Patho Test 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Outer layer of cortex made of nerve cell bodies & dendrites
A
Gray Matter
2
Q
Coordinates muscle activity & fine tunes motor activity
A
Cerebellum
3
Q
Relay station for receiving & processing sensory information before
sending them on to the cerebral cortex
A
Thalamus
4
Q
Center for critical internal body functions such as body temperature,
water concentration, hormone secretion and associated with feelings
of rage, aggression, hunger & thirst
A
Hypothalamus
5
Q
Sensory strip; receives stimuli information from the afferent neurons
A
Postcentral Gyri
6
Q
Inner layer of cortex made up of axons of nerve cells
A
White Matter
7
Q
Motor strip; sends out the brains response to stimuli to the efferent
neurons
A
Precentral Gyri
8
Q
Lateral Ventricles
A
Foramen of Monro
9
Q
3rd Ventricle
A
Aqueduct of Sylvius
10
Q
4th Ventricle
A
Foramen of Luschka
Central Canal
Foramen of Magendie
11
Q
Glioma
A
Malignant
12
Q
Meningioma
A
Benign
13
Q
Acoustic Neuroma
A
Benign
14
Q
Craniopharyngioma
A
Benign
15
Q
Chordoma
A
Malignant
16
Q
Which extension of the dura mater separates right & left hemis of cerebellum?
A
Falx cerebelli
17
Q
Which extension of the dura mater is tent-like in structure and separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum?
A
Tentorium Cerebelli
18
Q
What part of the ventricle is responsible for the production of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)?
A
Choroid plexus
19
Q
What is the function of the nervous system?
A
Communication system of the body; sends out signals from one cell to another in response to stimuli
20
Q
How many pairs of cranial nerves are in the body?
A
12 pairs
21
Q
How many pairs of spinal nerves are in the body?
A
31 pairs
22
Q
What structures are part of the central nervous system?
A
Brain and spinal cord
23
Q
What is the function of the afferent tract?
A
Send information from the peripheral receptors to the central nervous system
24
Q
What is the function of the efferent tract?
A
Send impulses/response from the central nervous system to the muscle or gland for response to the stimuli
25
What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Neuron (nerve cell)
26
Name the parts of the neuron and what their function is.
Soma (cell body) – “brains” of the cell or control center; controls nucleus
Dendrites – extensions that bring information into the cell body
Axons – extensions that take information away from cell body
Myelin sheath – surrounds axon; acts as electrical insulation of the axon and helps increase the speed of transmission of nerve impulses (Made of glial cells called Schwann cells)
Node of Ranvier – points/gaps along neuron where signal is passed along the neuron – generates electrical activity; areas where axon is exposed (no myelin sheath) – 1 micrometer
Synaptic Terminals – bulb end of the axon where neurotransmitter molecules are stored and released
27
Name the 3 types of neurons and what their job is.
Sensory Neurons – transmit information from sensory receptors to CNS (responses to touch, light, sound)
Motor Neurons – transmits response message from CNS to muscles & glands (stimulates muscle contraction as directed by CNS)
Interneurons – transmits information from one neuron to the next within CNS
28
Name the lobes of the brain.
Frontal, Parietal, Temporal, Occipital
29
What are the names of the shallow grooves in the brain?
Sulci
30
What are the names of the folds in the brain?
Gyri
31
What are the names of the deep grooves in the brain that separate the lobes?
Fissures
32
What is the name for the covering of the brain and spinal cord? List the 3 layers and the spaces between.
Meninges:
Dura mater – tough outer later
Subdural space (below the dura)
Arachnoid – cobweb-like layer
Subarachnoid space (below the arachnoid)
Pia mater – delicate inner layer
33
What is the name of the areas where the arachnoid layer protrudes through dura mater and are responsible for sucking up the excessive CSF, sending it to the blood stream?
Arachnoid Villi (granulations)
34
Which layer(s) of the meninges does meningitis affect?
Pia mater and arachnoid layers
35
Which form of meningitis is most severe?
Bacterial
36
Which virus is most commonly responsible for viral meningitis? How is this virus spread?
Enterovirus; fecal contact
37
What factors determine the severity of viral meningitis?
Patients age, strength of immune system, and type of virus causing it
38
What modality is best at demonstrating conditions of the nervous system?
MRI
39
What condition of the brain is a pocket collection of pus, immune cells, and dead brain tissue due to chronic infections?
Brain abscesses
40
What is the most common bacterial cause of the above condition?
Streptococci
41
What condition of the brain is caused by intracranial focal collection of pus located between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater?
Subdural empyema
42
What condition of the brain is caused by intracranial collection of pus located between the dura mater and skull? Where is this condition most commonly found?
Epidural Empyema; spinal cord
43
What is the most common type of brain tumor? What cells does it arise from? What are these cells responsible for making up?
Glioma; glial cells; make up the myelin sheath
44
Name the 5 types of glioma & where they are most commonly found.
Glioblastoma: cerebrum
Astrocytoma: Cerebrum, cerebellum, thalamus, optic chiasm, and pons
Ependymomas: 4th ventricle (children); lateral ventricle (adults)
Medulloblastoma: Vermis of cerebellum
Oligodendrocytoma: Cerebrum (originates in precursor glial cells)
45
Which is the most common type of glioma?
Astrocytoma
46
Which type of glioma is most common in children?
Medulloblastoma
47
If a pituitary adenoma is “hormone secreting”, how will this affect the secretion of hormones controlled by the pituitary gland? What are some of the effects of this form of tumor?
Increases the secretion of growth and stress hormones, increase in steroid production, and causes hyperthyroidism; can cause gigantism in adolescents, acromegaly in adults, and can cause Cushing’s disease.
48
Which brain tumor stems from germ cells, is most commonly seen in men under age 25, and can grow near the Aqueduct of Sylvius blocking the flow of CSF?
Pineal tumor
49
What are the most common locations of a chondroma?
Clivus and lumbosacral region
50
What is the most common source for metastatic carcinoma that spreads to the brain?
Lung or breast cancer
51
Which skull fracture intersects with a suture and can cause suture separation?
Diastatic
52
An epidural hematoma is most commonly due to a ruptured artery and the blood collects between the
dura mater and skull.
53
A subdural hematoma is most commonly due to a ruptured vein and the blood collects between the
dura mater and arachnoid.
54
What is known as a bruise of the brain tissue?
Cerebral contusion
55
What fracture occurs to the floor of the orbit? What is the most common cause of this fracture? What radiographic image is taken to demonstrate this fracture?
Blowout fracture; punch to the orbit; Water’s
56
What radiograph is most commonly taken to demonstrate a zygomatic arch fracture?
SMV
57
What 3 structures are fractured in a tripod fracture?
Orbital floor, zygomatic arch, and zygomatico frontal suture
58
Name the 2 types of stroke and what causes them.
Ischemic: obstruction of blood flow to brain tissue
Hemorrhagic: ruptured vessel causing intracerebral hematoma
59
If a patient suffers a stroke on the right side of the brain, which side of the body will be affected?
Left
60
What is caused by a brief stop of blood flow to part of the brain and mimics a stroke?
Transient ischemic attack
61
What condition is caused by a destruction of myelin sheath surrounding the axon leading a slowdown of nerve impulses?
Multiple sclerosis
62
What causes the MS?
Autoimmune disorder that causes the immune system to attack/eat away at the myelin sheath
63
What gender/age range is most commonly affected by MS?
Women between 20-40 years
64
What is caused by a repeated disruption of brain activity and results in the brain sending abnormal signals telling the muscles to contract and relax without cause?
Epilepsy and convulsive disorders
65
Name the 2 types of seizures.
Petit mal: brief loss of consciousness; person appears to be staring off into space with blank stare
Grand mal: causes patient to lose all control of voluntary muscle control and bodily functions; can cause foaming at the mouth
66
What should be our first response to a patient having a seizure?
Get them to the lowest, safest level possible and protect them from harm. Turn them to the side.
67
In normal aging, people suffer a gradual loss of neurons. How does this appear on an MRI image?
Enlargement of the ventricular system and sulcii
68
What is the difference between normal aging and Alzheimer’s disease?
Alzheimer’s disease is more progressive form of cerebral atrophy (earlier than normal); disrupts the network between neurons
69
How many years before visible symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease occur can the disease begin to affect the brain?
10-20 years
70
What is one of the most common locations in the brain affected by Alzheimer’s disease?
Hippocampus
71
What type of hereditary disease is Huntington’s disease?
Autosomal dominant
72
Who is most commonly affected by Huntington’s disease?
Men between 30-40 years
73
What part of the brain is affected by Huntington’s disease and how does it affect the individual?
Caudate nucleus; causes abnormal eye movement, loss of speech, decrease in short term memory, uncontrollable flailing of extremities, dementia, paranoia, psychosis
74
What is considered to be the most common nervous system disorder in elderly?
Parkinson’s disease
75
How does parkinsons affect the brain?
Diminishment of substantia negra causing a decrease in dopamine production; since dopamine is responsible for controlling muscle movement, the patient will suffer from tremors
76
What condition causes an atrophy of motor neuron cells? What is the most common cause of death for these patients?
Lou Gehrig’s disease (ALS); respiratory failure due to paralysis of muscles in lungs
77
Name 3 types of hydrocephalus and describe.
Non-communicating: obstruction to flow of CSF = build-up of fluid in ventricles
Communicating: impaired CSF reabsorption = too much CSF in system
Normal-pressure hydrocephalus: dilated ventricles with normal CSF pressure
78
How should all sinus x-rays be taken and why?
Upright – to demonstrate air-fluid levels without distortion
79
What is the function of the hematopoietic system?
Blood carries oxygen, nutrients, salts, and hormone cells
Blood carries away waste (CO2)
Fights infection, toxic substances, and foreign antigens (WBC)
80
Where are red blood cells produced?
Red bone marrow located in vertebrae, proximal femur, and flat bones
81
What is the technical name for red blood cells? What shape of these cells? What is their function? What is unique about these cells?
Erythrocytes; biconcave disks that provides greater surface space; transport oxygen and CO2; they do not have a nucleus – these cells cannot repair themselves (120 day lifespan)
82
How is RBC production triggered?
When oxygen levels are low, the kidney produces erythropoietin which is carried to the bone marrow via the bloodstream. This stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBC’s. The RBC increase the amount of oxygen in bloodstream and trigger the kidneys to decrease the production of erythropoietin
83
Name the 5 types of leukocytes and what their functions are.
Neutrophils: respond to infection and attack bacteria (1st type of immune cells to respond to site of infection)
Eosinophils: related to food allergies; protect the body by killing bacteria and parasites; highest number of eosinophils are found in GI tract
Basophils: Responsible for response to seasonal allergies; also contain anticoagulant heparin that prevents blood from clotting too quickly
Lymphocytes: protect the body from infection; determines the specifics of how the immune system should respond based on type of invading organism (B cells and T cells)
Monocytes: develop into macrophages that consume foreign material; alert the T cells to the presence of foreign material
84
Which type of blood cells are responsible for the clotting of blood?
Platelets
85
What causes anemia?
Not enough RBC’s cause a reduction in hemoglobin = not enough oxygen carried by RBCs
86
What is the most common form of anemia?
Iron deficiency anemia
87
What form of anemia occurs when the bone marrow is unable to replace the RBCs that are being destroyed? What causes it? Name & describe the 4 types of this condition.
Hemolytic anemia; body thinks the RBCs are a foreign substance and attacks them causing a shorter lifecycle
Spherocytosis: RBC is spherical instead of concave = more fragile
Sickle cell: abnormal hemoglobin causes a change in shape of the RBC (crescent shape) = more fragile and cell gets stuck causing an obstruction in blood vessels
Thalassemia: abnormal hemoglobin causes excessive destruction of RBC
Erythroblastosis fetalis: caused by Rh- and Rh+ antigens in blood causes danger to future pregnancies
88
Which form of anemia is caused by abnormally large RBC that causes a decrease in the number of RBC?
Megaloblastic anemia
89
What radiographic appearance may result from megaloblastic anemia?
Gastric atrophy – balding appearance of the stomach (loss of rugae)
90
What type of anemia results from a failure of the bone marrow to produce RBC, WBC, and platelets?
Aplastic anemia
91
What condition is caused by over production of red blood cells leading to increase blood volume and thickness?
Polycythemia
92
Explain the difference between myelocytic leukemia and lymphatic leukemia.
_Myelocytic leukemia: increase production of abnormal neutrophils_______________
__Lymphatic leukemia: increase production of abnormal lymphocytes
93
Which form of lymphoma is most common?
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
94
What disease is caused by Epstein-Barr virus?
_Infectious mononucleosis_
95
What is the bleeding disorder that causes blood to take a long time to clot? Which gender is most susceptible to this condition?
Hemaphilia; males
96
What condition results from an abnormally low amount of platelets?
Purpura (thrombocytopenia)
97
What condition is caused by excess production of glucocorticoid hormones?
Cushing’s Syndrome_
98
What is the purpose of the adrenal glands and where are they located?
secretion of aldosterone , cortisone, testosterone, androstenedione, Epinephrine, and norepinephrine; located on top of kidneys ____
99
Where is the pituitary gland located and what’s its function (name the hormones secreted)?
Located in sella turcica; controls action of other glands in endocrine system; secretion of growth hormone, Thyroid-stimulating hormone, Adrenocorticotropic hormone , and Gonadotropins ___
100
What is hyperpituitarism and what condition does it cause?
Hyperplasia of anterior lobe or tumor that produces excess growth hormone
Causes gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults
101
Name the butterfly shaped gland located anterior to the larynx. What is its function?
Thyroid gland; regulates body metabolism and stores thyroxine
102
What is the superior imaging modality for demonstrating the function and nonfunctioning thyroid tissue?
Nuclear Medicine_
103
What does the aldosterone hormone control in the body?
Blood pressure (sodium & potassium levels)
104
What glands consist of 4 tiny, oval shaped structures that are responsible for hormones that control levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood? Where is it located?
Parathyroid glands; Behind the thyroid
105
What condition is a result of the body’s lack of response to proper secretion of parathyroid hormone?
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
106
What condition occurs as a result of increased secretion of parathormone (PTH)? What’s the difference between primary and secondary?
Hyperparathyroidism
Primary: enlargement of 1 or more glands causing an overproduction of hormones
Secondary: low calcium levels created somewhere else in body causes an increase in stimulation for production of PTH hormone
107
Describe the 2 types of diabetes and who is affected by each. Which is the most common form?
Type 1: pancreas does not make enough insulin; children
Type 2: insulin resistance and inadequate insulin secretion; adults
Type 2 is most common
