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Term 3 FINALS > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

In rheumatoid arthritis, females are more affected than males.

true or false

A

True

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2
Q

osteosarcoma usually appears at the age of 35

true or false

A

False; appears between ages of 10-25 years old (in knees)

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3
Q

in osteosarcoma, the tumor arises from the metaphyseal cancellous bone and erodes the cortex
true or false

A

true

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4
Q

osteochondroma is a tumor-like mass arising from the epiphyseal cartilage

true or false

A

true

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5
Q

the pannus formation is the main pathology leading to joint ankylosis in osteoarthritis.

true or false

A

F; there is NO ankylosis or obliteration of the joint space in osteoarthritis

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6
Q

A tophus is a tissue inflammatory reaction due to the deposition of monosodium urate crystals

true or false

A

true

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7
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is an autoimmune disease associated with the presence of HLA B27.

true or false

A

true

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8
Q

In all types of meningitis, there is an increase in the CSF pressure.

true or false

A

true

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9
Q

subdural hematoma is due to rupture of the middle meningeal artery.

true or false

A

False; an Epidural hematoma is from rupture of the middle meningeal artery. A sub dural hematoma is from veins

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10
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is a demylenating disease of the CNS.

true or false

A

False; M.S. is demyelinating where Alzheimers is a loss of neurons in the entire cortex (accentuated by dementia)

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11
Q

Muscles of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy will appear atrophic.

true or false

A

False; muscles appear bigger because of an increased fat content.

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12
Q

Muscular dystrophies are ALL genetic related disease

true or false

A

True

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13
Q

the following is true in osteoporosis EXCEPT:

A. more common in women than men
B. widening of the costochondral junctions resulting in bead- like appearance
C. bone resorption exceeds bone formation
D. affects the entire skeleton, with more involvment of the vertebral bodies

A

B. widening of the costochondral junctions resulting in bead- like appearance

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of osteosarcoma:

A.around 50% of the tumors are around the knee
B. slow growth
C. the tumor elevates the periosteum
D. one peak incidence is 10- 25 years of age

A

B. slow growth

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15
Q

the following is true about Albright’s disease EXCEPT:
A. it is usually monocytic
B. it is associated with sexual precocity
C. it is associated with skin pigmentation
D. it consists of fibrous replacement

A

A. it is usually monocytic

  • it is a polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (“cafe au lait skin”)
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16
Q

the histologic changes that start as osteolytic followed by osteoblastic activities are characteristic of:

A. Paget’s disease
B. Osteopetrosis
C. fibrous dysplasia
D. osteoporosis

A

A. Paget’s disease

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17
Q

the primary abnormality in osteogenesis imperfecta is:

A. a metabolic abnormality of calcium abnormality
B. a decreased proliferation of cartilage cell
C. an abnormality in lamellar collagen formation
D. a metabolic abnormality of phosphorus metabolism

A

C. an abnormality in lamellar collagen formation

  • known as brittle bone disease
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18
Q 
the most important factor in bone resorption is:
A. calcitonin
B. vitamin D intake
C. basal metabolic rate
D. parathyroid hormone
A

D. parathyroid hormone

*Low level of estrogen is believed to increase bone re-absorption induced by the parathyroid hormones.

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19
Q

In which type of bone fracture can the fracture line be seen by x-ray but the bone ends are not separated?

A. Incomplete (green stick) fracture
B. pathological fracture
C. Comminuted fracture (bone broke 3+ places)
D. none of the above

A

A. Incomplete (green stick) fracture

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20
Q

if the following events were placed in chronological order, which one would come last?

A. subperiosteal abscess
B. formation of involucrum
C. penetration of the organism
D. sequestrium formation

A

C. penetration of the organism

A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2

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21
Q

Osteomalacia has been shown to be the result of:

A. calcium deficiency
B. excess parahormone
C. vitamin D deficiency
D. Vitamin A deficiency

A

C. vitamin D deficiency

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22
Q

all the following characterize osteogenesis imperfecta EXCEPT:

A. blue sclerae
B. brittle bones
C. congenital absence of some bones
D. misshaped teeth
E. many fractures
A

C. congenital absence of some bones

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23
Q 
Histologically normal bone that is reduced in size is defines as:
A. renal osteodystrophy
B. Osteoporosis (osteopenia)
C. osteoma
D. osteitis fibrosa cystica
E. fibrous dysplasia
A

B. Osteoporosis (osteopenia)

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24
Q 
gout results from the abnormal metabolism of:
A. uric acid
B. lipids
C. phophate
D. cholesterol
E. pyrophosphate
A

A. uric acid

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25
Q 
In radiologic evaluation, ewing's sarcoma has been described as:
A. soap bubble
B. signet ring
C. onion skin
D. figure of eight
A

C. onion skin

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26
Q

all of the following are characteristic of osteomyelitis EXCEPT:
A. typically envolves the metaphysis of long bbones
B. occurs in sickle cell disease and polycythemia
C. leads to the formation of a sequestrium
D. most often caused by a penetrating trauma

A

B. occurs in sickle cell disease and polycythemia

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27
Q 
A patient presenting with enlargment of the skull and bowing of the tibia and femur, and deminished hearing. radiologic evaluation provides confirmation of the bone enlargment and evidence of increased radiolucency. In consideration of these findings, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. dyschondroplasia
B. osteomalacia
C. osteoporosis
D. osteogenesis imperfecta
A

D. osteogenesis imperfecta

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28
Q

the following is related to osteomalacia EXCEPT:
A. may be due to malabsorption syndrome
B. Epiphyseal growth plate may show disorganization
C. can produce the Harrison’s sulcus
D. can produce rachitic rosary in children
E. normal mineralization of the bones

A

E. normal mineralization of the bones

  • there’s a decrease in mineralization
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29
Q

which of the following is characterized by an excessive overgrowth of the bone and still more fragility:

A. osteoporosis
B. osteogenesis imperfecta
C. osteoid osteoma
D. osteopetrosis

A

D. osteopetrosis

30
Q 
congestive heart failure in paget's disease of the bone is primarily caused by:
A. anemia
B. arteriovenous shunting
C. hypertension
D.hyperthyroidism
A

B. arteriovenous shunting

31
Q 
the part of the bone initially involved in hematogenous  osteomyelitis is the:
A. metaphyseal region
B. dyaphysis
C. epiphysis
D. area around the nutrient artery
E. medullary cavity
A

A. metaphyseal region

32
Q 
the metacarpophalangeal joints are flexed in which of the following deformities:
A. swan neck deformity
B. ulnar deviation deformity
C. none of the above
D. button hole deformity
A

A. swan neck deformity

33
Q

which of the following statements is true about urate gout:
A. most often secondary to another condition
B. occur in hyperuricemic patients
C. affects mainly the joints of the great toes
D. females are more affected than males

A

B. occur in hyperuricemic patients

34
Q 
rheumatoid nodules occur in about \_\_\_\_ of patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 80%
A

B. 25%

35
Q 
osteoarthritis most commonly affects which one of the following sites:
A. knee joint
B. metacarophalangeal joint
C. ankle joint 
D. costochondral joint
A

A. knee joint

36
Q 
which one of the following is NOT a feature of rheumatoid arthritis:
A. necrosis of subcutaneous collagen
B. Pannus formation
C.  inflamed synovium
D. cartilage degeneration
A

D. cartilage degeneration

37
Q

which of the following does NOT characterize rheumatoid arthritis:
A. immune complexes of IgG/ IgG are found in the circulation:
B. it usually invulces the same joints bilaterally
C. it is probably an autoimmune disease
D.damaged joints may fuse (ankylosis)
E. the synovia shows marked chronic inflamation

A

A. immune complexes of IgG/ IgG are found in the circulation:

38
Q

rheumatoid nodules are most often found in:
A. bone of affected joints
B. the synovial lining of an affected joint
C. heart valves
D. lung
E. subcutaneous tissue

A

E. subcutaneous tissue

39
Q

which of the following is NOT true of osteoarthritis?
A. heberden’s nodes occur predominantly in men
B. inflammation of affected joints is minimal or absent
C. it is usually associated with pain on motion
D. it affects mainly the large joints and spine
E. it usually begins with degeneration and fragmentation of joint cartilage

A

B. inflammation of affected joints is minimal or absent

40
Q

all of the following apply to osteoarthritis EXCEPT that:
A. there is loss of articular cartilage
B. metacarpophalangeal joints are affected first
C. it is the most common form of joint disease
D. the incidence increases with age

A

B. metacarpophalangeal joints are affected first

41
Q 
arthritis involvement of only the distal interphalangeal joints is characteristic of:
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. still's disease
C. ankylosing spodylitis
D. reiter's disease
E.psoriatic arthritis
A

E.psoriatic arthritis

  • sausage swelling”
42
Q 
which of the following is more likely to be seen at the distal interphalangeal joints of the index finger?
A. tophi
B. bouchard's nodes
C. heberden's nodes
D. rheumatoid nodules
A

C. heberden’s nodes

43
Q

rheumatoid arthritis:
A. is the rarest of all the systemic autoimmune diseases
B. usually become manifest in the 5th or 6th decade of life
C. occurs in 8-10% of the general population
D. is 2-3 times more common in women than in men

A

D. is 2-3 times more common in women than in men

44
Q 
which of the following brain parenchyme manifest pathological changes as demvelinating diseases:
A. neurons
B. oligodendroglia
C. astrocytes
D. microglia
A

B. oligodendroglia

45
Q 
which of the following brain parenchyma function in phagocytosis:
A. neurons
B. oligodendroglia
C. astrocytes
D. microglia
A

D. microglia

46
Q 
the most common type of cerebral edema is :
A. pyogenic
B. interstitial
C. vasogenic
D. cytotoxic
A

C. vasogenic

47
Q 
brain edema can develop in:
A. subdural hemorrhage
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. intracerebral hemorrhage
D. epidural hematoma
E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

48
Q

instantaneous death do to bullet wound in the brain could occur as a result of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. centrifugal blast
B. subtentorial herniation
C. acute hydrocephalus
D. disruption of tissue
E. herniation of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

A

C. acute hydrocephalus

49
Q 
which of the following benign neoplasia is most likely to occur in the skull?
A. osteoid osteoma
B. Ivory osteoma
C. osteochondroma
D. enchondroma
A

B. Ivory osteoma

50
Q

non-communicating hydrocephalus may be a consequence of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. glioma of the pons
B. congenital obstruction of the acueduct of sylvius
C. chronic meningitis
D. papilloma of the choroids plexus

A

D. papilloma of the choroids plexus

? make sure

51
Q 
Hydrocephalus ex vacuo is associated with:
A. budd-chiari syndrome
B. dandy-walker-taagart anomaly
C. ependymomas
D. alzheimer's disease
A

D. alzheimer’s disease

52
Q

the following is true about hydrocephalus EXCEPT:
A. leads to an increased intracranial pressure
B. it is an excessive accumulation of CSF
C. may be caused by an obstruction to the CSF circulation
D. usually follows trauma to the head

A

D. usually follows trauma to the head

53
Q 
which of the following neurotransmitters is characteristically decreased in cases of Alzheimer's disease?
A. ACH
B. epinephrine
C. dopamine
D. GABA
A

A. ACH

54
Q

which of the following is characteristic of CSF in purulent meningitis?
A. protein and sugar are increased
B. protein and sugar are decreased
C. protein is increased and sugar is decreased
D. protein is decreased and sugar is increased

A

C. protein is increased and sugar is decreased

55
Q

all of the following apply to cerebral infarcts EXCEPT that:
A. they contain macrophages
B. they may give rise to cysts filled with fluid
C. they may be hemorrhagic
D. capillaries proliferate at the margins of necrotic brain tissue
E. they heal by fibrous scarring

A

???

56
Q 
which of the following types of hemorrhages is most likely to result from the rupture of a Berry aneurysm of the circle of willis:
A. acute subdural hemmorhage
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. cerebral hemorrhage
D. chronic subdural hemorrhage
E. epidural hemorrhage
A

B. subarachnoid hemorrhage

57
Q 
which of the following types of neuropathies is most likely to result from diabetic atherosclerosis?
A. polyneuropathy
B. mononeuropathy
C. autonomic neuropthy
D. mononeuropathy multiplex
A

A. polyneuropathy

58
Q 
the most common type of myelin disorder affecting a 27 year old woman is:
A. huntington's disease
B. Multiple Sclerosis
C. charcot-marie-tooth disease
D. schilder's disease
A

B. Multiple Sclerosis

59
Q

which of the following conditions is NOT associated with dementia?

A. pick’s disease
B. huntington’s chorea
C. senile dementia
D. Alzheimer’s disease

A

B. huntington’s chorea

60
Q 
the muscle biopsy od patients with myasthenia gravis demonstrates abnormal deposits of:
A. acetylcholinesterase
B. antibodies
C. Ach
D. Ach receptor antigens
E. myoglobin
A

A. acetylcholinesterase

61
Q

myasthenia gravis is most often associated with tumors of the:

A. thymus
B.lung
C. liver
D. brain
E. kidney
A

A. thymus

62
Q 
the limb-girdle type of muscle dystrophy is genetically transmitted as:
A. X-linked dominant
B. x-linked recessive
C. autosomal dominant
D. autosomal recessive
A

D. autosomal recessive

63
Q

progressive muscular dystrophy of duchenne is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. muscle weakness occurs initially in the shoulder-pelvic girdle
B. patients are confirmed to a wheel chair after 10 years
C. death is due to respiratory insufficiency
D. boys and girls are affected equally

A

D. boys and girls are affected equally

  • Only in boys
64
Q

which of the following muscles is usually affected the earliest in the course of myasthenia gravis?

A. levator palpebrae superioris
B. orbicularis oculi
C. peroneus longus
D. intercostal muscles

A

A. levator palpebrae superioris

  • Ptosis
65
Q 
A. rabies
B. blood brain barrier
C. neurofibromas
D. multiple sclerosis
E. Alzheimer's disease
F. phagocytosis

Match with above:
focal demyelination

A

D.multiple sclerosis

66
Q 
A. rabies
B. blood brain barrier
C. neurofibromas
D. multiple sclerosis
E. Alzheimer's disease
F. phagocytosis

Match with above:
cafe au lait pigmentation

A

C. neurofibromas

67
Q 
A. rabies
B. blood brain barrier
C. neurofibromas
D. multiple sclerosis
E. Alzheimer's disease
F. phagocytosis

Match with above:
astrocytes

A

B. blood brain barrier

68
Q 
A. rabies
B. blood brain barrier
C. neurofibromas
D. multiple sclerosis
E. Alzheimer's disease
F. phagocytosis

Match with above:
neurofibrillary tangles

A

E. Alzheimer’s disease

69
Q 
A. rabies
B. blood brain barrier
C. neurofibromas
D. multiple sclerosis
E. Alzheimer's disease
F. phagocytosis

Match with above:
negri bodies

A

A. rabies

70
Q 
A. rabies
B. blood brain barrier
C. neurofibromas
D. multiple sclerosis
E. Alzheimer's disease
F. phagocytosis

Match with above:
Microglia

A

F. phagocytosis

Term 3 FINALS (4 decks)

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