is extension of dura mater

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24
Q

Diagnosis?

A

: subdural hematoma= between the dura and the arachnoid mater; cresent shaped that crosses suture lines but cannot cross falx, tentorium

  • d/t rupture of the bridging veins = slow venous bleeding = develops over time
  • can cause midline shift
  • seen in elderly, alcoholics, blunt traum, shaken baby
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25
Q

Tonsillar herniation

A

:displacment of cerebellar tonsils into the foramen magnum

-Compression of brainstem –> cardiopulmonary arrest

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26
Q

Subfalcine herniation

A

:displacement of the cingulate gyrus under the flax cerebri

-compression of the anterior cerebral artery leads to infarction

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27
Q

Uncal herniation

A

:aka transtentorial herniation; displacement of the temporal lobe uncus under the tentorium cerebelli

  • compression of cranial nerve III = oculomotor palsy (down and out gaze) & dilated pupil
  • compression of posterior cerebral artery leads to infarction of the occipital lobe (contralateral homonymous hemianopsia
  • contralateral crus cerebri = ipsilateral paralysis (false localizing sign)
  • rupture of paramedian arteries (branches of basilar) leads to Duret (brainstem) hemorrhage
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28
Q

Metachromatic Leukodystrophy

A

:autosomal recessive, lysosomal storage disease

  • commonly d/t arylsufatase A deficiency–> sulfatides cannot be degreaded = accumulate in lysosome of oligodentrocytes
  • central and peripheral demyelination with ataxia, dementia
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29
Q

Krabbe Disease

A

:autosomal recessive, lysosomal storage disease

  • deficiency of galactocerebrosidease –> galactocerbroside and psychosine destroys myelin sheath
  • peripheral neuropathy, developmental delay, optic atrophy, globoid cells
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30
Q

Adrenoleukodystrophy

A

:X-linked, typically affecting males

  • disrupts metabolism of very long chain fatty acids= accumulation in nervous system and adrenal gland, testes
  • progressive disease that can lead to long-term coma/death and adrenal gland crisis
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31
Q

Patient- Female 25 y/o with scanning speech, incontinence , INO & nystagmus; relapsisng and remitting course.

A

:multiple sclerosis; autoimmune inflammation and demyelination of CNS

Presentation: optic neuritis (sudden loss of vision resulting in Marcus Gunn pupil), INO, hemiparesis, hemisensory symptoms, bladder/bowel incontinence

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32
Q

What do you expect to find in LP of MS patient? What findings are on MRI?

A
  • increased lymphocytes, increased protein (IgG) in CSF; oligoclonal IgG bands on electrophoresis (diagnositc), myelin basic protein
  • MRI shows periventricular plaques (oligodendryte loss and reactive gliosis)
  • MRI is the gold standard
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33
Q

Diagnosis?

A

MS; dawsons fingers = specific for MS

34
Q

What is the treatment for MS?

A
  • Acute: high dose corticosteroids
  • Chronic: Beta-IFN slows progression, natalizumab
  • Symptomatic neurogenic bladder: catheterization, muscarinc antagonists

Spasticity: baclofen, GABA receptor agonist, pain (opoids)

35
Q

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis

A

:progressive debilitating encephalitis leading to death; d/t slowly progressing, persistent infection of the brain by measles virus

  • infection occurs in infancy; neurologic signs arise in childhood
  • characterized by viral inclusions within neurons (gray matter) and oligodendrocytes (white matter)
36
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

:JC virus infection of oligodendrocytes (white matter)

  • immunosuppression (AIDS, leukemia, etc) leads to activiation of the latent virus
  • presents with rapidly progressive neurologic sigsn (visual loss, weakness, dementia) leading to death
37
Q

Central Pontine myelinolysis

A

:focal demyelination of the pons; d/t rapid correction of hyponatremia

  • Presents as acute paralysis, dysarthria, dysphagia, diplopia, and LOC –> can cause locked in syndrome
  • Physiology: hyponatremia causes neurons to initally swell; during rapid correction ECF becomes hypernatremic and cells shrink =CMP
  • occurs in severely malnourished patients –> alcoholics, patients with liver disease, etc
  • causes “locked in” syndrome
38
Q

What happens in rapid correction of hypernatremia?

A

: cerebal edema/herniation

Physiology: hypernatremic states causes neurons to shrink as water flows out; during rapid correction ECF becomes hyponatremic inducing neuronal swelling

39
Q

What are the clinical features of Alzheimers disease?

A
  • slow onset memory loss and progression to long term memory loss and progressive disorientation
  • loss of learned motor skills and language
  • changes in behavior and personality
  • focal neurologic deficits are not seen early in disease
40
Q

What proteins are associated with early onset alzheimers disease?

A

presenilin-1 (chromosome 14), presenilin -2 (chromosome 1)

41
Q

What increases the risk of developing Alzheimers disease ?

A

: E4 allele of apolipoprotein E (ApoE) on chromosome 19

Note: E2 allele is protective (decreases the risk)

42
Q

What histologic findings would you expect in a patient with Alzheimers disease?

A
  • Senile plaques: extracellular core comprosed of ABeta amyloid
  • amyloid may deposit around vessels = increased risk of hemorrhage
  • Neurofibrillary tangles: intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau protein = insoluble cytoskeleton elements; tangles correlate with degree of dementia
43
Q

What gross findings would you expect in the brain of a patient with alzheimers?

A

Widespread cortical atrophy; narrowing gyri and widening sulci

44
Q

What is the second most common cause of dementia in the elderly?

A

:multi-focal infarction injury due to HTN, atherosclerosis, or vasculitis

45
Q

Pick disease

A

:frontotemporal dementia -> degeneration of frontal and temporal cortex; parietal and occipital lobes spared

  • frontal lobe= behavioral/personality changes; temporal lobe = aphasia
  • characterized by spherical tau protein aggregates in neurons of the cortex

Note: behavioral and language changes arise earlier then progresses to dementia, may have parkinsonsian aspects

46
Q

Lewy Body dementia

A

: initially dementia and visual hallucinations followed by parkinsonian features

-Characterized by alpha-synuclein (lewy bodies) in neurons of the CORTEX

Note: In parkinsons disease dementia has LATE onset in disease

47
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

A

:most common spongiform encephalopathy: rapidly progressive dementia (weeks to months) with ataxia & startle myoclonus (involuntary contraction of muscle with minimal stimulus)

  • Pathogenesis: Prions normally in PCP-c (alpha configuration) get converted to PCP-sc (beta-pleated sheet configuration) –> resistant to proteases and converts normal PRP-c to PRP-sc
  • results in neuron and glial cell damage; characterized by intracelluar vacuoles
48
Q

Parkinson’s Disease

A

: degeneration of the dopaniergic neurons of the substantia nigra

  • characterized by lewy body (alpa-synuclein) eosinophilic inclusions in neurons & depigmenation of subtantia nigra pars compacta
  • Tremor - pill-rolling,resting, Rigidity, Akinesia/bradykinesia, Postural instability [TRAP]
49
Q

MPTP -a contaminant in illicit drugs is associated with which movement disorder?

A

Parkinson’s disease

50
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

:autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat CAG on chromosome 4 -> anticipation

  • degeneration of caudate –> decreased GABA and ACh in brain
  • presents as choreiform movements and athetosis, aggression, depression, and can progress to dementia

Note: chorea= sudden, jerky, purposeless movements; athetosis = slow writing movents, esp in fingers

51
Q

Resting tremor

A

uncontrolled movement of distal appendages; tremor alleviated with intentional movement

52
Q

Intention tremor

A

slow, zig-zagging motion when extending toward a target = cerebellar dysfunction

53
Q

Essential tremor

A

:action tremor; exacerbated by holding posture/limb postion

  • patients often self medicated (EtOH) which decreases tremor amplitude
  • tx: B-blockers, primidone
54
Q

Metastasis in the brain commonly arise from what primary tumors?

A

Lung, breast, kidney

55
Q

Primary brain tumors in adults commonly arise in which area of the brain?

A

supratentorial

56
Q

Primary brain tumors in children commonly arise in which areas of the brain?

A

Infratentorial with the exception of craniopharyngiomas

57
Q

What primary brain tumor? cell lineage? Histology findings?

A

:Glioblastoma multiforme -adult; highly malignant -grade IV tumor of astrocytes; in cerebral hemispheres

  • can cross corpus callosum = “butterfly glioma”
  • Astrocytes stain from GFAP
  • Pseudopalisading = tumor cells surrounded by necrosis and hemorrhage
  • median survival ~ 1 year
58
Q

Brain biopsy of a cerebral mass reveals the following:

A

:adult; pseudopallisading seen in glioblastoma multiforme; pleomorphic tumor cells surrrounding necrosis and hemorrhage

Recall: primary tumor of astrocytes

59
Q

Patient- female presents with seziure, head CT reveals the following: Diagnosis? Histology?

A

:adult; meningioma (dural tails); benign tumor that arises from the arachnoid cells

  • compresses but does not invade cortex; often asymptomatic
  • treatment: resection and/or radiography
  • histology: whorled pattern of spindle cells + psammoma bodies (laminted calcifications)
60
Q

Schwannoma

A

:adult; benign tumor of schwanna cells; often localized to cerebellopontine angle= CN VIII -> acoustic schwannoma

  • presents with hearing loss and tinnitus
  • tumor cells are S-100 positive
  • resectable or treated with sterotactic radiosurgery
  • bilateral acoustic schwannoma associated with neurofibromatosis type 2
61
Q

Oligodendroglioma

A

:adult; malignant tumor of oligodendrocytes; imaging reveals calcified tumor in white mass

-usually involves frontal lobes; may present with seizures

Histology: fried-egg appearing tumor cells + chicken wire capillary pattern

62
Q

What type of brain tumor? Histology?

A

:Pilocytic astrocytoma -children; benign tumor of astrocytes = GFAP positive; often found in posterior fossa (ie. cerebellum)

  • good prognosis
  • Gross appearance: cystic + solid
    histology: rosenthal fibers = brightly eosinophilic, corkscrew fibers
63
Q

Medulloblastoma -what is the name of this finding?

A

:children; malignant tumor derived from granular cells of cerebellum ( of primative neuroectoderm)

  • can compress the 4th ventricle = hydrocephalus
  • can send drop metastasis to spinal cord
  • histology- Homer-wright rosettes + small blue cells
64
Q

Ependymoma

A

:children; malignant tumor of ependymal cells, most commonly in the 4th ventricle; poor prognosis

  • may present as hydrocephalus
  • characteristic perivasicular pseudorosettes on biopsy
65
Q

Craniopharyngioma

A

:benign childhood tumor, arises from epithelial remnants of rathkes pouch

  • may compress the optic chiasm = bitemporal hemianopsia
  • only childhood supratentorial tumor
  • calcification on imaging is common (tooth like
66
Q

Sturge Weber syndrome

A

:congenital, non-inherited (somatic), developmental anomaly of neural crest derviatives (mesoderm/ectoderm) d/t activating mutation of GNAQ gene

  • affects capillary sized blood vessels -> port- wine stain of the face (non-neoplastic) birthmark in V1/V2 distribution, ipsilateral leptomeningeal angioma–> seizures/epilepsy
  • episcleral hemangiona –> increased IOP = early onset glaucoma

STURGE: Sporadic, port wine Stain, Tram track Ca2+, Unilateral Retardation, Glaucoma, GNAQ, Epilepsy

67
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A

“HAMARTOMAS”

Hamartomas in skin and CNS

Angiofibromas

Mitral regurgitation

Ash-leaf spots

cardiac Rhabdomyoma

Tuberous sclerosis

autosomal dOminant

Mental retardation

Renal angiomyolipoma

Seizures/shagreen patches

68
Q

Neurofibromatosis type I

A

:von recklinghausen disease; cafe-au-lait spots, lisch nodules (pigments iris hamartomoas), neurofibromas in skin, optic gliomas, pheochromocytomas

  • mutated NF1 tumor supressor gene (neurofibromin, a negative regulator of Ras) on chromosome 17.
  • skin tumors derived from neural crest cells
69
Q

Von- hippel Lindau disease

A

Cavernous hemangioms in skin, mucosa, organs; bilateral renal cell carcinomas; hemangioblastoma (high vascularity with hyperchromatic nuclei) in retina, brain stem, cerbellum; and pheochromocytomas

-autosomal dominant; mutated VHL tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3, which results in constituitive expression of HIF (transcription factor) and activation of angiogenic growth factors

70
Q

Cluster headaches

A

:repetitive brief headaches; excrutiating periorbital pain with lacrimation and rhinorrhea, May induce horner syndrome

  • unilateral; 15-30 min in duration; more common in males
  • tx: oxygen, sumatriptan
71
Q

Tension headaches

A

: steady pain. no photophobia of phonophobia, no aura

>30 min (typically 4-6 hrs) or constant; bilateral

tx: analgesics, NSAIDs; acetaminophen; amytriptyline for chronic pain

72
Q

Migraine

A

:unilateral pulsating pain with nausea, photophobia or phonophobia; may have aura

  • d/t irritation of CN V, meninges, or blood vessels (release of substace P, CGRP, vasoactive peptides)
  • 4-72 hr duration
    tx: abortive therapy ( triptans, NSAIDs) & prophylactic (propranolol, topiramate, calcium channel blockers, amitripyline)
73
Q

What are the two broad categories of seizures?

A

Seizures: synchronous high-frequency neuronal firing

  1. Partial (focal) seizures: involve one are of the brain, usually originate in the medial temporal lobe
  2. Generalized: diffuse
74
Q

What are the types of partial seizures?

A
  1. Simple partial: conscious, may be motor, sensory, psychic
  2. Complex partial: same as above but LOC
75
Q

What are the types of generalized seizures?

A
  1. Myoclonic: quick jerky movements
  2. Absence (petit mal): 3Hz “spike and wave” pattern, blank stare + no postictal state
  3. Atonic: “drop” seizures, commonly mistaken for fainting
  4. Tonic: stiffening
  5. Tonic-Clonic (grand mal): stiffening with entension or flexion followed by quick jerky movements + post-ictal state; often with incontinence
76
Q

Epilepsy

A

recurrent seizures

77
Q

Status epilepticus

A

:continuous seizure >30 min or recurrent seizures without gaining consciousness >30 min

-medical emergency

78
Q

Cluster headaches

A
  • unilateral, repetitive, 15 min-3hr
  • excrutiating periorbital pain with lacrimation and rhinorrhea. may induce horner syndrome
  • TX: oxygen, sumtriptan
79
Q

Tension headache

A
  • Constant, >30 min (4-6 hrs usually), bilateral
  • steady pain, no photophobia, phonophobia, no aura
  • tx: analgesics, NSAIDs, acetaminophen; amytriptyline for chronic pain
80
Q

Migraine headache

A
  • unilateral, 4-72 hr
  • pulsating pain with nausea, photophobia or phonophobia. May have aura.
  • Abortive tx: triptans, NSAIDs
  • Prophylactic tx: propranolol, topiramate, CCB, amytriptyline