Patho Unit 6 Flashcards

1
Q

part of the neck that is situated immediately posterior to the mouth and nasal cavity and superior to the esophagus, larynx, and trachea.

A

pharynx

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2
Q

behind the oral cavity

A

oropharynx

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3
Q

from the internal nares and the soft palate superior to the oral cavity

A

nasopharynx

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4
Q

covers C4 to C6 of the vertebral column and is inferior to the upright epiglottis and extends to the larynx

A

laryngopharynx

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5
Q

voice box / where respiratory and digestive passages diverge

A

larynx

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6
Q

combination of the vocal folds and the spaces in between them

A

glottis

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7
Q

flap of cartilage located in the throat behind the tongue and over the larynx

A

epiglottis

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8
Q

part of vagus nerve that innervates most of the larynx

A

recurrent laryngeal branch

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9
Q

three types of salivary glands

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

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10
Q

cellular metabolism that utilizes oxygen

A

respiration

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11
Q

action of breathing in and out for air/gas exchange

A

ventilation

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12
Q

space between the lobes (lungs) that contains the heart, great vessels, and esophagus

A

mediastinum

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13
Q

hypothetical area that exists for the purpose of describing the area of the LUL that would occupy the same area as the corresponding RML

A

lingula

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14
Q

name the lobes of the lungs

A

RUL, RML, RLL, LUL, LLLtrachea in

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15
Q

area over the bifurcation of trachea into the R and L mainstream bronchi and is the location of the second costal cartilage

A

Angle of Louis / sternal angle

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16
Q

notch above the manubrium

A

suprasternal notch

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17
Q

lines the thoracic cage

A

parietal pleura

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18
Q

lines the lung viscera

A

visceral pleura

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19
Q

excess fluid in the pleural lining

A

pleural effusion

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20
Q

primary function of the lungs

A

gas exchange between environmental air and the blood of the body

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21
Q

the movement of air into and out of the lungs

A

ventilation

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22
Q

movement of gases between air spaces in the lungs and the bloodstream, across the alveolar-capillary membranes

A

diffusion

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23
Q

movement of blood into and our of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues, allowing CO2 to enter the alveolar air and be breathed our and O2 to leave the alveolar air and enter our bloodstream

A

perfusion

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24
Q

specialized lung cells that “sweep out” the inhaled particles

A

ciliated epithelium

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25
Q

specialized cells in the nares, trachea, and large airway that cause reflex sneezes and coughs to help expel foreign particles

A

irritant receptors

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26
Q

cells where gas exchange takes place

A

alveoli (alveolus)

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27
Q

anatomical appearance of the alveoli (clusters of berry shaped structures)

A

pulmonary acinus

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28
Q

type 1 alveolar cells:

A

provide support

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29
Q

type 2 alveolar cells:

A

create surfactant

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30
Q

substance that prevents the alveoli from collapsing that has chemical properties to reduce surface tension and protects against pulmonary edema (keeps lungs dry)

A

surfactant

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31
Q

causes the collapse of alveoli if they are lined with water

A

Law of LaPlace

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32
Q

major muscle of inspiration that flattens from its bowed position when it contracts creating a negative pressure that passively pulls air into the lungs

A

diaphragm

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33
Q

2 major muscles of inspiration

A

diaphragm

intercostal muscles

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34
Q

accessory muscles of inspiration

A

sternocleidomastoid

scalene muscles

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35
Q

muscles used for forced expiration

A

internal intercostals

abdominal (rectus) muscles

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36
Q

volume increase in the chest cavity results in ______

A

inspiration

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37
Q

reflex that causes passive expiration due to the relaxation of the inspiratory muscles

A

elastic recoil

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38
Q

determined by lung compliance and airway resistance measured with Pulmonary Function Tests

A

work of breathing

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39
Q

test that measures volume and air flow of the lungs

A

pulmonary function tests

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40
Q

type of lung disease that interferes with volume of air due to stiffness of the lungs or chest wall and increases the work of breathing

A

restrictive lung disease

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41
Q

type of lung disease that interferes with the airflow where the airflow is impeded by traveling through a smaller lumen or longer tube

A

obstructive lung disease

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42
Q

types of restrictive lung diease

A

sarcoidosis
kyphosis
scleroderma
asbestosis

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43
Q

types of obstructive lung disease

A
asthma
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary diease)
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44
Q

pressure that any one gas would exert on the walls of a container if it were the only gas present

A

partial pressure

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45
Q

sum of all partial pressures of the component of gases in a mixture of gases

A

total pressure

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46
Q

pressure of the air pressing down on the earth / the sum of the pressure of all gases in air pressing down in a column down on the earth

A

barometric pressure

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47
Q

percentages of gases in the air

A

Oxygen - 21%
Nitrogen 78%
Trace gases 1% (includes CO2)

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48
Q

breaths per minute

A

respiratory rate

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49
Q

amount of gas inspired and expired during normal breathing

A

tidal volume (VT)

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50
Q

amount of gas that can be inspired in addition to VT

A

inspiration reserve volume (IRV)

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51
Q

amount of gas that be expired after passive expiration

A

expiration reserve volume (ERV)

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52
Q

volume of gas that can never be expired and is always present in the lungs

A

reserve volume (RV)

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53
Q

IRV + ERV + VT + RV =

A

total lung capacity (at maximal inflation)

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54
Q

ERV + RV = (gas remaining at the end of expiration)

A

functional residual capacity (FRC)

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55
Q

IRV + ERV + VT = (maximum amount that can be expired from lungs)

A

vital capacity

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56
Q

portion of the tidal volume that actually reaches the alveoli (VT - dead space D)

A

alveolar ventilation (AV)

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57
Q

total amount of new air moved into the respiratory passages each minute
VT x RR = 500ml x 12/min = 6L/min

A

minute respiratory volume

58
Q

vessel that carries desaturated blood

A

pulmonary artery

59
Q

vessel that carries oxygenated blood

A

pulmonary vein

60
Q

dissolved oxygen in arterial blood

A

partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)

61
Q

PaO2 low enough to reduce the SaO2 below 90%

A

hypoxemia

62
Q

inadequate oxygenation of blood to supply the cells with oxygen

A

hypoxemia

63
Q

inadequate oxygen on a cellular level

A

hypoxia (anoxia)

64
Q

type of pulmonary function test that measures BOTH volume and airflow that is always ordered with a bronchodilater (BD) challenge

A

spirometry

65
Q

basic measurements of spirometry

A

forced vital capacity (FVC)
forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
FEV1/FVC
peak expiratory flow rate (PEF)

66
Q

maximum amount of gas that can be displaced from the lung during a forced expiration

A

forced vital capacity (FVC)

67
Q

maximum amount of air that can be expelled from the lung in 1 second

A

forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)

68
Q

percentage of maximum inspiration that is expired in 1 second

A

FEV1/FVC

69
Q

forced expiratory flow rate in the middle of an expiration

A

peak expiratory flow rate (PEF)

70
Q

type of pulmonary function test that looks at the expired CO2 over time during expiration phase

A

capnogram

71
Q

an area that is getting air from ventilation but is not perfused (occurs in apeces/tops of lungs)

A

dead space

72
Q

any time oxygenated blood is mixed with deoxygenated blood ((occurs at bases of lungs)

A

shunting

73
Q

nervous system that controls ventilation

A

ANS

74
Q

area(s) of the brain that contain the respiratory center

A

medulla and pons

75
Q

reflex initiated when lungs are over inflated where respiratory center sends signal to inhibit inspiration and excite expiration

A

Hering-Breuer reflex (stretch reflex)

76
Q

the fact that there is excess oxygen circulating as an oxygen buffer on hemoglobin

A

hemoglobin buffer mechanism

77
Q

regular respiratory reflexes

A

cough
sneeze
hiccup

78
Q

rare, progressive, autoimmune disease that leads to hardening and tightening of the skin and connective tissues (initially dry patches of skin that get thicker and harder and progress to internal organs in some patients

A

scleroderma

79
Q

etiology of scleroderma

A

overproduction of collagen along with localized inflammation

80
Q

common abnormal curvature of the spine that usually begins at the onset of puberty and worsens during the rapid growth phase of the adolescent

A

scoliosis

81
Q

extrinsic restrictive condition that is the most common congenital deformity of the anterior chest that causes decreased space in the chest cavity of the lungs to expand and cardiac compression or shifting with the restriction of stroke volume

A

pectus excavatum

82
Q

inflammatory lung disease (obstructive) that is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways with bronchial hyperresponsiveness to a variety of stimuli causing brochoconstriction, recurrent episodes of wheezing breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing

A

asthma

83
Q

type of asthma caused by sensitization to allergens and contributing factors include respiratory infections, infant prematurity, air pollution, and exposure to smoking

A

atopic asthma

84
Q

type of asthma that is assumed to be due to environmental exposure

A

occupational asthma (irritant induced asthma)

85
Q

disease that most asthma patients have that induces brochospasm

A

gastroesophogeal reflux disease (GERD)

86
Q

handheld meter for patient self use to determine the peak expiratory flow rate (PEF)

A

peak flow meter

87
Q

condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema that is characterized by a midlife onset of slowly progressive symptoms (dyspnea, chronic cough and sputum) woth smoking as the most common risk factor

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

88
Q

how is the severity staged in COPD

A

spirometry

89
Q

type A COPD (means trapping air)
caused by a stiff lungs that have lost elastic recoil and cause a slow airway collapse on exhalation and trap air in the lungs.

A

emphysema

90
Q

type B COPD, more common, can develop in anyone with enough bronchial irritation, may be barrel chested, clubbed fingers, low weight, stooped posture, pursed lips, accessory muscle use when breathing

A

chronic bronchitis

91
Q

increased pressures in pulmonary blood vessels resulting in areas of hypoperfusion and hyperperfusion, can be idiopathic, drug induced, or mountain sickness. dysregulation of low sensitivity to low CO2 in the brain or dysregulation of pulmonary circulation upon exposure to hypoxia

A

primary pulmonary hypertension

92
Q

RV enlargement due to lung disease produces secondary pulmonary artery hypertension that results in clinical picture of RHF

A

Cor Pulmonale Secondary to Pulmonary Hypertension

93
Q

compression of the superior vena cava that may include tracheal narrowing, and/or obstruction of the pulmonary arteries or veins. usually associated with bronchogenic carcinoma, lymphoma, or thrombus. Presents with dyspnea, cough, orthopnea, swelling of the trunk, nasal stuffiness, jugular vein distension, horner syndrome, paralysis of vocal cords, paralysis of phrenic nerve

A

Superior Vena Cava Syndrome (SVCS)

94
Q

when foreign substances are inhaled into the lungs, caused by a swallowing dysfunction or some other inability to control wallowing

A

aspiration

95
Q

aspiration of a bolus while swallowing

A

direct aspiration

96
Q

aspirations of refluxed foods from the stomach that enters the esophagus and then the lung

A

indirect aspiration

97
Q

aspiration that occurs in utero or during birth passage in the amniotic fluid after 34 weeks GA. baby is cyanotic, tachypnic, tachycardic, has nasal flaring and intercostal retractions

A

meconium aspiration

98
Q

aspiration of water (unless laryngospasm keeps water out) with severe hypoxia.

A

near drowning

99
Q

unilateral absence of breath sounds, wheezing, hemoptesis, recurrent pneumonia, stridor, coughing, apnea, inimproving croup, hyperinflated obstructed lung. usually occuring in children due to swallowing objects

A

tracheal foreign body (TFB)

100
Q

airspace disease and consolidation that may be bacterial or viral where airspaces are filled with bacteria or other microorganisms AND exudate

A

pneumonia

101
Q

type of pneumonia that is classical pneumococcal pneumonia with the entire lobe consolidated and air bronchograms are common

A

lobar pneumonia

102
Q

viral or mycoplasma, latter starts perihilar and can become confluent and or patchy as the disease progresses, no air bronchograms

A

interstitial pneumonia

103
Q

follows gravitational flow of swallowed contents, imparied consciousness, post anesthesia, alcoholics, debilitated, demented

A

aspiration pneumonia

104
Q

type of pneumonia where microbes (including strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Chlamidia pneumoniae, mycoplasma pneumoniae, staph aureus, respiratory viruses, endemic fungi…) that is often called walking pneumonia (has cough, fever, purulet sputum, chest pain, shaking chill)

A

Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)

105
Q

after one week of hospital stay and there is a new CXR infiltrate

A

Nosocomial (hospital acquired) pneumonia

106
Q

abnormal and permanent dilation (ectasia) pf bronchi or lower airways that can be acquired or congenital and can be focal or diffuse

A

bronchiectasis

107
Q

secondary to prior pneumonia that has walled off, usually caused by a prior aspiration or infection behind an obstructed bronchus. almost always clears with correct antibiotics over 2-3 weeks

A

lung abscess

108
Q

purely pediatric condition AKA acute infectious laryngotracheobronchitis that sounds like a barky cough with inspiratory stridor with respiratory distress

A

croup

109
Q

pediatric diagnosis: small airway inflammation and RSV posistive, common in first 2 years of life. usually in spring or fall and may trigger future asthma

A

pediatric bronchiolitis

110
Q

organizing pneumonia that has granulation tissue in the distal air spaces

A

Bronchiolitis Obliterans Organizing Pneumonia (BOOP)

111
Q

usually pediatric diagnosis, presents as high fever, respiratory distress, dysphagia, muffled voice, sit erect and drool, swollen epiglottis. EMERGENCY. prepared to intubate

A

epiglottitis

112
Q

infection of the middle ear with acute onset, presence of a middle ear effusion, and signs of middle ear inflammation. most frequent diagnosis in a febrile child. presents with otalgia, fever, tinnitus, vertigo, draining ear, and child pulling at ear

A

acute otitis media (AOM) (middle ear infection)

113
Q

looks like bubble behind the eardrum, eardrum may be retracted, may be a black horizontal line across the TM if middle ear is partially full of fluid, may be caused by reduced barometric pressure (plane ride), may contribute to hearing loss or tinnitus symptoms

A

serous otitus media (SOM)

114
Q

can be caused by Streptococcal (group A beta-hemolytic strep), diphtheric, or gonococcal microbes, but only 15% is caused by group A strep. it is mostly viral

A

pharyngitis

115
Q

viral or bacterial, edema, erythema, purulent exudate from crypts. swelling in tonsillar pillars

A

tonsillitis

116
Q

inflammation and/or infection of one or more paranasal sinuses, occurs with the obstruction of the normal drainage mechanism. occuring for < 3 weeks

A

acute bacterial sinusitis

117
Q

length of time to be considered chronic sinusitis

A

> 3 months

118
Q

complication of direct orbital trauma where bacteria reaches the orbit via wall of infected sinus or gains entry from the outside due to a trauma

A

orbital cellulitis

119
Q

airborne mycobacterial infection, usually of the lungs, causing cough, weight loss, night fevers, fatigue, hemptysis, and is acutely infectious. Tested for by placing a PPD

A

tuberculosis (TB)

120
Q

immune incompetence form cancer, HIV, immune suppressing drugs, or severe illness

A

anergy

121
Q

lung cannot inflate completely due to fluid being in the pleural cavity and taking up the lung space. can be aquired or congenital (infectious or noninfectious)

A

pleural effusion

122
Q

removal of fluid by drainage (may require placement of chest tube for continuous drainage

A

thoracentesis

123
Q

air in the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura

A

pneumothorax

124
Q

accumulation of blood within the chest (usually in the pleural space) usually due to to trauma

A

hemothorax

125
Q

collection of pus in the pleural space

A

empyema

126
Q

describes how far cancer has spread anatomically, and tissue invasion

A

staging

127
Q

part of pathology report that describes a macro view. naked eye description as it is received in the lab

A

gross description

128
Q

part of pathology report that describes the findings of the cells after all of the fixation and processing has been completed

A

microscopic description

129
Q

leading cause of cancer death and second most commonly diagnosed cancer (excluding skin cancer) among both men and women in the US

A

lung cancer

130
Q

type of cancer associated with asbestos exposure, that arises from mesothelial cells (usually in pleura, but also in the peritonium, pericardium, and testes. very aggressive and usually fatal

A

pleural mesothelioma

131
Q

clot in the vein that can lead to a traveling clot

A

deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

132
Q

traveling clot

A

venous thromboembolism

133
Q

when a venous thromboembolism ends up in the lungs

A

pulmonary embolism

134
Q

prediction charts for diagnosis pulmonary empbolism

A

Wells Prediction Rule

Geneva Test

135
Q

name some tests for diagnosing pulmonary embolism

A
Dimer test
ABGs
BNP
EKG
ultrasound
capnography
x-ray
Ct scan
angiogram
136
Q

condition where fluid is in the lungs to to an injury or infection. prevention of gas exchange causes hypoxemia, dyspnea, CXR infiltrates, and decreased pulmonary compliance (EMERGENCY)

A

pulmonary edema and ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome)

137
Q

when airway pressure is maintained above atmospheric pressure at the end of exhalation by means of impedance (valves), in order to increase the volume of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of expiration, improving gas exchange

A

positive end-expiratory pressure ventilation (PEEP)

138
Q

pulmonary edema that occurs after the removal of an airway obstruction

A

post-obstructive pulmonary edema (POPE)

139
Q

condition where hypoxemia drives minute ventilation inducing respiratory alkalosis and low CO2 to the brain, develops after ascending 1000 feet in 24 hours.

A

acute mountain sickness (AMS)

140
Q

two complications from acute mountain sickness that are caused if at the altitude for too long where fluid gets into the lungs and/or the brain

A

high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)

high altitude cerebral edema (HACE)