Pathology 5: Summary from Tutorial 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main causes of renal papillary necrosis?

A
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Obstruction
  • Sickle cell disease
  • Tuberculosis
  • Cirrhosis
  • Analgesic and alcohol abuse (phenacetin, long continual paracetamol)
  • Renal vein thrombosis
  • Diabetes
  • Systemic vasculitis

Remember POSTCARDS

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2
Q

What happens to the necrosed papillae in renal papillary necrosis?

A

They can slough off and be passed in the urine

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3
Q

What is the most common type of necrosis in the kidney?

A

Cortical necrosis

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4
Q

What causes cortical necrosis?

A

Hypovolaemic states

This leads to hypoperfusion and necrosis of the renal cortex

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5
Q

How does pyelonephritis present?

A

Loin pain

Fever

Dysuria

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6
Q

What are the key causative organisms in pyelonephritis?

A

E. coli

Enterobacter

Proteus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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7
Q

In the glomeruli, what is the purpose of the mesangial cells?

A

Provide support to capillaries

Regulate blood flow by altering contractile status

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8
Q

Nephritic syndrome involves damage to which aspects of the glomeruli?

A

Endothelium

Mesangial cells

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9
Q

How does nephritic syndrome typically present?

A

Haematuria

Hypertension

Oedema

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10
Q

Nephrotic syndrome typically involves damage to which aspects of the glomeruli?

A

Capillaries

Podocytes

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11
Q

How does nephrotic syndrome typically present?

A

Proteinuria

Hypoalbuminaemia

Peripheral oedema

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12
Q

What is rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

A

Acute deterioration of kidney function associated with crescent formation around the glomerulus

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13
Q

What is Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Autoimmune condition where anti-GBM antibodies attack type IV collagen affecting the kidneys and lungs

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14
Q

How does Goodpasture’s syndrome present?

A

AKI

Haematuria

Haemoptysis

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15
Q

How does Goodpasture’s syndrome present on immunofluorescence?

A

Linear IgG deposition along basement membrane

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16
Q

Which conditions can be associated withe rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

A

Immune complex mediated type of glomerulonephritis e.g. minimal change, focal segmented

Vasculitis

Immunological (SLE, HSP, Goodpasture’s)

17
Q

What is renal cell carcinoma?

A

Cancer of the kiney arising from the epithelium in the proximal tubule

18
Q

What is the most common type of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Clear cell

(cytoplasm rich in lipids and glycogen)

19
Q

What is the second most common type of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Papillary

(elongated papillae with foamy cells)

20
Q

What is the most aggressive for of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Collecting duct

21
Q

What is the classic feature of renal cell carcinoma on CXR?

A

Cannonball metastases

22
Q

Involvement of what in renal cell carcinoma indicates a poor prognosis?

A

Renal vein

23
Q

Who generally gets renal cell carcinoma?

A

Older men (>60)

24
Q

Why is renal cell carcinoma potentially a particularly dangerous type of cancer?

A

It often goes unnoticed

It is known as a “silent cancer”

25
Q

Which symptoms are associated with renal cell carcinoma?

A

Haematuria

Palpable mass

Loin pain

Fever/weight loss

26
Q

Which genetic condition is associtaed with renal cell carcinoma?

A

von Hippel Lindau syndrome

(RCC can be caused by a mutation in the vHL tumour suppressor protein)

27
Q

How are renal cell carcinomas usually treated?

A

Nephrectomy or surgical resection

(resistant to chemotherapy and radiotherpy)

New treatments such as anti-VEGF receptor therapies are effective

28
Q

Which area in the prostate is typically affected by prostate cancer?

A

Peripheral zone

(posterior aspect (felt on PR) is most common)

29
Q

Which type of cancer affects the prostate?

A

Adenocarcinoma

(since the prostate is a gland)

30
Q

How can prostate cancer be treated best?

A

Chemotherapy and radiotherapy

Androgen deprivation therapy

31
Q

How is the prostate biopsied in suspected prostate cancer?

A

Areas from the entire gland are biopsied

This allows the localisation of cancer and allows mnay zones to be examined

32
Q

How is the staging of prostate cancer undertaken?

A

Gleason staging

(cancer is graded 1-5 depending on severity. The most common grade is added to the highest sampled grade. The overall number gives a risk score)

  • Low risk < 6
  • Intermediate risk = 7
  • High risk = 8-10
33
Q

Whta is the most malignant type of testicular cancer?

A

Trophoblastic tumours

34
Q

In which age group do trophoblastic testicualr cancers occur?

A

20-40

35
Q

How are trophoblastic tetsicular cancers treated?

A

Chemotherapy

36
Q

What are the serum markers for

a) Testicular tumours derived from yolk-sac components
b) Testicular tumours derived from trophoblastic components

A

a) Yolk-sac components - Alpha-feta protein
b) Trophoblastic components - bHCG

37
Q

Which serum marker is associated with seminoma?

A

PLAP

(placental alkaline phosphatase)

38
Q

If any cancer is non-specific and undifferentiated what 3 things is it likely to be?

A

Metastatic carcinoma

Primary malignant lymphoma

Melanoma