Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LU4 HS 202 E1 > Pathologies of Bacterial Diseases > Flashcards

Pathologies of Bacterial Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Rank the following causes of morbidity in the Philippines
A. Acute Respiratory Infection
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchitis

A

ABC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give the ranking of the ff top ten leading causes of mortality in the Philippines

a. Diseases of the Heart and Vascular System
b. Pneumonia
c. Malignant Neoplasms
d. TB

A

a. 1 and 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Three most common infectious causes of morbidity

A

Schistosoma
Malaria
TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Two related aspects in studying disease

A

Pathogenicity

host response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

4 aspects to be considered in Pathology

A

Etiologic agent
Pathogenesis
Morphology
Clinical significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When can you say that there is a disease based on the antibody titre?

A

when there’s a 4x rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bacterial Virulence is characterized by ability to

A

ADHERE to host cells
INVADE cells and tissue
deliver TOXIC moieties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

[Virulence gene:induction]
Vibrio cholerae adherence toxin genes:________
Salmonella genes:_________

A

induced by iron deprivation

induced by acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Cag?

A

Virulence gene converting H. pylori to gastritis producing pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

[Bacterial adhesin: Gram stain]
Fibrillae:_______
Fimbriae or pili:______

A

Gram (+) Cocci

Gram (-) Cocci and rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The following infect macrophages EXCEPT

a. M. tuberculosis
b. E. coli
c. Shigella
d. S. typhi,
e. all except a

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is responsible for most biologic activities of LPS? e.g. feer, macrophage activation, B cell mitogenicity, all cytokine mediated)

A

Lipid A (+ sugar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is used to serotype bacteria?

A

O antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which definitely has endotoxin?

a. Gram -
b. Gram +

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ff. are exotoxins EXCEPT

a. diphtheria txin
b. alpha toxin of C. pefringens
c. anthrax toxin
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]
Most bacteria (except M.
tuberculosis)

A

Gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]

Mycobacteria, nocardiae

A

Acid fast stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]
Fungi, legionellae,
pneumocystis

A

Silver stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]

Fungi, amebae

A

Periodic AcidSchiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]

Cryptococci

A

Mucicarmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]
Campylobacteria, leishmaniae,
malaria parasites, herpes

A

Giemsa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]
Viruses, rickettsiae
(done using ELISA)

A 
Antibody probes
(most important)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]
All classes (~90%)
*others more difficult to culture
(e.g. Salmonella typhi)

A

Culture (can be

used for anything

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[Identify Diagnostic Technique to be used]

Viruses, bacteria, protozoa

A

DNA probes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

neutrophilic attraction to the site of infection in response to chemoattractants (In blood, neutrophilia is indicative of
bacteria even w/o Gram staining)
a. Suppurative inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation and scarring
c. Necrotizing inflammation
d. Mononuclear and Granulomatous inflammation
e. Cytopathic-Cytoproliferative Inflammation

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cell-mediated response of the host – lymphocytes and
macrophages; viruses, intracellular bacteria and arasites, spirochetes and helminths. → TB
a. Suppurative inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation and scarring
c. Necrotizing inflammation
d. Mononuclear and Granulomatous inflammation
e. Cytopathic-Cytoproliferative Inflammation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

absent host inflammatory response, virus-mediated
damage to host cells
a. Suppurative inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation and scarring
c. Necrotizing inflammation
d. Mononuclear and Granulomatous inflammation
e. Cytopathic-Cytoproliferative Inflammation

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Various classes of organisms with powerful toxins that cause extensive tissue damage(abcess). This also indicates destruction of the underlying tissues. → severe form of suppurative inflammation

a. Suppurative inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation and scarring
c. Necrotizing inflammation
d. Mononuclear and Granulomatous inflammation
e. Cytopathic-Cytoproliferative Inflammation

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

end stage of many infections

a. Suppurative inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation and scarring
c. Necrotizing inflammation
d. Mononuclear and Granulomatous inflammation
e. Cytopathic-Cytoproliferative Inflammation

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

characterized by antibody production and excretion of leptospires in the urine, intense jaundice; 2nd week of illness

a. Acute septicemic phase
b. Immune Phase

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How long does leptospirosis acute septicemic phase last?

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

in leptospirosis, antibodies appear during

A

1st week - anicteric syndrome/acute septicemic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the coagulase reaction for?

A

To test for Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which Staph virulence factor is responsible for degrading lipids on skin surface allowing quick abcess formation

A

lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which Staph virulence factor binds with FC portion of immunoglobulins to escape antibody-mediated killing?

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Which Staph virulence factor  attacks desmosomes, which cause keratinocytes to detach → barrier 
function of skin lost?
A

Exfoliative toxin A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]
Focal suppurative inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue; solitary or
multiple, or recurrent in successive crops; most frequent in moist hairy areas; from a single hair
follicle –> deepening abscess –> thinning and rupture of skin

A

Furuncle or boil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]
Deeper suppuration  spread laterally beneath the deep subcutaneous fascia  erupt
in multiple adjacent skin sinuses; found typically in fascial planes favoring their spread (skin of upper
back and posterior neck)

A

Carbuncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]

small red raised lesions, each associated with a hair follicle

A

Folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]

persistent abscess formation of the apocrine glands, often in the axilla; furuncle

A

Hydradenitis suppurativa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]
lesions on finger and wrist usually found in children
o Impetigo- often characterized by yellow to brown crusts; restricted to the superficial epidermis
(fingers, wrist, face, scalp)

A

Bullous impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]

nail bed infection

A

Paronychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]

Infection on the palmar sides of the fingertips\

A

Felon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

[Which Staph clinical feature?]

often characterized by yellow to brown crusts; restricted to the superficial epidermis(fingers, wrist, face, scalp)

A

Impetigo

45
Q

[Identify]
o caused by the exfoliative A and B toxins
o an exfoliative dermatitis that most frequently occur
in children with Staphylococcal infections of the
nasopharynx or skin
o rash, bullae, partial or total skin loss
o skin is split in the granulose laye

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome a.k.a Ritter disease

46
Q

[Identify]
Staphylococcal infection Secondary to drug hypersensitivity, characterized by Desquamation of the skin at the epidermal-dermal junction

A

Lyell’s Disease a.k.a Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

47
Q

[Identify]
o mediated by one or more of the exotoxins produced by S. aureus
o occurs predominantly in menstruating females using tampons (the Staphylococcus colonizes the
vagina or cervix - the tampon probably promotes superficial ulceration and easy entry for the toxin)
o rash is a diffuse, blanching, macular erythema particularly affecting the hands and feet, which
desquamates 1-2 weeks after it appears.

A

TSS

48
Q

What mediates methicillin resistance of MRSA? what genes carry it?

A

mecA carried by Staphylococcal cassete chromosome (SCCmec)

49
Q

MRSA a.k.a “________ eating bacteria”

A

flesh eating bacteria

50
Q

Gram positive, B-hemolytic, facultative anaerobic cocci

a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Diplococcis
d. Gonococcus

A

A

51
Q

T/F patients with S. aureus usually have brain abcesses

A

T

52
Q

[Identify pathogen]
Symptoms: chills, headache, myalgia, abdominal pain, conjunctival suffusion, a transient skin rash (<24
hrs, if present)

A

Leptospira sp.

53
Q

Gram positive non-motile cocci with a large number of plasmids

a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Diplococcis
d. Gonococcus

A

B

54
Q

What do Streptococci have that allows them to avoid phagocytosis?

A

M protein

55
Q

C5a

a. degrades chemotactic peptide
b. allows adhesion
c. prevents bacteria from being recognized by the immune system
d. NOTA
e. AOTA

A

A

56
Q

Which makes more damage to tissues and more pronounced abcesses?

a. Staph
b. Strep

A

A

57
Q

[Identify]
Occurs when Group A streptococci infection spreads
through the epidermis to cause `punched out’ ulcers
that extend into the dermis

A

Ecthyma

58
Q

[Identify]
o Spreading superficial infection of the skin occuring at
any age
o often develops abrupt onset of malaise, fever, chills and headache and the involved skin becomes tender, red, warm and swollen
o occasionally bullous; inflammation spreads with poorly
defined margins (as compared to erysipelas)
o found in lower extremitie

A

Cellulitis

59
Q

[Identify]
o a characteristic variant of cellulitis, almost
always caused exclusively by S. Pyogenes
o painful, bright red, shiny lesion with a raised,
sharply demarcated, advancing edge (“butterfly-wing
rash” with erythema and induration)
o common in the legs and face

A

Erysipelas

60
Q

[Which Streptococcus strain?]

Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, erysipelas, impetigo, rheumatic fever, TSS, and glomerulonephritis.

A

S. pyogenes (Group A)

61
Q

[Which Streptococcus strain?]
o Colonizes the female genital tract
o Sepsis and meningitis in neonates, chorioamnionitis in pregnancy.

A

S. agalactiae (Group B)

62
Q

[Which Streptococcus strain?]
o Community-acquired pneumonia and meningitis in adults
o Pneumolysin – inserts into host cell membranes and lyses them

A

S. pneumonia

63
Q

[Which Streptococcus strain?]
o Dental caries
o Metabolizes sucrose to lactic acid → demineralization of tooth enamel
o Glucans – promote aggregation of bacteria and plaque

A

S. mutans

64
Q

[Which Streptococcus strain?]

Endocarditis

A

Viridans group streptococci

65
Q

[Which Pathogen?]
 Aerobic, non-spore forming, non-motile bacilli with a waxy coat that causes retention of the red dye in
acid treatment of acid-fast stains.
 20-100x slower growth than most bacteria

A

M. tuberculosis

66
Q 
[Which Pathogen?]
  Gram negative, pleiomorphic
  Encapsulated and unencapsulated forms
  Capsule prevents opsonization 
  Pili mediate adherence to respiratory epithelium, also a factor that disorganizes ciliary beating, protease 
that degrades IgA, capsule
A

H. influenza

67
Q

[Which Pathogen?]
 Acid fast obligate intracellular organism that grows very poorly in culture but can be propagated in
armadillo
 Slender, aerobic rods that grow in straight or branching chains
 Affects skin and peripheral nerves and results in disabling deformities

A

M. leprae

68
Q

What can H. influenza cause?

A

LRTI and meningitis in young children

69
Q

What is the great triad symptoms of pneumonia?

A

fever, cough, dyspnea

70
Q

In meningitis caused by H. influenza, what causes inflammation and what causes blood brain barrier disruption?

A

endotoxin causes inflammation, cell wall peptidoglycan damages endothelium

71
Q

Which H. influenza serotype is the most usual cause of disease?

A

serotype B

72
Q

Why is M. tuberculosis destructive?

A

Escapes killing by macrophage + induce type IV hypersensitivity

73
Q

Unique waxy cell wall of M. tuberculosis is composed of mycolic acid and contains

A

Cord factor
Lipoarabinomannan
complement
HSPs

74
Q

M. tuberculosis surface glycolipid causing it to grow in serpentine cords in vitro

A

Cord factor

75
Q

M. tuberculosis lipopolysaccharide, inhibits macrophage activation by interferon gamma and induces macrophages to secrete IFN gamma and IL10

A

Lipoarabinomannan

76
Q

component of M. tuberculosis that opsonizes the organism & facilitates its uptake by the macrophage complement
receptor

A

Complement

77
Q

Component of M. tuberculosis that induce autoimmune reactions

A

HSPs

78
Q

What forms caseation in TB?

A

lysed macrophages

79
Q

What test shows resistance to M. tuberculosis?

A

Tuberculin test; Positive

80
Q

What causes hemoptysis in lung TB?

A

caseous necrosis and cavities rupture into blood vessels

81
Q

Miliary TB occurence favors the ff EXCEPT

a. bone marrow
b. liver
c. lung
d. spleen
e. retina

A

C

82
Q

TB of the skin is called

A

lupus vulgaris

83
Q

TB of the skin, characterized by an indolent, slowly spreading, reddish-brown plaque-like lesion

a. Lupus vulgaris
b. Tuberculoid leprosy
c. Lepromatous leprosy

A

A

84
Q

regarded as allergic reactions to tuberculosis elsewhere in the body

A

tuberculids

85
Q

involves the skin, peripheral nerves, anterior chamber of the eye, upper airways, testes, hands, & feet; contain large aggregates of lipid-laden macrophages often filled with masses of acid-fast bacilli

a. Lupus vulgaris
b. Tuberculoid leprosy
c. Lepromatous leprosy

A

C

86
Q

begins with localized flat, red skin lesion that enlarge and develop irregular shapes with indurated, elevated, hyperpigmented margins, & depressed pale centers (central healing)

a. Lupus vulgaris
b. Tuberculoid leprosy
c. Lepromatous leprosy

A

B

87
Q

anesthetic, dry, scaly skin lesions; asymptomatic involvement of large peripheral nerves, T-cell mediated immune response, with granuloma formation. Damage to
peripheral nerves is mediated by DTH reactions to mycobacterial antigens in the sheaths and fibers.
Nerves of predilection- ulnar, median, radial, lateral popliteal, great auricular
a. Lupus vulgaris
b. Tuberculoid leprosy
c. Lepromatous leprosy

A

B

88
Q

diffuse lesions containing foamy macrophages teeming with mycobacteria, includes symmetric skin thickening & nodules; called anergic leprosy because of unresponsiveness of the host immune system. There could be numerous nodular skin lesions and
thickening of the pinna. Loss of eyebrows, atrophic rhinitis, testicular atrophy, & ocular damage are
common as well.
a. Lupus vulgaris
b. Tuberculoid leprosy
c. Lepromatous leprosy

A

C

89
Q

More severe

a. Tuberculoid leprosy
b. lepromatous leprosy

A

B

90
Q

What determines whether individual has tuberculoid or lepromatous leprosy?

A

T helper cell lymphocyte response to M. leprae

91
Q

CD8+ suppressor T cells at the margins of lepromatous lesions secrete

A

IL-10,IL-4

92
Q

inhibit helper T cells and mediate the anergy seen in lepromatous leprosy

A

IL-10

93
Q

induces antibody production by B cells, these are not protective, but rather form antigen antibody complexes that lead to erythema nodosum leprosum, life-threatening vasculitis and glomerulonephritis

A

IL-4

94
Q

How can you differentiate Borderline tuberculoid leprosy from fungal infection?

A

BT leprosy is anesthetic

95
Q

T/F leprosy is highly communicable

A

F

96
Q

Leonine facies is found in

a. lepromatous leprosy
b. tuberculoid leprosy

A

A

97
Q

T/F M. leprae usually found in nasal passages because they prefer cool areas

A

T

98
Q

Shigella is

a. Gram negative facultative anaerobe
b. Gram positive anaerobe
c. Gram negative anaerobe
d. Gram positive facultative anaerobe

A

A

99
Q

Escapes from phagolysosome

a. M. tuberculosis
b. Shigella
c. both
d. neither

A

C

100
Q

diarrhea with blood or mucoid stool with fresh blood

a. Reiter syndrome
b. Bacillary dysentery

A

B

101
Q

chronic arthritis in HLA-B27 individuals due to S. flexneri, bacterial antigen reacts with the HLA-B27 protein

a. Reiter syndrome
b. Bacillary dysentery

A

A

102
Q

How do you differentiate shigellosis from infection with Entamoeba histolytica?

A

The pseudomembrane and long segment are apparent in shigellosis while Entamoeba histolytica
infections have focal lesions.

103
Q 
[Which pathogen?]
  Gram negative
  Comma-shaped, flagellated
  Flagella for penetrating mucus 
covering of epithelial surfaces
  From contaminated food especially 
undercooked meat and 
unpasteurized milk
  Can be caused by contact with 
infected dogs
A

Campylobacter jejuni

104
Q

acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that results as a post-infectious complication of Campylobacter jejuni

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

105
Q

[Which pathogen?]
 Gram-negative, facultative
 Intracellular
 Affects distal ileum and colon, pharynx and tonsils
 Intestinal ulcers, diffuse enteritis with villus shortening
 crypt hyperplasia, microabscesses in mucosa and submucosa
 Hyperplasia of lymphoid tissue in terminal ileum

A

Yersinia

106
Q

[Which Pathogen?]
 Gram-negative
 Comma-shaped
 cholera causing

A

Vibrio cholerae

107
Q 
[Which Pathogen?]
  Gram-negative
  Flagellated
  Invasion of epithelial cells and macrophages by invasion genes induced by low oxygen tension in the 
gut
  Typhoid-causing
A

Salmonella (S. typhii)

108
Q

S. typhi shed in the ff EXCEPT

a. urine
b. vomittus
c. oral secretions
d. NOTA
e. AOTA

A

D

109
Q

T/F S. typhii infect chickens

A

F; they only infect humans. only non-typhi Salmonella infect chickens

LU4 HS 202 E1 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions