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Fall 2023 > Patho final > Flashcards

Patho final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary modality of choice for most reproductive diseases/conditions?

A

US

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2
Q

What STD can cause chronic osteomyelitis, affecting the long bones and skull?

A

Syphilis

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3
Q

What is the modality of choice for imaging patients with gonorrhea?

A

US, CT, or Retrograde Urethrogram

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4
Q

Which infectious reproductive disease may lead to fibrotic strictures in the urethra of men?

A

gonorrhea

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5
Q

When benign prostatic hyperplasia is demonstrated on an IVP, how will it appear?

A

Smooth filling defect pushing bladder upward & Fish-hook or J-shaped appearance of ureters entering bladder

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6
Q

What is the primary cause for benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Changes in sex hormone balance (decrease in testosterone)

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7
Q

What is a common complication associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Hydronephrosis, obstruction of urethra

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8
Q

Which infectious reproductive disease may cause to pelvic inflammatory disease in women and lead to fibrous scarring of the fallopian tubes?

A

gonorrhea

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9
Q

In which stage of syphilis will radiographic abnormalities begin to appear? What are some of the abnormalities that may be present?

A

Dilation of the ascending aorta (aneurysm) with linear calcification, chronic osteomyelitis showing bone destruction and sclerotic new bone formation, Charcot’s joint (destruction of weight bearing joints)

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10
Q

hat is endarteritis and what infectious reproductive disease may cause it?

A

Inflammation of the lining of the aorta; syphilis

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11
Q

Where are most prostate cancerous tumors located?

A

Peripheral zone of prostate

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12
Q

When diagnosing carcinoma of the prostate gland, what type of protein value is seen elevated if cancer is present?

A

Elevated PSA value

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13
Q

What is the most common site of metastasis of prostate cancer?

A

Bones (pelvis, thoracic/lumbar, femur, ribs)

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14
Q

How is radiation therapy commonly administered to patients with carcinoma of the prostate gland?

A

Radioactive seed implantation (temporary or permanent)

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15
Q

When prostate enlargement is visible on an IVU image, how can benign prostatic hyperplasia be differentiated from malignant prostate cancer?

A

Benign = smooth edged filling defect in bladder Malignant = irregular edged filling defect in bladder

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16
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Undescended testicle

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17
Q

What is the principle determining factor for cryptorchidism?

A

? Low birth weight (premature birth)

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18
Q

Testicles typically descent into the scrotum in which weeks of gestation?

A

28-40 weeks

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19
Q

What is a patient that has suffered from cryptorchidism at higher risk to develop later in life?

A

Testicular cancer

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20
Q

How does testicular torsion typically occur?

A

Connective tissue disorder or trauma

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21
Q

Describe the difference between testicular torsion and epididymitis.

A

Torsion: twisting of the spermatic cord that cuts off blood flow
Epididymitis: inflammation of the epididymis (tube connecting testicles to vas deferens) causing increased blood flow to inflamed tissue

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22
Q

What is the best imaging modality for differentiating between testicular torsion & epididymitis?
How will each of these conditions appear differently on the image?

A

Nuclear medicine (or color Doppler US):
Torsion: Decrease blood flow  decrease uptake  cold spot
Epididymitis: Increase blood flow  increase uptake  hot spot

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23
Q

What is the most common location for metastasis from testicular tumors?

A

Kidneys

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24
Q

What are the 2 types of testicular tumors and describe the differences?

A

Seminoma:
* Slow growing
* Affects men ages 30-40
* Responds well to radiation therapy
Non-seminoma (teratoma):
* Most common
* Fast growing
* Pure teratoma (one type of germ cell) – usually seen in boys before puberty
* Mixed teratoma (more than one type of germ cell) – seen in men ages 20-30

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25
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for demonstration of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Ultrasound

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26
Q

What are some of the main causes for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

STD complications (chlamydia or gonorrhea), unsterile abortion, IUD complication, unprotected sex with multiple partners

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27
Q

What is the difference between a follicular ovarian cyst and a corpus luteum ovarian cyst?

A

Follicular Cyst: Follicle does not open and egg not released results in follicle filling with fluid
Corpus Luteum Cyst: Egg released, but follicle closes trapping fluid and blood

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28
Q

What is a common complication to ovarian tumors?

A

Omentum cake: abnormal thickening of the greater omentum

29
Q

What is the most common source of metastasis for ovarian tumors?

A

Breast, colon, or stomach

30
Q

Where are uterine fibroids located in the uterus?

A

Within the myometrium (middle muscle layer) of the uterus wall

31
Q

What is usually contained in a dermoid cyst (teratoma)?

A

Skin, hair, teeth, fatty tissue

32
Q

What controls the growth of uterine fibroids?

A

estrogen

33
Q

What age group is most susceptible for endometrial carcinoma and why?

A

Women over 50 (postmenopausal); shift in balance of estrogen and progesterone

34
Q

List 2 risk factors associated with endometriosis.

A

Family hx, early menstruation, no children, abnormal menstrual cycle

35
Q

What is the test is used for early detection of cervical cancer?

A

Pap smear

36
Q

What is the most common cause of death in cervical cancer patients and why?

A

Renal failure; obstruction of ureters by large tumor = hydronephrosis

37
Q

What is the most common form of breast cancer?

A

Invasive (infiltrating) ductal carcinoma

38
Q

Name and describe the 4 forms of breast cancer discussed.

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma: starts in milk ducts of breast, break through the wall of duct and spreads into fatty tissue
Ductal carcinoma in situ: cells that lined the milk ducts and stay there

Invasive lobular carcinoma: begins in the milk-producing glands (lobules)

Inflammatory breast cancer: cancer causes inflammation of entire breast, making skin look red and feel warm. Gives breast skin a thick, pitted appearance that looks like an orange peel.

39
Q

Where does breast cancer begin?

A

Glandular tissue

40
Q

What’s the most common location of breast cancer and why?

A

Upper outer quadrant; this is the last part of the breast to change over from glandular tissue to fatty tissue

41
Q

What age group is most at risk for developing breast cancer?

A

Ages 44-60

42
Q

What is known as an increase growth of glandular tissue in the male breast (benign)?

A

Gynecomastia

43
Q

What percent of cases of breast cancer are found in men?

A

1%

44
Q

In ultrasound, how will the appearance of a cyst of the breast differ from a fibroadenoma?

A

Cyst – black (fluid filled) with white shadow
Fibroadenoma – white (solid mass) with black shadow

45
Q

Where are the majority of ectopic pregnancies located?

A

? In the fallopian tubes

46
Q

Which vitamins are fat-soluble that can be stored in body tissues?

A

A, D, E, K

47
Q

Which vitamins are water-soluble that cannot be stored and must be eaten on a regular basis to prevent deficiency?

A

B and C

48
Q

Name the different types of Vitamin B

A

B1 – thiamine
B2 – Riboflavin
B3 – niacin
B5 – pantothenic acid
B9 – folic acid
B12 – cobalamin

49
Q

What condition is caused by a deficiency of B1? Name the different types and what systems it affects.

A

Beriberi
Dry beriberi – affects peripheral nervous system
Wet beriberi – affects cardiovascular system
Infantile beriberi – weightloss, diarrhea, vomiting, pale skin, edema

50
Q

Which condition is caused by a B3 deficiency and list the “4 D’s” associated with it?

A

Paliagra: Diarrhea, Dermatitis (reddening/scaling skin), Dementia (mental disorders), and Death

51
Q

Who is most at risk for paliagra?

A

alcoholics

52
Q

What condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C?

A

scurvy

53
Q

What affects does scurvy have on bones?

A

Causes lack of bone and cartilage production in children with growing bones, causes osteoblast failure (osteoporosis), loss of bone mineral density (osteopenia)

54
Q

What condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D?

A

Rickets

55
Q

What vitamin deficiency is responsible for night blindness and decreased immunity?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

56
Q

What vitamin deficiency is most common in infancy and leads to increased bleeding, bruising, & hematomas?

A

Vitamin K deficiency

57
Q

What condition is caused by an increase in vitamin A or D? What are some of the affects?

A

Hypervitaminosis;
Vitamin A: bone and joint pain, hair loss, itching, dry cracking lips, yellow/orange tint to skin, enlargement of liver and spleen
Vitamin D: Calcium deposits in kidney, heart, stomach lining and bones

58
Q

What are some of the effects of protein-calorie malnutrition?

A

Liver tissue is replaced by fatty tissue, edema and acites, dry, cracking skin, damage to mucosal lining of intestine, atrophy of the brain and thymus gland

59
Q

What is the name of the autoimmune disease that causes body systems to attack healthy tissue leading to chronic inflammation and tissue damage? Who is most at risk?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus; women ages 10-50

60
Q

Melanoma most commonly metastasizes to where?

A

GI system

61
Q

Name the condition where a child is born with 3 strands of chromosome 21.

A

Down Syndrome

62
Q

Name some of the complications that accompany Down’s syndrome?

A

Congenital heart disease, duodenal obstruction, Hirschprung’s disease, increased chance of leukemia

63
Q

What chromosomal condition that one of the two X chromosomes is missing one of the “arms”? Which gender is affected?

A

? Turner’s syndrome; females

64
Q

What are some of the complications that are associated with turners syndrome?

A

Short stature, incomplete sexual development, horseshoe kidney, coarctation of the aorta, increased incidence of multiple autoimmune disorders

65
Q

What condition is caused by a connective tissue disorder? What gene is defective? What are some of the complications?

A

Marfan’s syndrome; fibrillin-1; too much growth of long bones, dilated aorta leading to dissection aneurysm

66
Q

Which rare condition does not allow the body to properly break down the amino acid phenylalanine and how does it affect the brain?

A

Phenylketonuria; dilation of ventricles

67
Q

Which condition is caused by an enzyme deficiency and causes urine to turn dark brown/black with air hits it?

A

Alkaptonuria

68
Q
A

Fall 2023 (4 decks)

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