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pathology > Patho Qs > Flashcards

Patho Qs Flashcards

0
Q

When does the proliferation phase of wound healing begin?

A

6 days

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1
Q

Most important cause of delay in wound healing?

A

Infection

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2
Q

Hypertrophic scars vs Keloid

A

Hypertrophic scar - along the edge of the wound

Keloid - beyond original wound edges

Both with same histologic findings

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3
Q

Interstitial fluid compartment makes up what % of TBW?

A

15%

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4
Q

At what capillary pressure do you expect pulmonary edema?

A

> 28mmHg

Normal = 7mmHg
Safety factor = 21 mmHg

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5
Q

Pathophysiologic cause of edema in renal insufficiency?

A

Sodium retention

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6
Q

Pathophysiologic cause of edema in chronic inflammation?

A

Inflammation

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7
Q

Pathophysiologic cause of edema in DVT?

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure

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8
Q

What is the most common primary hypercoagulable state?

A

Factor V Leiden mutation

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9
Q

Amount of protein loss in nephrotic syndrome?

A

> 3.5g per day

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10
Q

Tx for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors (lepirudin, argatroban)

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11
Q

Pathogenesis of APAS?

A

Antibody-mediated inhibition of t-Pa activity (necessary for trophoblast invasion)

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12
Q

Why can you have a false positive RPR in APAS?

A

RPR is embedded in cardiolopin, which is found in patients with APAS

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13
Q

Laminations seen in antemortem thrombosis

A

Lines of Zahn

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14
Q

Gelatinous with dark red dependent portion and yellow “chicken fat” upper portion

A

Postmortem thrombosis

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15
Q

Location of mural thrombi?

A

Heart chambers or aortic lumen

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16
Q

MC site of arterial thrombosis?

A

Coronary arteries

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17
Q

MC site if venous thrombosis?

A

Lower extremities (90%) - calf veins

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18
Q

MCC of acute endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus

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19
Q

MCC of native valve endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans

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20
Q

MCC of subacute endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans

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21
Q

MCC of prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Staph epidermidis

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22
Q

Bacteria involved in marantic endocarditis?

A

Strep bovis type 1 (strep gallolyticus)

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23
Q

MCC symptom of pulmo embolism?

A

Dyspnea

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24
Q

Cardiac auscultation findings in pulmo embolism?

A

Accentuated pulmonic component of second heart sound

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25
Q

Organs with dual blood supply

A

Lungs, liver, intestines

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26
Q

Principal test for diagnosing pulmo embolism?

A

Chest CT with contrast

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27
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of pulmo embolism?

A

Pulmonary angiography

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28
Q

Ischemic necrosis of femoral heads, tibia, humerus due to formation of nitrogen bubbles

A

Caisson’s disease

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29
Q

Dominant histologic characteristic of infarction

A

Ischemic coagulative necrosis

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30
Q

Infarction –> scar tissue

Septic infarction –> ?

A

Abscess formation

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31
Q

Valvular heart defect that usually leads to septic embolism to the lungs

A

Tricuspid valve endocarditis

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32
Q

Tissues that manifest red infarction

A

Lungs, liver, intestines (organs with dual blood supply)

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33
Q

Organs with end-arterial circulation

A

Heart, spleen, kidneys

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34
Q

ECG changes seen in cardiogenic shock

A

Low voltage complex

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35
Q

Type of shock seen in burn patients

A

Hypovolemic shock

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36
Q

Waterhouse-Fridreichsen syndrome?

A

Most severe form of meningococcemia (N. meningitidis)

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37
Q

Most severe form of meningococcemia

A

Waterhouse-Fridreichsen syndrome

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38
Q

Findings in Waterhouse-Fridreichsen syndrome?

A

Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage leading to acute adrenal cortical insufficiency

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39
Q

Kidney damage in shock

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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40
Q

Shock lung?

A

Alveolar damage secondary to shock (non-cardiac cause)

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41
Q

Genetic disorders with high penetrance

A

Mendelian disorders

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42
Q

Germ cell mutations vs somatic cell mutations

A

Germ cell mutation - transmitted to progeny

Somatic cell mutation - do not cause hereditary diseases but are important in carcinogenesis

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43
Q

Autosomal dominant disorders are often due to defects in what type of genes?

A

Structural genes - cause physical, structural problems

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44
Q

What is the probability that the son of a male with a X-linked disorder will have the defect?

A

None. The affected male does not transmit the disorder to his sons

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45
Q

Loss of intercellular connections between keratinocytes

A

Acantholysis

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46
Q

Epidermal hyperplasia

A

Acanthosis

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47
Q

Epidermal intercellular edema

A

Spongiosis

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48
Q

What is the likelihood that the daughter of a man with a X-linked genetic defect will present with symptoms?

A

None. All daughters are carriers only.

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49
Q

A man has a X-linked dominant disorder. How many of his sons will be affected? Daughters?

A

Male parent passes the trait to ALL his daughters but NONE of his sons (assuming female is normal)

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50
Q

A female has a X-linked dominant trait. How many of her daughters are affected? Sons?

A

Half her sons and half her daughters

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51
Q

Genetic defect in Marfan syndrome

A

Inherited defect in fibrillin-1 (extra cellular glycoprotein)

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52
Q

Ocular changes in Marfan’s

A

Ectopia lentis - bilateral subluxation or dislocation (superotemporal)

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53
Q

Cardiac auscultation findings likely seen in a patient with Marfan’s

A

Mid systolic click (mitral valve prolapse)

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54
Q

What generic disorder predisposes to aortic dissection?

A

Marfan syndrome

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55
Q

Pathology in aortic dissection?

A

Tear in the tunica media

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56
Q

Defect in Ehler’s Danlos syndrome

A

Defect in the synthesis or structure of fibrillar collagen

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57
Q

Most common defect in Ehler’s Danlos

A

Defect in type 3 collagen

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58
Q

Defect in Familial Hypercholesterolemia disorders

A

Mutation in the gene encoding for LDL receptors

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59
Q

Deficiency in Tay-Sachs disease

A

Hexodaminidase a-subunit deficiency

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60
Q

Tay-Sachs disease: what accumulates? What is deficient?

A

Deficiency: hexosaminisase alpha
Accumulates: GM2 ganglioside

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61
Q

Accentuated macular chorioid contrasted with pale retina

A

Cherry red macula

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62
Q

Niemann-Pick disease: what accumulates? What is deficient?

A

Deficient: sphingomyelinase
Accumulates: —

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63
Q

Cytoplasmic bodies resembling concentric lamellated myelin figures

A

Zebra bodies (seen in Niemann-Pick Disease)

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64
Q

What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder?

A

Gaucher disease

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65
Q

Gaucher disease. What is deficient? accumulates?

A

Deficiency: glucocerebrosidase
Accumulation: –

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66
Q

Distended phagocytic cells with crumpled tissue paper appearance

A

Gaucher disease

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67
Q

Distended phagocytic cells with crumpled tissue paper appearance in the brain

A

Virchow-Robin spaces (seen in Gaucher disease)

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68
Q

Mode of inheritance of most mucopolysaccharidoses

A

Autosomal recessive (except Hunter syndrome which is X-linked recessive)

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69
Q

Enzyme defect in Hurler syndrome?

A

a-L-iduronidase

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70
Q

Enzyme defect in Hunter syndrome

A

Iduronosulfate sulfatase

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71
Q

Enzyme defect in Morquio syndrome

A

N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase

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72
Q

Urinary metabolites that accumulate in Sanfillipo syndrome

A

Heparan sulfate

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73
Q

Distended cells with apparent clearing of cytoplasm

A

Balloon cells

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74
Q

Microscopic findings seen in mucopolysaccharidoses

A

Balloon cells

Zebra bodies

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75
Q

Enzyme deficiency in Pompe disease

A

a-1,4-glucosidase

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76
Q

Enzyme deficiency in Von Gierke disease

A

Glucose 6-phosphatase

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77
Q

Enzyme deficiency in Cori Syndrome

A

Glycogen debranching

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78
Q

Enzyme deficiency in Andersen syndrome

A

Branching enzyme

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79
Q

Glycogen storage disease that presents with infantile hypotonia

A

Andersen disease, type IV

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80
Q

Glycogen storage disease deficient in muscle glycogen phosphorylase

A

McArdle, type V

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81
Q

Enzyme deficient in Alkalptonuria

A

Homogentisic oxidase

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82
Q

Blue-black pigmentation in ears, nose, cheeks is called? Seen in what disease?

A

Onchronosis

Seen in Alkalptonuria

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83
Q

No loss of generic material during translocation

A

Balanced translocation

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84
Q

Robertsonian translocation?

A

Transfer if segments leads to one very large chromosome and one very small one

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85
Q

Endocardial cushion defects seen in Trisomy 21

A

ASD primum + AVSD

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86
Q

Ultrasound finding in a baby with Trisomy 21

A

Nuchal translucency

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87
Q

DiGeorge syndrome - branchial pouches involved

A

3rd and 4th branchial pouches

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88
Q

Male hypogonadism

A

Klinefelter syndrome (47 XXY)

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89
Q

Genetically make but phenotypically female

A

Klinefelter syndrome (47 XXY)

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90
Q

Testosterone and LH levels in primary hypogonadism

A

Low testosterone

Elevates LH

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91
Q

Testosterone and LH levels in hupogonadotropic hypogonadism

A

Low testosterone, low LH

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92
Q

Streak ovary seen in?

A

Ovarian day genesis (Turner syndrome)

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93
Q

Cardiovascular problem in Turner syndrome

A

Preductal coarctation of the aorta

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94
Q

Micro deletion of long arm of chromosome 7

A

Williams syndrome

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95
Q

Elfin facies, extreme friendliness with strangers

A

Williams syndrome

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96
Q

Happy puppet, inappropriate laughter

A

Angelman syndrome

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97
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: Contact dermatitis

A

Type IV (delayed)

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98
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: GBS

A

Type IV (delayed)

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99
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: rheumatoid arthritis

A

Type IV

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100
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: acute rheumatic fever

A

Type II

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101
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: MS

A

Type IV

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102
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: MG

A

Type II

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103
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: SLE

A

Type III

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104
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: type I DM

A

Type IV

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105
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: post-strep glomerulonephritis

A

Type III

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106
Q

Type of hypersensitivity rxn: Graves’ disease

A

Type II

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107
Q

In what disease can you see nonerosive synovitis with little deformity?

A

SLE

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108
Q

In what disease can you see erosive synovitis?

A

Psoriasis

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109
Q

Diseases that histologically show bread and butter appearance?

A

Rheumatic fever, SLE, MI

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110
Q

Bread and butter appearance

A

Fibrinous pericarditis

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111
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced lupus

A

Hydralazine, isoniazid, procainamide, penicillamine

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112
Q

Anti-histone antibodies seen in?

A

Drug induced lupus

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113
Q

Earliest finding in Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Periductal and perivascular lymphocytic infiltration of lacrimal and salivary glands

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114
Q

Drugs for tx of Sjögren’s

A

Steroids, artificial tears, pilocarpine

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115
Q

Rubber hose inflexibility of the esophagus seen in?

A

Scleroderma

Lower 2/3 of the esophagus

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116
Q

Extensive subcutaneous fibrosis leading to claw-like flexion deformity

A

Sclerodactyly (seen in scleroderma)

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117
Q

MCC of death in patients with scleroderma

A

Renal failure (50%) of patients

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118
Q

Type of fibrosis that damages the kidneys in scleroderma

A

Fibrinoid necrosis involving renal arteries

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119
Q

Antibodies seen in MCTDs?

A

Anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP)

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120
Q

Transplant rejection that shows necrotizing vasculitis with endothelial cell necrosis, neutrophilic infiltration, deposition of Ig, complement and fibrin

A

Acute humoral rejection - type II hypersensitivity

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121
Q

Type of transplant rejection that shows thrombotic occlusion of capillaries and fibrinoid necrosis in arterial walls

A

Hyperacute rejection (type II)

122
Q

Type of transplant that shows vascular changes, interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy with loss of renal parenchyma

A

Chronic transplant - Type IV

123
Q

Mutation in Bruton agammaglonulinemia

A

Tyrosine kinase mutation

Virtual absence of B cells

124
Q

Patients with Bruton’s agammaglonulinemia are predisposed to having infections with what organisms?

A

Step pneumonia, H. influenzae

125
Q

Treatment for Bruton’s agammaglonulinemia

A

Pooled gamma globulin

126
Q

Selective IgA deficiency pathogenesis

A

Failure of isotope switching

127
Q

MC form of severe antibody deficiency? Tx?

A

CVID

Pooled gamma globulin

128
Q

Pathogenesis of SCID?

A

X-linked: mutation in gene encoding common gamma chain/ IL-2

Autosomal: ADA deficiency

129
Q

How to diagnose CGD?

A

Nitroblue tetrazolium test

130
Q

CGD: what is lacking?

A

NADPH oxidase activity, failure of oxidative burst

131
Q

Patients with CGD are predisposed to having what kind of infections?

A

Catalase positive bacteria, fungi (A. fumigatus)

132
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome: pathogenesis?

A

Failure of phagolysosomal fusion, faulty micro tubules impair neutrophil chemotaxis

133
Q

Patients with terminal complement deficient are predisposed to having bacteremia secondary to what organisms?

A

N. meningitidis, N. gonorrhea

134
Q

Deficiency in Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

Deficiency of decay accelerating factor (DAF)

135
Q

HIV major capsid protein

A

p24

136
Q

HIV screening test? Confirmatory test? Test for monitoring?

A

Screening: ELISA
Confirmatory: Western blot
Monitoring: CD4 count

137
Q

Amyloidosis in polarized light? What stain?

A

Apple-green birefringence with Congo Red

138
Q

Protein structure involved in Amyloidosis

A

Secondary protein structure (Beta pleated sheets)

139
Q

Most common and most serious form of Amyloidosis

A

Renal Amyloidosis

140
Q

Tapioca-like granules in the splenic follicles

A

Amyloidosis (sago spleen)

141
Q

Map-like areas in walls of splenic sinuses

A

Lardaceous spleen - seen in Amyloidosis

142
Q

Benign or malignant? Mature teratoma in women

A

Benign

143
Q

Benign or malignant? Mature teratoma in men

A

Malignant

144
Q

Benign or malignant? Hepatoma

A

Malignant

145
Q

Benign or malignant? Immature teratoma

A

Malignant

146
Q

Benign or malignant? Hemangioma

A

Benign

147
Q

Benign or malignant? Leukemia

A

Malignant

148
Q

Normal cells in normal location but with overgrowth

A

Hamartoma

149
Q

Normal cells in abnormal locations

A

Choristoma

150
Q

Reversible or Irreversible? Hyperplasia

A

Reversible

151
Q

Reversible or irreversible? Metaplasia

A

Reversible

152
Q

Reversible or irreversible? Dysplasia

A

Reversible

153
Q

Reversible or irreversible? Anaplasia

A

Irreversible

154
Q

Fibrous tissue formation in response to neoplasm

A

Desmoplasia

155
Q

Degree of cellular differentiation based on histologic appearance, reflects the character of the tumor itself.

A

Tumor grade

156
Q

What does the tumor stage reflect?

A

Degree of localization/ spread. Has more prognostic value than tumor grade.

157
Q

MC cancer in children

A

Leukemias (ALL)

158
Q

MC cancer in women

A

Breast CA

159
Q

MC cancer in men

A

Prostate CA

160
Q

Most common cancer that causes death in men?

A

Lung CA. Also for women.

161
Q

Eating large amounts of smoked food is associated with what CA?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma. Common among Japanese.

162
Q

Infectious agents associated with cholangiocarcinoma

A

Chlonorchis sinensis

Opistorchis viverrini

163
Q

Schistosoma hematobium is associated with what malignancy?

A

Bladder squamous carcinoma

164
Q

Cytokine involved in cahexia

A

TNF-alpha

165
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell CA of the lung?

A

SIADH

166
Q

Trousseau syndrome is associated with what cancer?

A

Pancreatic cancer

167
Q

Disease with antibodies against the pre synaptic calcium channel

A

Lambert Eaton myasthenia

168
Q

Tumor marker for ovarian CA

A

CA-125

169
Q

Tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

CA 19-9

170
Q

Tumor marker for gastric CA

A

CEA

171
Q

Tumor markers (2) for prostrate cancer

A

PSA, prostatic acid phosphatase

172
Q

Tumor marker for melanoma

A

S-100

173
Q

Tumor marker for choriocarcinoma

A

b-HCG

174
Q

Tumor marker for Hairy cell leukemia

A

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)

175
Q

Where are Weibel-Palade bodies seen?

A

Endothelial cells

176
Q

True vs False aneurysm

A

True - intact wall

False - with extravasation of blood in between two vessel layers

177
Q

MC location of AAA?

A

Below the renal arteries

178
Q

Triad of AAA rupture

A

Flank pain, hypotension, pulsatile mass

179
Q

MC site of berry aneurysm

A

ACOM. Junction of the communicating branches with the main cerebral vessels

180
Q

What vessel (and parts) are involved in syphillitic aneurysm?

A

Invasion of the vasa vasorum of the thoracic aorta

181
Q

Appearance of syphillitic aorta

A

Tree-bark appearance with wrinkling of the tunica intima

182
Q

Aortic dissection involves what layer?

A

Dissection of blood between and along the laminar parts of the tunica media

183
Q

Aortic dissection is more frequent in Marfan’s or Ehler’s Danlos?

A

Marfan’s

184
Q

Type of aortic dissection with worse prognosis

A

Type A - Proximal

Associated with ascending or both ascending and descending

185
Q

What is the MC per-existing histologic lesion of aortic dissection

A

Cystic medial degeneration/necrosis

186
Q

Presenting s/s if aortic dissection

A

Acute severe reteosternal chest pain radiating to the back with loss of upper extremity pulses and aortic valve regurgitation

187
Q

MC site if varicose veins

A

Superficial saphenous veins

188
Q

Which is more common, left or right varicocele? Why?

A

Left. The right drains directly into the IVC.

189
Q

Phlebothrombosis most common location

A

Calf deep vein

Phlebothrombosis = aka DVT

190
Q

Pain on foot dorsiflexion

A

DVT

191
Q

Orange discoloration and ischemic ulcers around the ankles

A

DVT

192
Q

Phlebothrombosis vs Thrombophlebitis

A

Phlebothrombosis: DVT, vein thrombosis without inflammation

Thrombophlebitis: pain and tenderness of the superficial vein secondary to inflammation

193
Q

Carcinoma associated with thrombophlebitis

A

Pancreatic cancer (head) - superficial migratory thrombophlebitis

194
Q

Compression of the neurovascular components of the neck

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

195
Q

Adson test

A

Test for thoracic outlet syndrome

196
Q

Physical examination for DVT

A

Homan’s test

197
Q

Lymphangitis is commonly due to what organism

A

GABHS

198
Q

Differentiate the primary lymphedema caused by Turner’s syndrome and Lymphedema praecox

A

Turners - females, newborn, upper part of the body (cystic hygroma)

Lymphedema praecox - females, puberty, lower part of the body (cankles!)

199
Q

Presenting s/s of Monckeberg medial calcific sclerosis

A

None. Patients are asymptomatic.

200
Q

Necrotizing arteriolitis

A

Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis

201
Q

Major characteristic of benign nephrosclerosis

A

Hyaline variant arteriolosclerosis

202
Q

Hyaline vs Hyperplastic variant arteriolosclerosis: which is associated with benign hypertension and DM

A

Hyaline variant

203
Q

Hyaline vs Hyperplastic variant arteriolosclerosis: which is associated with onion-skinning

A

Hyperplastic variant

204
Q

MCC of MI

A

Atherosclerosis

205
Q

Why do males have an increased risk for MI?

A

Estrogen is cardio protective

206
Q

Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis

A

Fatty streak

207
Q

Lipid core surrounded by a fibrous plug

A

Atherosclerotic plaque

208
Q

MC site for atherosclerosis

A

Abdominal aorta

209
Q

Earliest manifestation of hypertensive heart disease

A

Increase in transverse diameter of myocytes

210
Q

p-ANCA: with antibodies against?

A

Antibodies against myeloperoxidase (MPO)

211
Q

c-ANCA: with antibodies against?

A

Proteinase-3 (PR-3)

212
Q

MC systemic vasculitis in adults

A

Temporal (Giant Cell) arteritis

213
Q

Vessels most commonly involved in Giant Cell arteritis

A

Temporal artery, ophthalmic artery, vertebral artery, aorta

214
Q

Vasculitis that presents with nodular intimal thickening of large vessels with multinucleate giant cells

A

Temporal arteritis

215
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica is seen in?

A

Temporal arteritis

216
Q

Pulseless disease

A

Takayasu arteritis

217
Q

Weakened upper extremities with BP difference > 10mmHg between arms

A

Takayasu arteritis

218
Q

Aortic arch syndrome

A

Takayasu arteritis

219
Q

Granulomatous inflammation of the aorta with giant cells

A

Takayasu arteritis

220
Q

MC vessel involved in PAN?

A

Renal artery > coronary > hepatic > mesenteric arteries

221
Q

Treatment for Takayasu arteritis

A

Steroids

222
Q

What organ is not involved in PAN?

A

Pulmonary arteries

223
Q

Segmental transmural necrotizing inflammation of small to medium sized arteries

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

224
Q

MC acquired heart disease in children

A

Kawasaki disease

225
Q

Vessels most frequently involved in Kawasaki disease

A

Coronary arteries

226
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki disease

A

IVIg, Aspirin

227
Q

Where can you see leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Microscopic Polyarteritis/ polyangitis

228
Q

Penicillin can induce this small vessel vasculitidis

A

Microscopic polyangitis

229
Q

Necrotizing vasculitis with granulomas with eosinophilic necrosis

A

Churg-Strauss

Syndrome

230
Q

What is spared in: Churg-Strauss syndrome

A

Renal vessels

231
Q

What is spared in: Polyarteritis

Nodosa

A

Pulmonary vessels

232
Q

Necrotizing vasculitis of Wegener Granulomatosis is most prominent in what organ?

A

Lungs

233
Q

Geographic patterns of central necrosis and accompanying vasculitis

A

Wegener Granulomatosis

234
Q

4 C’s of Wegener Granulomatosis

A

C ANCA
C resenteric GN
C yclophosphamide
C orticosteroids

235
Q

Buerger’s syndrome: commonly involves what age group?

A

< 35yo

236
Q

Sharply segmental acute and chronic vasculitis of medium sized and small vessels; thrombus with microabscesses

A

Thromboangitis obliterans

237
Q

Resting pain on forefoot

A

Thromboangitis obliterans

238
Q

Morphology of arterial walls in Raynaud’s phenomenon

A

Normal arterial walls except in late stages (intimal thickening)

239
Q

Arsenic is associated with what tumor?

A

Hepatic angiosarcoma

240
Q

Rust colored sputum

A

Left sided heart failure

241
Q

Bat wing configuration

A

CXR finding - perihilar congestion in left sided heart failure

242
Q

First symptom of CHF

A

Dyspnea

243
Q

First sign of left sided HF

A

Left sided S3

244
Q

Predictor of survival in CHF

A

BNP levels

245
Q

Hallmark of right sided heart failure

A

Ankle/ pedal and pretibial edema

246
Q

Nutmeg liver

A

Chronic passive congestion of liver secondary to CHF

247
Q

4 causes of high output cardiac failure

A

Beri-beri
Anemia
Hyperthyroidism
AV fistula

248
Q

Greatest risk factor for developing congenital heart disease

A

Congenital heart disease in a parent or preceding sibling

249
Q

Most important component of TOF

A

Pulmonic stenosis

250
Q

Congenital heart disease associated with diabetic mothers

A

TGA

251
Q

Heart shape: TOF

A

Boot shaped

252
Q

Heart shape: TGA

A

Egg shaped, egg on a string

253
Q

Most common variant of TAPVR

A

Supra cardiac (drains to inominate/ brachoicephalic

254
Q

Cardiac auscultation findings in ASD

A

Fixed widely split S2

255
Q

MC variant of ASD

A

Secundum

256
Q

ASD variant associated with Trisomy 21

A

ASD primum

257
Q

Likely congenital heart disease in a patient with fetal alcohol syndrome

A

VSD

258
Q

MC type of VSD

A

Membranous (90%) - hole is in the membranous septum

259
Q

Multiple VSDs seen in the muscular septum

A

Swiss cheese septum

260
Q

Management of VSD

A

50% will close spontaneously

Surgical correction if still persistent at 1yr old

261
Q

Congenital heart problem associated with Rubella

A

PDA

262
Q

Cardiac auscultation findings in PDA

A

Continuous harsh machinery-like murmur at 2nd ICS left

263
Q

Types of AVSD

A

Partial - primary ASD and cleft anterior mitral leaflet causing mitral insufficiency

Complete - hole in the center of the heart; 1/3 with trisomy 21

264
Q

Infantile coarctation of the aorta associated with?

A

Turner’s syndrome

265
Q

Rib notching is associated with what malformation?

A

Coarctation of the aorta - post-ductal type

266
Q

Congenital heart defects associated with Marfan Syndrome

A

MVP, Aortic dissection

267
Q

What does the LAD artery supply?

A

Anterior wall of LV, anterior ventricular septum, apex

268
Q

Romano-Ward syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant long QT syndrome that’s a risk factor in sudden cardiac death

269
Q

Two classifications of MI

A

Q-wave (ST elevation) and Non-Q-wave (ST depression)

270
Q

Layers of the heart involved in Q wave infarction

A

Full thickness/ transmural (endo, myo and epicardium)

271
Q

Layers of the heart involved in Non-Q wave infarction

A

Subendocardium, endocardium

272
Q

Most common vessel blocked causing MI

A

LAD

273
Q

Slender beaded gram positive organisms arranged in branching filaments

A

Nocardia asteroides

274
Q

Haze of bacteria entangled with the cilia of bronchial epithelia

A

Bordetella Pertussis

275
Q

Where can you see Meyers-Kouvenaar bodies?

A

Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia

276
Q

Liver finding in severe schistosomiasis

A

Pipe stem fibrosis

277
Q

Pipe stem fibrosis - seen where?

A

Severe schistosomiasis

278
Q

Diffuse mucosal damage and glandular atrophy of oxyntic mucosa

A

Autoimmune gastritis

279
Q

Islands, trabeculae, strands, glands or sheets of uniform cells with sly and pepper chromatin

A

Carcinoid tumor

280
Q

Pedunculated, smooth surfaced, reddish lesions with cystic spaces in the colon

A

Juvenile polyps

281
Q

Multiple GI hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation most common in the small intestines

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

282
Q

Most common and clinically important neoplastic colonic polyps

A

Colonic adenoma

283
Q

Hyperplastic polyps: risk for CA?

A

None. They have no malignant potential.

284
Q

Risk factor most closely associated with colorectal cancer

A

Dietary factors

285
Q

Whitish ulcerated oral mucosal lesions near the opening of Stensen’s duct

A

Koplick spots, seen in Measles/ Rubeola

286
Q

Multinucleated giant cells, cough, fever, hyperemic conjunctiva

A

Warthin-Finkeldey cells

287
Q

Perivenous demyelination and perivascular mononuclear cuffing

A

Mumps encephalitis

288
Q

Lobe involved in Herpes Simplex encephalitis

A

Temporal lobe

289
Q

Dewdrop on a rose petal

A

Varicella

290
Q

Ganglion involved in shingles

A

Dorsal root ganglion

291
Q

Mononuclear infiltration with herpetic intranuclear inclusions; facial nerve paralysis

A

Ramsay Hunt syndrome

292
Q

Another name for herpes simplex oticus

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

293
Q

Ganglion involved in Herpes Simplex Oticus

A

Geniculate ganglion

294
Q

Prominent intranuclear basophilic inclusions surrounded by a halo

A

Owl’s eye inclusions

295
Q

Atypical lymphocytes seen in EBV infection

A

Downey cells

296
Q

Green to brown deposits of copper in Descemet’s membrane in the corneal limbus

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings

297
Q

Kayser-Fleischer rings

A

Green to brown deposits of copper in Descemet’s membrane in the limbus of the cornea

298
Q

Eye manifestations of Wilson’s disease

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings

299
Q

Round to oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions in hepatocytes

A

Alpha-1 anti trypsin deficiency

300
Q

Inflammation of the pancreas with irreversible destruction of exocrine parenchyma

A

Chronic pancreatitis

301
Q

Localized collections of necrotic-hemorrhagic material rich in pancreatic enzymes

A

Pancreatic pseudocyst

302
Q

Tumor marker for pancreatic cancer

A

CA 19-9

pathology (26 decks)

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