Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine Year 2 5 > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is inflammation?

A

The local physiological response to tissue injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  • ) Rubor/redness
  • ) Calor/heat
  • ) Tumor/swelling
  • ) Dolor/pain
  • ) Function laesa/loss of function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is rubor due to?

A

Dilation of small blood vessels in area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is calor due to?

A

Hyperaemia (increased blood flow) and systemic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is tumor due to?

A

Oedema and a mass of inflammatory cells migrating to area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is dolor due to?

A

Stretch and distortion of tissues from oedema/pus, and chemical mediators such as bradykinin, serotonin and prostaglandins inducing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is functio laesa due to?

A

Movement consciously and reflexively inhibited by pain/tissue and may be immobilised by swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give the 3 main inflammatory cells

A
  • ) Neutrophil polymorphs
  • ) Lymphocytes
  • ) Plasma cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does acute inflammation involve?

A
  • ) Tissue macrophages
  • ) Lymphatics
  • ) Neutrophil polymorphs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give the 3 steps of acute inflammation

A

1) Changes in vessel calibre and flow
2) Increased vascular permeability due to transient chemical mediators and formation of fluid exudate
3) Formation of cellular exudate then emigration of neutrophil polymorphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give 2 chemical mediators of inflammation

A
  • ) Histamine
  • ) Bradykinin
  • ) NO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is fluid exudate?

A

The leakage of protein rich fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give 3 beneficial effects of fluid exudate

A
  • ) Dilution of toxins for removal
  • ) Entry of antibodies due to increased vascular permeability
  • ) Transport of drugs
  • ) Fibrin formation
  • ) Stimulation of immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give 2 harmful effects of fluid exudate

A
  • ) Digestion of normal tissue
  • ) Swelling leading to airway obstruction
  • ) Inappropriate inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give the 4 outcomes of acute inflammation

A
  • ) Resolution to normal
  • ) Suppuration (pus formation)
  • ) Organisation via replacement by granulation tissue
  • ) Progression to chronic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is resolution of acute inflammation?

A

Initiating factor is removed, and the tissue is left undamaged or able to regenerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is pus a mixture of?

A

Living, dying, dead neutrophils/bacteria with cellular debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the stimulus for suppuration?

A

Fairly persistent, usually infective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is pus surrounded by once it accumulates?

A

Pyogenic membrane of capillaries, neutrophils and some fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the pus accumulation eventually become?

A

Granulation tissue and leads to scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is organisation in acute inflammation?

A

The repair of specialised tissue by the formation of a fibrous scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do organisation occur?

A

Production of granulation tissue and removal of dead tissue by phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is scar tissue made mainly of?

A

Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give 3 causes of acute inflammation

A
  • ) Microbial infections
  • ) Hypersensitivity reactions
  • ) Physical agents
  • ) Chemicals
  • ) Tissue necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is chronic inflammation?

A

A prolonged or persistent inflammation marked by new tissue formation (fibrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 4 main cell types in chronic inflammation?

A
  • ) Plasma cells
  • ) Macrophages
  • ) Lymphocytes
  • ) Eosinophil polymorphs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give 3 signs of chronic inflammation

A
  • ) Chronic ulcer
  • ) Chronic abscess cavity
  • ) Fibrosis
  • ) Granulomatous inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give 3 causes of chronic inflammation

A
  • ) Resistance of infective agent to killing
  • ) Necrotic tissue/foreign material
  • ) Autoimmune diseases
  • ) IBD/Crohn’s
  • ) Transplant rejection
  • ) Outcome of acute, usually suppurative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is granulomatous inflammation?

A

A type of chronic inflammation associated with granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

Aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes (activated macrophages) surrounded by mature lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give 2 granulomatous diseases

A
  • ) TB
  • ) Crohn’s
  • ) Leprosy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Give a product of epithelioid histiocytes (and thus granulomas)

A

ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a clot?

A

A solid mass of blood constituents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is laminar flow?

A

Cells generally travel in the centre of arterial vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

A clot formed within an intact vascular system during life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an embolus?

A

A thrombus that breaks loose and travels to another vessel in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Give 2 factors which are needed for a thrombus to form

A
  • ) Change in vessel wall
  • ) Change in blood constituents
  • ) Change in blood flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Give an example of an antiplatelet

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do antiplatelets do?

A

Inhibit thromboxane production from platelets to stop new platelet activation and aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Give an example of an anticoagulant

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do anticoagulants do?

A

Target clotting factors by competing with vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What clotting factors do anticoagulants inhibit? (4)

A
  • ) II
  • ) VII
  • ) IX
  • ) X
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does an atherosclerotic plaque consist of?

A
  • ) Lipid
  • ) Necrotic core
  • ) Connective tissue
  • ) Fibrous cap
  • ) Inflammatory cells
  • ) Possible calcification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which vessels is atherosclerosis most common in?

A

High pressure arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Give 3 risk factors for atherosclerosis

A
  • ) Increasing age
  • ) Male sex
  • ) Smoking
  • ) Obesity
  • ) High cholesterol
  • ) Fatty diet
  • ) DM
  • ) High BP
  • ) FHx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Give the 5 steps of atherosclerosis formation

A

1) Fatty streaks
2) Intermediate lesions
3) Fibrous plaque
4) Plaque rupture
5) Plaque erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Give 3 complications of atherosclerosis

A
  • ) MI
  • ) Angina
  • ) Thrombosis
  • ) Embolism
  • ) Stroke
  • ) Limb ischaemia
  • ) Organ infarction
  • ) Haemorrhage
  • ) Aneurysm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Give the 3 parts of Virchow’s triad

A
  • ) Hypercoagulability
  • ) Blood stasis
  • ) Endothelial damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a thromboembolism?

A

Formation of a blood clot in a vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is an infarction?

A

When blood flow to a tissue is obstructed, and the tissue dies to a lack of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Give 3 complications of a MI

A
  • ) Cerebral infarction
  • ) Arrhythmia
  • ) Cardiogenic shock
  • ) Cardiac rupture
52
Q

What is ischaemia?

A

Inadequate blood flow to tissues

53
Q

Define atrophy

A

Decrease in size of tissue due to decrease in number of constituent cells/decrease in cellular size

54
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

Increase in size of tissue due to increase in size of constituent cells

55
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

Increase in size of tissue due to increase in number of constituent cells, or by lack of apoptosis

56
Q

Dedine dysplasia

A

Imprecise term for morphological changes in cells in the progression to becoming cancer

57
Q

Define metaplasia

A

The change in differentiation of a cell from one fully differentiated type to another fully differentiated type

58
Q

Define apoptosis

A

Progreammed cell death occurring in old/damaged cells so that they aren’t replicated

59
Q

What regulates apoptosis?

A

p53

60
Q

Define necrosis

A

Traumatic cell death

61
Q

Give 2 causes of necrosis

A
  • ) Infarction
  • ) Frostbite
  • ) Toxins
62
Q

What is intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

Potentially premalignant dysplasia of cells

63
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A

The formation of abnormal and uncoordinated tissue growth that persists after withdrawal of the initiating cause

64
Q

Give 4 features of benign neoplasia that differentiate it from malignant (brackets are malignant)

A
  • ) Slow growing (fast)
  • ) Infrequent mitoses (frequent)
  • ) Good histological resemblance to normal tissue (poor)
  • ) Near normal nuclear morphology (enlarged irregular)
  • ) No invasion or mets (occur)
  • ) Often well bordered (poorly defined)
  • ) No necrosis or ulceration (common)
  • ) Exophytic/outward growth (endophytic/inward)
65
Q

What are the 2 ways in which we classify tumours?

A
  • ) Behavioural

- ) Histogenetic

66
Q

Give 2 benign epithelial tumours

A
  • ) Papilloma

- ) Adenoma

67
Q

What is a papilloma?

A

Benign tumour of non-glandular and non-secretory epithelium

68
Q

What is an adenoma?

A

Benign tumour of glandular or secretory epithelium

69
Q

What are malignant epithelial tumours called?

A

Carcinomas or adenocarcinomas (glandular)

70
Q

Give 2 benign connective tissue tumours

A
  • ) Lipoma
  • ) Leiomyoma
  • ) Rhabdomyoma
  • ) Chondroma
71
Q

What are malignant connective tissue tumours called?

A

Sarcomas

72
Q

What are lymphoid/haematopoietic malignant tumours called?

A

Lymphomas or leukaemias

73
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Malignant neoplasm derived form vascular endothelium

74
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma associated with?

A

AIDS

75
Q

What does the grade of neoplasms correlate with?

A

The amount of histological differentiation (and growing speed)

76
Q

What does T1N1M0 mean?

A

Small tumour, 1 nodal met, no other mets

77
Q

Give the staging/grading system used for colorectal carcinomas

A

Duke’s ABCD

78
Q

Give the 7 steps of the formation of a metastatic tumour

A

1) Detachment from other cells
2) Invasion of basement membrane
3) Intravasation
4) Evasion of host defences
5) Arrest by binding to endothelial ligands for adhesion to endothelium
6) Extravasation by integrins
7) Proliferation and vascularisation of tumour

79
Q

How does detachment from other cells occur in the formation of a metastatic tumour?

A

Loss of adhesion molecules

80
Q

What make invasion of the basement membrane and intravasation occur in the formation of a metastatic tumour?

A

Metalloproteinases

81
Q

Give 3 ways in which malignant tumours cause mortality

A
  • ) Pressure on tissue
  • ) Destruction of tissue
  • ) Mets
  • ) Haemorrhage from ulcerated surfaces
  • ) Obstruction of flow
  • ) Formation production
  • ) Pain
  • ) Weight loss
  • ) Debility
82
Q

Give 3 ways in which benign tumours cause mortality

A
  • ) Pressure on adjacent tissues
  • ) Obstruction of flow
  • ) Hormone production
  • ) Possible transformation into malignant
83
Q

What is a germline mutation?

A

Altered gene in gamete that can be passed on

84
Q

Give an example of a germline mutation

A

BRCA1 mutation

85
Q

What is a somatic mutation?

A

Genetic mutation that will be present in subsequent cell divisions but will not be in gametes

86
Q

Give an example of a somatic mutation

A

Philadelphia chromosome

87
Q

Give 3 things carcinogenesis requires

A
  • ) Expression of telomerase to avoid shortening
  • ) Loss of tumour suppressor genefunction
  • ) Enhanced expression of dominant oncogenes
88
Q

What is Knudson’s 2 hit hypothesis?

A

Cancer is the result of accumulated mutations to a cell’s DNA

89
Q

What are the 2 hits in Knudson’s hypothesis?

A

1) Inheritance of defective allele or acquired mutation

2) Mutational loss of function of normal allele

90
Q

Define carcinogenesis

A

The transformation of normal cells into neoplastic cells through permanent genetic alterations or mutations (malignant)

91
Q

Define oncogenesis

A

The transformation of normal cells into neoplastic cells through permanent genetic alterations or mutations (benign and malignant)

92
Q

Define carcinogen

A

Agents suspected or known to cause tumours

93
Q

Define carcinogenic

A

Cancer causing

94
Q

Define oncogenic

A

Tumour causing

95
Q

Give 2 problems with identifying carcinogens

A
  • ) Long latent interval
  • ) Complexity of environment
  • ) Ethical constraints
96
Q

How is the location of cancer caused by chemical carcinogens related to that chemical?

A

Cancer likely localised to where the enzyme that converts the pro-carcinogen to it’s active form is

97
Q

Give 3 treatment options for treating cancers

A
  • ) Radiotherapy
  • ) Chemotherapy
  • ) Surgery
98
Q

Give 2 ways in which conventional chemotherapy works

A
  • ) Bind to mitotic spindles to stop contraction and thus division of cell
  • ) Bind to DNA so synthesis is inhibited
  • ) Bind to enzymes that are needed for DNA replication
99
Q

What is a problem with conventional chemo?

A

It also affects normal dividing cells

100
Q

Give 2 ways in which targeted chemotherapy works

A
  • ) Create antibodies to receptors to prevent growth factor
  • ) Inhibit receptors inside cells
  • ) Antibodies against growth factors
101
Q

Define histogenesis

A

The specific cell of origin for a tumour

102
Q

Define osteosclerotic

A

New bone growth

103
Q

Define osteolytic

A

Holes in bone

104
Q

What do caretaker genes do?

A

Repair DNA damage

105
Q

What do gatekeeper genes do?

A

Promote damaged cell death

106
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

If expressed, they drive the neoplastic behaviour of cells

107
Q

What is the most frequently mutated gene in cancers?

A

Tumour suppressor gene p53

108
Q

What type of gene is p43?

A

Gatekeeper gene

109
Q

What does germline mutation of p53 lead to?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

110
Q

What is Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant hereditary disorder that pre-disposes carriers to cancer development

111
Q

What gene gives rise to familiar retinoblastoma when germline mutated?

A

RB1

112
Q

What type of gene is BRCA1/2?

A

Caretaker

113
Q

Give the 8 principles of screening

A
  • ) Important condition
  • ) Recognisable latent/early stage
  • ) Natural course must be understood
  • ) Suitable, acceptable test
  • ) Case finding should be continuous (repeated tests)
  • ) Accepted and available treatment
  • ) Agreed policy on who to treat
  • ) Cost consideration
114
Q

What must screening be? (5)

A

Cheap, reliable, acceptable, sensitive, specific

115
Q

What are the 2 main types of autopsy?

A

Hospital and medico-legal

116
Q

What are the 2 types of pathologists, and what do they each do?

A

Histopathologist (hospital and coronial), forensic pathologist (coronial)

117
Q

Give 3 questions to answer in an autopsy

A
  • ) Who was the deceased?
  • ) When did they die?
  • ) Where did they die?
  • ) How did they come about their death?
118
Q

What is healing by 1st intention?

A

Wound heals back together

119
Q

What is healing by 2nd intention?

A

Wound doesn’t heal back together, is filled in by other tissue

120
Q

Define congenital disorders

A

Present at birth

121
Q

Defined inherited disorders

A

Caused by inherited genetic abnormality

122
Q

Defined acquired disorders

A

Caused by non-genetic environmental factors, can be congenital

123
Q

What is dermal elastosis?

A

Wrinkles in skin due to UV damage

124
Q

Why do cataracts occur?

A

Cross linking of proteins in lenses due to UV

125
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Loss of muscles mainly due to decreased growth hormone and testosterone

126
Q

Why does deafness occur?

A

Loss of hair cells in cochlea

Medicine Year 2 5 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions