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Fall 2023 > Patho Test 2 > Flashcards

Patho Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the GI system?

A

Break down food in preparation for absorption for use by the cells of the body (ingestion, secretion, mixing/movement through body, digestion, absorption of nutrients, excretion)

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2
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

wave like contraction moving food/waste through the system

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3
Q

Name the sphincters of the esophagus and describe their function.

A
  • Proximal: keeps food from entering trachea
  • prevents acid and stomach contents rom reflexing into esophagus
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4
Q

Name the 4 layers of the esophagus from out to in.

A
  • Fibrous
  • Muscular
  • Submucousal
  • Mucosal
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5
Q

Where does most of the absorption take place?

A

Small intestine (Most digestion occurs in duodenum; most absorption takes place in jejunum)

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6
Q

Where is bile produced? What is the purpose of bile?

A

Liver; breaks down fatty foods for better digestion

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7
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

Stores bile and distributes bile to duodenum as needed

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8
Q

What are the finger-like projections located on the inner surface of the duodenum and what are their purpose?

A

Villi; increase surface area for greater absorption

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9
Q

What are the folds/pouches in the colon called and what are their purpose?

A

Haustra; they temporarily store waste and contract to push waste along the colon

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10
Q

What are the bands called that cause the above mentions pouches in the colon?

A

Tenaie Coli

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11
Q

What is the largest gland/organ in the body and what is its function?

A

Liver; removes harmful poisons from the blood stream, produces bile, stores Vitamins A, B12, D and iron

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12
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

produces and distributes enzymes to the duodenum to break down proteins, carbs, and fat; controls glucose/insulin levels in body

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13
Q

What is the most common form of congenital tracheoesophageal fistula and explain the defect? What will be demonstrated on a radiograph?

A
  • Type C distal TEF with EA
  • Contrast will back up in EA pouch and spill into the trachea
  • Contrast will enter back into the GI system through distal fistula
  • Some contrast will enter bronchial tree
  • Air will be present in stomach
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14
Q

Which 2 forms of congenital tracheoesophageal fistula has NO connection with the stomach? How is this determined from a radiograph?

A
  • Type A and Type B
  • No air will be present in the stomach
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15
Q

Explain how an acquired tracheoesophageal fistula may form and what disease most commonly causes it.

A
  • With destructive disease of the esophagus (most commonly carcinoma), during the healing process, a fistula forms between the esophagus and trachea
  • Esophageal carcinoma
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16
Q

What is the main cause of esophagitis?

A

GERD

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17
Q

What maneuver is used to demonstrate GERD during an UGI exam?

A

Valsalva maneuver

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18
Q

What the most common form of tracheoesophageal fistula? Explain this defect.

A

Type C (3): Proximal esophageal atresia and distal TEF near carina

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19
Q

Explain how an acquired tracheoesophageal fistula may form and what disease most commonly causes it.

A

With destructive disease of the esophagus (most commonly carcinoma), during the healing process, a fistula forms between the esophagus and trachea

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20
Q

What exam is used to diagnose esophagitis?

A

Esophagram or UGI

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21
Q

At which level of the esophagus would each of the following diverticula appear:

A

Traction Diverticula Thoracic esophagus

Zenker’s Diverticula  Cervical esophagus

Epiphrenic Diverticula  Distal 10cm of esophagus
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22
Q

Explain how it would be determined if a gastric peptic ulcer is benign vs. malignant.

A

Benign: smooth structure with radiolucent stalk (Hampton’s Line), smooth folds radiating out
Malignant: irregular borders with abnormal tissue growing around the stalk

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23
Q

In which part of the colon does Crohn’s Enteritis most commonly appear?

A

Cecum & Ascending colon

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24
Q

In which part of the colon does Ulcerative Colitis most commonly appear?

A

Rectosigmoid
colon/descending colon

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25
Q

Esophagitis

A

Thickened, irregular folds in the esophagus due to submucosal
edema and inflammation, candida = fungal
Herpes virus = viral

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26
Q

Esophageal Diverticula

A

Barium filled outpouching

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27
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

A

Lead Pipe Appearance

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28
Q

Volvulus

A

Twisting and knotting intestines, Coffee bean sign

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29
Q

Benign Peptic Ulcer

A

Hampton’s Line

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30
Q

SB Obstruction

A

Step ladder appearance

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31
Q

Colon cancer

A

Apple core appearance

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32
Q

Intussusception

A

Intestine telescopes into itself, Coil spring appearance

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33
Q

Achalasia

A

Esophageal sphincter failure, Rat tail appearance

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34
Q

Esophageal Varicies

A

Dilated veins of esophagus, Rosary bead sign

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35
Q

Put the following structures of the urinary system in order from start to finish:

A

3__ Calyces

_6\_\_ Bladder

_1\_\_ Glomerulus

_5\_\_  Ureters

_2\_\_  Tubules

_4\_\_ Renal Pelvis
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36
Q

Explain the parts & function of the nephron (include all parts of the tubules).

A

Bowman’s Capsule: where blood is filtered; Glomerulus: Tuft of capillaries located inside Bowman’s Capsule bringing blood to be filtered; Proximal Convoluted Tubule: drains Bowman’s capsule and resorption of particles; Loop of Henle (thin tubule): reabsorbs water & sodium ions; controls urine concentration; Distal Convoluted Tubule: Regulates sodium, potassium, & pH balance; further dilution of urine; Collecting Tubules: final sodium regulation occurs; collects urine

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37
Q

Name the 3 types of ectopic kidneys and explain their location.

A

Pelvic Kidney: Pelvis Intrathoracic Kidney: Thoracic cavity Crossed Kidney: on same side as other kidney

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38
Q

What disorder is seen in male newborns that caused by an abnormal membrane blocking the normal path for urine to exit the body?

A

Posterior Urethral Valves

39
Q

What condition occurs to a kidney when the other kidney does not do its job?

A

Compensatory Hypertrophy

40
Q

What disorder occurs when there is a blockage at the junction of the ureter and bladder due to swelling?

A

Ureterocele

41
Q

What condition may develop in a patient if the radiographer places the urinary bag above the level of the bladder when transferrin the patient from the cart to the table?

A

Cystitis

42
Q

Unilateral renal agenesis

A

. Single kidney; failure of embryonic renal bud to form

43
Q

Supernumerary kidney

A

3rd small, underdeveloped kidney with little function

44
Q

Hypoplastic kidney

A

Small functioning kidney

45
Q

Malrotation kidney

A

Kidney is rotated so that ureters are exiting the kidney
abnormally

46
Q

Ectopic Kidney

A

One kidney in abnormal location

47
Q

Horseshoe Kidney

A

Both kidneys are malrotated and fused together at the lower
poles by a band of normal renal parenchyma

48
Q

Duplex Kidney

A

One kidney with 2 separate collecting systems

49
Q

Which tumor originates from embryonic renal tissue and causes a pronounced distortion and displacement of the pelvicalyceal system as demonstrated during an IVP?

A

Wilm’s Tumor (Nephroblastoma)

50
Q

What hormone is distributed by the kidneys that stimulates the rate at with red blood cells are produced?

A

Erythropoietin

51
Q

What is the non-pus producing inflammation of the glomeruli and what is it commonly caused by? Is this condition usually bilateral or unilateral?

A

Glomerulonephritis – caused by antigen-antibody reaction commonly caused by hemolytic streptococci bacteria OR due to chronic autoimmune disorder such as lupus; bilateral

52
Q

How does the above condition affect the urine concentration?

A

Allows protein & blood to pass into urine

53
Q

What is the pus producing inflammation of the kidney? Is this condition usually bilateral or unilateral? Who is most commonly at risk? What radiographic appearance may be present with this condition?

A

Pyelonephritis; unilateral; women and children; clubbing of calyces

54
Q

What condition is caused by a gas forming bacteria? Who is most at risk? What is the prognosis?

A

Emphysematous pyelonephritis; diabetic patients; 60% death rate

55
Q

Tuberculosis that spreads to the kidneys will cause what to form? How is TB spread to the kidneys?

A

Granulomas throughout the cortex of the kidney and calcification; bloodstream

56
Q

What are the most common causes of papillary necrosis and how does this condition appear on a radiograph?

A

Sickle cell disease, obstructive pyelonephritis, diabetes, excessive analgesic use; broken papillary tips = ring of contrast around radiolucent triangles (tip)

57
Q

Where are most urinary calculi formed

A

Kidneys

58
Q

Name the different types of urinary calculi

A

Small stones (less than 3mm)
Staghorn calculus: grows to fill the entire renal pelvis
Nephrocalcinosis: too much calcium deposited in kidney parenchyma usually caused by hypothyroidism
Bladder stones: common in elderly men

59
Q

Name the most common causes of urinary tract obstruction in adults. Children?

A

Adults: kidney stones, pelvic tumor, urethral strictures, enlargement of prostate gland
Children: Ureteropelvic junction narrowing, ureterocele, posterior urethral valve

60
Q

How does the location of the obstruction affect the kidneys?

A

If the obstruction is above the bladder, dilation of the ureter will be unilateral and only one kidney will be affected (hydronephrosis)
If the obstruction is below the bladder (prostatic hypertrophy or tumor), dilation of the ureters will be bilateral and both kidneys will be affected (hydronephrosis)

61
Q

What is the modality of choice to demonstrate renal cysts?

A

Ultrasound

62
Q

How should benign cysts appear?

A

Smooth inner wall

63
Q

Polycystic kidney disease can be autosomal dominant or recessive. When will the condition appear for each type of PKD?

A

Dominant = middle age
Recessive = infants

64
Q

How does the calcification pattern associated vary between renal carcinoma and benign cysts?

A

Renal carcinoma = calcification forms inside the mass
Benign cyst = calcification forms at outside edges

65
Q

What is the most common abdominal tumor found in infants and children?

A

Wilm’s tumor

66
Q

Who is most at risk to develop carcinoma of the bladder? How does is commonly appear on a radiograph?

A

Men over 50 years old; finger-like projections reaching into the bladder

67
Q

What is the most common cause for renal vein thrombosis in children?

A

Severe dehydration

68
Q

How does renal failure affect the size of the kidney for acute failure? Chronic failure?

A

Acute = enlargement
Chronic = shrinkage

69
Q

What’s the difference between prerenal and postrenal failure?

A

Prerenal = obstruction of blood flow going to the kidneys
Postrenal = obstruction of the urine flowing out of the kidneys

70
Q

Explain the path of blood flow through the heart beginning with when the deoxygenated blood enters and ending when the oxygenated blood leaves the heart.

A

Lungs
__14_ Aortic Arch
__1__ Superior/Inferior Vena Cava
__3__ Tricuspid Valve
__12_ Aortic Semilunar Valve
__10_ Mitral Valve (Bicuspid)
__2__ Right Atrium
__9__ Left Atrium
__4__ Right Ventricle
__11_ Left Ventricle
__13__ Ascending Aorta
__5__ Pulmonary Semilunar Valve
__6__ Pulmonary Arteries
__8__ Pulmonary Veins

71
Q

Explain coarctation of the aorta.

A

narrowing or constriction of aorta usually just beyond the branching of blood vessels to the head/arms

72
Q

List the 3 types of left-to-right shunting defects and explain how they affect the flow of blood.

A
  • Atrial septal defect
  • Ventricular septal defect
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
73
Q

What factors contribute to the severity of an embolism?

A
  • Size
  • Location
  • Collateral circulation
74
Q

What are common factors that lead to the formation of thrombosis?

A

slow blood flow/circulation, change in vessel wall (injury/inflammation), low O2 levels

75
Q

Where are some common sources for emboli and where do they tend to travel to?

A

Lower extremities  pulmonary arteries; mitral valve  brain, kidney, other organs

76
Q

What occurs when there is a temporary insufficiency of oxygen to heart muscle?

A

Angina pectoris

77
Q

Which 4 defects are present in Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • Ventricular septal defect
  • Pulmonary artery stenosis
  • Overriding aorta
  • Hypertrophy of RV
78
Q

Which congenital heart defects cause a left-to-right shunting of blood? How does each affect the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart?

A

Atrial septal defect – enlargement of the right atrium and ventricle
Ventricular septal defect – enlargement of the left atrium and ventricle
Patent ductus arteriosus – enlargement of the left atrium and ventricle, and pulmonary arteries

79
Q

What is the main cause for valve stenosis/insufficiency? Which valves are affected? Describe how these defects affect the flow of blood through the heart (i.e. where does excessive blood collect and how does that affect the heart)?

A

Rheumatic fever
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
* Stenosis – enlargement of the left atrium
* Insufficiency – enlargement of the left atrium
Aortic semilunar valve
* Stenosis – hypertrophy of left ventricle
* Insufficiency – enlargement of left ventricle

80
Q

What are the layers of the aorta?

A

Intima (inner), media (middle), and adventitia (outer)

81
Q

Describe the formation of dissection of the aorta

A

Tear in the intima layer of the aorta allows for blood collection between intima and media layers. The more blood that collects, the more separation occurs

82
Q

What is known as the pacemaker of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

83
Q

What blood pressure reading is considered hypertension?

A

> 140/90 mmHg

84
Q

What is the systolic number? Diastolic number?

A

Systolic = contraction of left ventricle; Diastolic = relaxation of left ventricle

85
Q

What is the most common location for a traumatic aortic rupture to occur? What’s the most common cause?

A

Descending aorta just distal to left Subclavian artery (former location of ductus arteriosus); MVC

86
Q

What are the types of aortic aneurysm? Common locations?

A
  • Saccular aneurysm: only 1 side of vessel wall
  • Fusiform aneurysm: entire circumference of vessel wall
  • Thoracic aorta location: Descending aorta, Ascending aorta, Aortic arch
  • Abdominal aorta location: below branches of renal arteries
87
Q

How does hypertensive heart disease affect the heart?

A

Leads to thickening of heart wall and blood vessels; Increases resistance to blood flow; Left ventricle forced to work harder = hypertrophy

88
Q

Mallory-weiss syndrome

A

Tear of tissue in lower esophagus

89
Q

Barrett’s esophagus

A

Squamous lining destruction

90
Q

Esophagitis types

A

Reflux esophagitis
Pill-induced esophagitis
Eosinophilic esophagitis
Infectious esophagitis

91
Q

True diverticula

A

Affects all layers of esophageal wall

92
Q

False diverticula

A

Affects either mucosal or submucosal

93
Q
A

Fall 2023 (4 decks)

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