Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ENT - Fearghal > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

The external acoustic meatus and auditory canal are lined by ________ and contains which two types of glands?

A

Epidermis and contains ceruminous and sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The middle ear is lined by __________ and contains which bones?

A

Columnar epithelium and contains the ossicles; the malleus/incus and stapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The inner ear contains the _____ and ____

A

Cochlea and vestibular apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The nasal vestibule (most anterior part of the nasal cavity) is lined by ______

A

Squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The nose and sinuses are lined by ________

A

Schneiderin epithelium - pseudo stratified, ciliated columnar epithelium with seromucinous glands (same as respiratory mucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What lines the throat?

A

Respiratory or squamous epithelium depending on where exactly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The salivary glands are exocrine/endocrine glands

A

Exocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The glands have an _______ part and a _______ part.

A

Acinar

Ductular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Serous cells are darkly/lightly staining and mucous cells stain a ______

A

Darkly staining serous cells and clear grey staining mucous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The glands contain _____ cells which are often flat of cuboidal with clear cytoplasm

A

Myoepithelium cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Myoepithelial cells ______

A

have some contractile ability to aid secretion of products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

Inflammation of the middle ear - usually viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In a bacterial AOM name the most common organism(s)

A

Strep pneumonia
h. influenzae
moxarella catarhallis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What infecting organism should you consider if there is a chronic bacterial otitis media?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cholesteatoma is a cholesterol filled tumour - true/false

A

False - it is nothing to do with a tumour or cholesterol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cholesteatoma is a locally expansive and destructive growth which is not officially cancer - true/false

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

is a cholesteatoma common? Is it common in any particular age group?

A

it is common and can occur in any age group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is a cholesteatoma most prevalent?

A

Superoposterior middle ear

petrous apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two things are quite often involved with the pathogenesis of a cholesteatoma?

A

Chronic otitis media

Acquired perforated tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The normal lining of the middle ear is _______ and cholesteatoma occurs when ____________

A

Cuboidal/columnar epithelium
Abnormally situated squamous epithelium with a high cell turnover and abundant keratin production occurs in the middle ear - associated inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vestibular schwannoma is a tumour of _____

A

the vestibular portion of vestibulocochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vestibular schwannoma occurs most commonly within the occipital bone - true/false

A

False - temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vestibular schwannoma accounts for _____% of ______ tumours

A

Vestibular schwannoma accounts for 80-90% of cerebellopontine angle tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

95% of vestibular schwannoma are sporadic and bilateral - true/false

A

False - most are sporadic and unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

There is a higher incidence of vestibular schwannoma in males than females - true/false

A

False - equal gender distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If there is a bilateral presentation of vestibular schwannoma in a young person what disease should you consider?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1 has an incidence of ______

A

1:3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1 is autosomal/x-linked dominant/recessive

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

NF1 is characterised by _____

A 
Widespread neurofibromas 
Bony defects 
cafe au last spots 
axillary freckling 
Lisch nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

NF2 is more common than NF1 - true/false

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

NF2 is autosomal dominant - true/false

A

True - but is actually more common as a sporadic mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

NF2 has an incidence of ______

A

1:40,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What protein is encoded by the NF2 gene?

A

Merlin protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does NF2 cause?

A

Bilateral vestibular schwannomma
Multiple meningiomas
Gliomas
Cafe au lait patches

35
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is allergic rhinitis/sinusitis?

A

IgE mediated type I hypersensitivity e.g. hay fever

36
Q

What non-allergic causes are there of rhinitis/sinusitis?

A

Infection e.g. common cold

37
Q

nasal olyps are common in both children and adults - true/false

A

False - common in adults not kids

38
Q

There is an equal incidence of nasal polyps in men and women - true/false

A

true

39
Q

There are a number of aetiologies of polyps including

A 
Allergy 
infection
Asthma 
Aspirin sensitivity 
Nickel exposure
40
Q

Due to its rare incidence, nasal polyps in children should give a very high clinical suspicion of _____

A

Cystic Fibrosis

41
Q

What is Wegener’s granulomatosis?

A

An autoimmune disorder characterised by small vessel vasculitis

42
Q

Give the cause of Wegener’s Granulomatosis

A

No-one knows

43
Q

Where does Wegener’s effect?

A

Restricted to resp and renal tracts

44
Q

Wegener’s is common and normally presents in patient’s of all ages - true/false

A

False - it is uncommon and usually presents in white patient’s over 40

45
Q

How does Wegener’s normally present?

A

Renal disease
Pulmonary disease
nasal symptoms of congestion/septal perf.

46
Q

What antibodies are usually present in Wegener’s?

A

Anti-neutrophil antibodies

47
Q

is Wegener’s ANCA positive?

A

Yes

48
Q

cANCA indicates microscopic polyangitis which pANCA indicates Wegener’s - true/false

A

False - pANCA is microscopic polyangitis while cANCA is Wegener’s

49
Q
  • Tumours in general in the nose are common/rare
  • Most tumours in the nose are malignant/benign
  • the most common three tumours in the nose are:
A

Rare
Benign
Squamous papilloma/schneiderian papilloma/angiofibroma

50
Q

Malignant lesions in the nose tend to be _______

A 
Squamous cell carcinoma (most)
Can also be : 
Adenocarcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
neuroblastoma
lymphoma
51
Q

nasopharyngeal carcinoma has a low/high incidence in the UK but a low/high incidence in the middle east

A

Low incidence UK

High incidence ME

52
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is more prevalent in males/females and has a strong/weak association with EBV/HPV

A

Males
Strong
EBV

53
Q

laryngeal polyps occur in ___% of the population and are a _______

A

1% and are a reactive change in the laryngeal mucosa

54
Q

name three things which cause laryngeal polyps

A

Vocal abuse
infection
Smoking

55
Q

Occasionally laryngeal polyps can be a secondary effect of another disease - what is it?

A

hypothyroidism

56
Q

Who is most likely to get laryngeal polyps?

A

Young women

57
Q

Where in the larynx are polyps most common?

A

The middle 1/3 of the vocal cord to the posterior 1/3

58
Q

laryngeal polyps tend to be uni/bilateral

A

Unilateral

59
Q

Contact ulcer in the throat is malignant/benign response to _____

A

benign response to:

  • Chronic throat infection
  • vocal abuse
  • GORD
60
Q

Squamous papilloma of the throat is most common in two age groups - what are they?

A

less than 5 years and between 20 and 40 years

61
Q

Squamous papilloma in children is strongly linked with HPV types ____

A

6 and 11

62
Q

In children squamous papilloma is an aggressive/benign disease

A

Aggressive

63
Q

In adults squamous papilloma is often solitary and not associated with HPV 6 & 11 - true/false

A

true

64
Q

What is a common tumour in the head and neck?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

65
Q

Risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma include:

A

Smoking, alcohol and HPV type 16

66
Q

How does HPV 16 cause cancer?

A

it produces E6 and E7 which disrupt the p53 and RB pathways respectively which leads to cellular immortality

67
Q

HPV caused SCCs have a distinct appearance and much better/worse prognosis than those not caused by HPV

A

Better

68
Q

Name the four types of salivary glands

A

parotid
Submandibular
Submental
minor glands

69
Q

What is sialolithiasis?

A

Stones (similar to gallstones) formed from saliva in the salivary glands

70
Q

Paramyxovirus causes what symptoms?

A

Mumps;

Bilateral parotitis and orchitis (inflammation of one or both testes)

71
Q

What is there a risk of in paramyxovirus infection?

A

Secondary meningitis

72
Q

What salivary gland is most likely to be affected by all tumours?

A

Parotid

73
Q

Tumours in the minor glands are more likely to be malignant - true/false

A

True

74
Q

What is a pleomorphic adenoma?

A

Most common benign tumour of the salivary gland (mostly parotid)

75
Q

What group does a pleomorphic adenoma normally affect? Does it have a short or long history?

A

Women over 60 - long history

76
Q

pleomorphic adenoma is a reasonably easy tumour to excise but has a high recurrence rate with a risk of malignant transformation if long standing- true/false

A

false and true;
They are difficult to excise
but do have a high recurrence rate and do have a risk of malignant transformation if long standing.

77
Q

Warthin’s tumour is most/second most common benign/malignant tumour of the salivary glands

A

Second most common benign tumour of the salivary glands

78
Q

Warthin’s tumour is most common in males under 50 - true/false

A

False - most common in males over 50

79
Q

Warthin’s tumour has a strong association with _____ and is rare outside the ______ glands

A

Smoking

parotid

80
Q

Worldwide the most common malignant tumour of the salivary glands is _______ while in the UK it is _____

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

81
Q

What age group and gland are mostly affected by an adenoid cystic carcinoma?

A

over 40

parotid

82
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the palate?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

83
Q

What is the 5 year survival for an adenoid cystic carcinoma?

A

35%

84
Q

What is commonly invaded by an adenoid cystic carcinoma? this will cause symptoms of:

A

There is normally peri-neural invasion

Symptoms of pain and loss of function

ENT - Fearghal (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions