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Fall 2023 > Patho Test 2 > Flashcards

Patho Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the GI system?

A

Break down food in preparation for absorption for use by the cells of the body (ingestion, secretion, mixing/movement through body, digestion, absorption of nutrients, excretion)

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2
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

wave like contraction moving food/waste through the system

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3
Q

Name the sphincters of the esophagus and describe their function.

A
  • Proximal: keeps food from entering trachea
  • prevents acid and stomach contents rom reflexing into esophagus
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4
Q

Name the 4 layers of the esophagus from out to in.

A
  • Fibrous
  • Muscular
  • Submucousal
  • Mucosal
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5
Q

Where does most of the absorption take place?

A

Small intestine (Most digestion occurs in duodenum; most absorption takes place in jejunum)

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6
Q

Where is bile produced? What is the purpose of bile?

A

Liver; breaks down fatty foods for better digestion

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7
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

Stores bile and distributes bile to duodenum as needed

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8
Q

What are the finger-like projections located on the inner surface of the duodenum and what are their purpose?

A

Villi; increase surface area for greater absorption

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9
Q

What are the folds/pouches in the colon called and what are their purpose?

A

Haustra; they temporarily store waste and contract to push waste along the colon

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10
Q

What are the bands called that cause the above mentions pouches in the colon?

A

Tenaie Coli

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11
Q

What is the largest gland/organ in the body and what is its function?

A

Liver; removes harmful poisons from the blood stream, produces bile, stores Vitamins A, B12, D and iron

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12
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

produces and distributes enzymes to the duodenum to break down proteins, carbs, and fat; controls glucose/insulin levels in body

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13
Q

What is the most common form of congenital tracheoesophageal fistula and explain the defect? What will be demonstrated on a radiograph?

A
  • Type C distal TEF with EA
  • Contrast will back up in EA pouch and spill into the trachea
  • Contrast will enter back into the GI system through distal fistula
  • Some contrast will enter bronchial tree
  • Air will be present in stomach
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14
Q

Which 2 forms of congenital tracheoesophageal fistula has NO connection with the stomach? How is this determined from a radiograph?

A
  • Type A and Type B
  • No air will be present in the stomach
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15
Q

Explain how an acquired tracheoesophageal fistula may form and what disease most commonly causes it.

A
  • With destructive disease of the esophagus (most commonly carcinoma), during the healing process, a fistula forms between the esophagus and trachea
  • Esophageal carcinoma
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16
Q

What is the main cause of esophagitis?

A

GERD

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17
Q

What maneuver is used to demonstrate GERD during an UGI exam?

A

Valsalva maneuver

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18
Q

What the most common form of tracheoesophageal fistula? Explain this defect.

A

Type C (3): Proximal esophageal atresia and distal TEF near carina

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19
Q

Explain how an acquired tracheoesophageal fistula may form and what disease most commonly causes it.

A

With destructive disease of the esophagus (most commonly carcinoma), during the healing process, a fistula forms between the esophagus and trachea

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20
Q

What exam is used to diagnose esophagitis?

A

Esophagram or UGI

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21
Q

At which level of the esophagus would each of the following diverticula appear:

A

Traction Diverticula Thoracic esophagus

Zenker’s Diverticula  Cervical esophagus

Epiphrenic Diverticula  Distal 10cm of esophagus
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22
Q

Explain how it would be determined if a gastric peptic ulcer is benign vs. malignant.

A

Benign: smooth structure with radiolucent stalk (Hampton’s Line), smooth folds radiating out
Malignant: irregular borders with abnormal tissue growing around the stalk

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23
Q

In which part of the colon does Crohn’s Enteritis most commonly appear?

A

Cecum & Ascending colon

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24
Q

In which part of the colon does Ulcerative Colitis most commonly appear?

A

Rectosigmoid
colon/descending colon

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25
Esophagitis
Thickened, irregular folds in the esophagus due to submucosal edema and inflammation, candida = fungal Herpes virus = viral
26
Esophageal Diverticula
Barium filled outpouching
27
Ulcerative Colitis
Lead Pipe Appearance
28
Volvulus
Twisting and knotting intestines, Coffee bean sign
29
Benign Peptic Ulcer
Hampton’s Line
30
SB Obstruction
Step ladder appearance
31
Colon cancer
Apple core appearance
32
Intussusception
Intestine telescopes into itself, Coil spring appearance
33
Achalasia
Esophageal sphincter failure, Rat tail appearance
34
Esophageal Varicies
Dilated veins of esophagus, Rosary bead sign
35
Put the following structures of the urinary system in order from start to finish:
3__ Calyces _6__ Bladder _1__ Glomerulus _5__ Ureters _2__ Tubules _4__ Renal Pelvis
36
Explain the parts & function of the nephron (include all parts of the tubules).
Bowman’s Capsule: where blood is filtered; Glomerulus: Tuft of capillaries located inside Bowman’s Capsule bringing blood to be filtered; Proximal Convoluted Tubule: drains Bowman’s capsule and resorption of particles; Loop of Henle (thin tubule): reabsorbs water & sodium ions; controls urine concentration; Distal Convoluted Tubule: Regulates sodium, potassium, & pH balance; further dilution of urine; Collecting Tubules: final sodium regulation occurs; collects urine
37
Name the 3 types of ectopic kidneys and explain their location.
Pelvic Kidney: Pelvis Intrathoracic Kidney: Thoracic cavity Crossed Kidney: on same side as other kidney
38
What disorder is seen in male newborns that caused by an abnormal membrane blocking the normal path for urine to exit the body?
Posterior Urethral Valves
39
What condition occurs to a kidney when the other kidney does not do its job?
Compensatory Hypertrophy
40
What disorder occurs when there is a blockage at the junction of the ureter and bladder due to swelling?
Ureterocele
41
What condition may develop in a patient if the radiographer places the urinary bag above the level of the bladder when transferrin the patient from the cart to the table?
Cystitis
42
Unilateral renal agenesis
. Single kidney; failure of embryonic renal bud to form
43
Supernumerary kidney
3rd small, underdeveloped kidney with little function
44
Hypoplastic kidney
Small functioning kidney
45
Malrotation kidney
Kidney is rotated so that ureters are exiting the kidney abnormally
46
Ectopic Kidney
One kidney in abnormal location
47
Horseshoe Kidney
Both kidneys are malrotated and fused together at the lower poles by a band of normal renal parenchyma
48
Duplex Kidney
One kidney with 2 separate collecting systems
49
Which tumor originates from embryonic renal tissue and causes a pronounced distortion and displacement of the pelvicalyceal system as demonstrated during an IVP?
Wilm’s Tumor (Nephroblastoma)
50
What hormone is distributed by the kidneys that stimulates the rate at with red blood cells are produced?
Erythropoietin
51
What is the non-pus producing inflammation of the glomeruli and what is it commonly caused by? Is this condition usually bilateral or unilateral?
Glomerulonephritis – caused by antigen-antibody reaction commonly caused by hemolytic streptococci bacteria OR due to chronic autoimmune disorder such as lupus; bilateral
52
How does the above condition affect the urine concentration?
Allows protein & blood to pass into urine
53
What is the pus producing inflammation of the kidney? Is this condition usually bilateral or unilateral? Who is most commonly at risk? What radiographic appearance may be present with this condition?
Pyelonephritis; unilateral; women and children; clubbing of calyces
54
What condition is caused by a gas forming bacteria? Who is most at risk? What is the prognosis?
Emphysematous pyelonephritis; diabetic patients; 60% death rate
55
Tuberculosis that spreads to the kidneys will cause what to form? How is TB spread to the kidneys?
Granulomas throughout the cortex of the kidney and calcification; bloodstream
56
What are the most common causes of papillary necrosis and how does this condition appear on a radiograph?
Sickle cell disease, obstructive pyelonephritis, diabetes, excessive analgesic use; broken papillary tips = ring of contrast around radiolucent triangles (tip)
57
Where are most urinary calculi formed
Kidneys
58
Name the different types of urinary calculi
Small stones (less than 3mm) Staghorn calculus: grows to fill the entire renal pelvis Nephrocalcinosis: too much calcium deposited in kidney parenchyma usually caused by hypothyroidism Bladder stones: common in elderly men
59
Name the most common causes of urinary tract obstruction in adults. Children?
Adults: kidney stones, pelvic tumor, urethral strictures, enlargement of prostate gland Children: Ureteropelvic junction narrowing, ureterocele, posterior urethral valve
60
How does the location of the obstruction affect the kidneys?
If the obstruction is above the bladder, dilation of the ureter will be unilateral and only one kidney will be affected (hydronephrosis) If the obstruction is below the bladder (prostatic hypertrophy or tumor), dilation of the ureters will be bilateral and both kidneys will be affected (hydronephrosis)
61
What is the modality of choice to demonstrate renal cysts?
Ultrasound
62
How should benign cysts appear?
Smooth inner wall
63
Polycystic kidney disease can be autosomal dominant or recessive. When will the condition appear for each type of PKD?
Dominant = middle age Recessive = infants
64
How does the calcification pattern associated vary between renal carcinoma and benign cysts?
Renal carcinoma = calcification forms inside the mass Benign cyst = calcification forms at outside edges
65
What is the most common abdominal tumor found in infants and children?
Wilm’s tumor
66
Who is most at risk to develop carcinoma of the bladder? How does is commonly appear on a radiograph?
Men over 50 years old; finger-like projections reaching into the bladder
67
What is the most common cause for renal vein thrombosis in children?
Severe dehydration
68
How does renal failure affect the size of the kidney for acute failure? Chronic failure?
Acute = enlargement Chronic = shrinkage
69
What’s the difference between prerenal and postrenal failure?
Prerenal = obstruction of blood flow going to the kidneys Postrenal = obstruction of the urine flowing out of the kidneys
70
Explain the path of blood flow through the heart beginning with when the deoxygenated blood enters and ending when the oxygenated blood leaves the heart.
Lungs __14_ Aortic Arch __1__ Superior/Inferior Vena Cava __3__ Tricuspid Valve __12_ Aortic Semilunar Valve __10_ Mitral Valve (Bicuspid) __2__ Right Atrium __9__ Left Atrium __4__ Right Ventricle __11_ Left Ventricle __13__ Ascending Aorta __5__ Pulmonary Semilunar Valve __6__ Pulmonary Arteries __8__ Pulmonary Veins
71
Explain coarctation of the aorta.
narrowing or constriction of aorta usually just beyond the branching of blood vessels to the head/arms
72
List the 3 types of left-to-right shunting defects and explain how they affect the flow of blood.
* Atrial septal defect * Ventricular septal defect * Patent ductus arteriosus
73
What factors contribute to the severity of an embolism?
* Size * Location * Collateral circulation
74
What are common factors that lead to the formation of thrombosis?
slow blood flow/circulation, change in vessel wall (injury/inflammation), low O2 levels
75
Where are some common sources for emboli and where do they tend to travel to?
Lower extremities  pulmonary arteries; mitral valve  brain, kidney, other organs
76
What occurs when there is a temporary insufficiency of oxygen to heart muscle?
Angina pectoris
77
Which 4 defects are present in Tetralogy of Fallot?
* Ventricular septal defect * Pulmonary artery stenosis * Overriding aorta * Hypertrophy of RV
78
Which congenital heart defects cause a left-to-right shunting of blood? How does each affect the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart?
Atrial septal defect – enlargement of the right atrium and ventricle Ventricular septal defect – enlargement of the left atrium and ventricle Patent ductus arteriosus – enlargement of the left atrium and ventricle, and pulmonary arteries
79
What is the main cause for valve stenosis/insufficiency? Which valves are affected? Describe how these defects affect the flow of blood through the heart (i.e. where does excessive blood collect and how does that affect the heart)?
Rheumatic fever Mitral (bicuspid) valve * Stenosis – enlargement of the left atrium * Insufficiency – enlargement of the left atrium Aortic semilunar valve * Stenosis – hypertrophy of left ventricle * Insufficiency – enlargement of left ventricle
80
What are the layers of the aorta?
Intima (inner), media (middle), and adventitia (outer)
81
Describe the formation of dissection of the aorta
Tear in the intima layer of the aorta allows for blood collection between intima and media layers. The more blood that collects, the more separation occurs
82
What is known as the pacemaker of the heart?
Sinoatrial (SA) Node
83
What blood pressure reading is considered hypertension?
>140/90 mmHg
84
What is the systolic number? Diastolic number?
Systolic = contraction of left ventricle; Diastolic = relaxation of left ventricle
85
What is the most common location for a traumatic aortic rupture to occur? What’s the most common cause?
Descending aorta just distal to left Subclavian artery (former location of ductus arteriosus); MVC
86
What are the types of aortic aneurysm? Common locations?
* Saccular aneurysm: only 1 side of vessel wall * Fusiform aneurysm: entire circumference of vessel wall * Thoracic aorta location: Descending aorta, Ascending aorta, Aortic arch * Abdominal aorta location: below branches of renal arteries
87
How does hypertensive heart disease affect the heart?
Leads to thickening of heart wall and blood vessels; Increases resistance to blood flow; Left ventricle forced to work harder = hypertrophy
88
Mallory-weiss syndrome
Tear of tissue in lower esophagus
89
Barrett's esophagus
Squamous lining destruction
90
Esophagitis types
Reflux esophagitis Pill-induced esophagitis Eosinophilic esophagitis Infectious esophagitis
91
True diverticula
Affects all layers of esophageal wall
92
False diverticula
Affects either mucosal or submucosal
93

Fall 2023 (4 decks)

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