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Pathology > Patho Qs 2 > Flashcards

Patho Qs 2 Flashcards

0
Q

3 constrictions of the ureter

A

UPJ, UVJ, where the ureter crosses the iliac vessels

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1
Q

MCC of hydronephrosis in infants and children

A

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction, more commonly in the left ureter

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2
Q

MCC of retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

Idiopathic (Ormond disease)

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3
Q

2 complications of retro peritoneal fibrosis

A

Hydronephrosis and right sided varicocele

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4
Q

Drug that has been shown to cause retro peritoneal fibrosis

A

Methysergide (ergot derivative)

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5
Q

MC site if varicocele? Left or right?

A

Left

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6
Q

Nests of urothelium or inbudding of the surface epithelium found in the mucosa lamina of the urinary bladder

A

Brunn nests

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7
Q

Malignancy associated with PSC?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

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8
Q

Histopathologic hallmark of PSC?

A

Onion skin fibrosis

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9
Q

Developmental failure in the anterior wall of the abdomen and bladder

A

Bladder extrophy

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10
Q

MC serious bladder anomaly

A

Vesicoureteral reflux

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11
Q

Failure of obliteration of fetal allantois

A

Patent urachus

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12
Q

Clinical presentation of patent urachus

A

Drainage of urine from the umbilicus in newborns

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13
Q

MCC of bladder adenocarcinoma

A

Patent urachus

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14
Q

Umbilical arteries become the?

A

Medial umbilical ligament

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15
Q

Umbilical vein becomes?

A

Ligamentum teres hepatic

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16
Q

MC organisms involved in acute cystitis

A

Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, Proteus

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17
Q

Suppurative neutrophilic infiltration, hyperemic bladder with exudation

A

Acute cystitis

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18
Q

Another name for Hunner Ulcer

A

Chronic Pelvic Pain syndrome/ Interstitial Cystitis

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19
Q

Glomerulations in bladder mucosa with chronic mucosal ulcers and mast cell infiltration

A

Interstitial cystitis/ Hunner Ulcer

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20
Q

Chronic E. coli infection that shows soft, yellow, raised mucosal plaques with Michaelis Gutmann bodies

A

Malakoplakia - specific to the bladder

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21
Q

Majority of bladder cancers are of what origin?

A

Epithelial (95%)

Mesenchymal (5%)

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22
Q

MC type of bladder rumors

A

Urothelial carcinoma - 90%

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23
Q

MC precursor lesion of bladder cancer

A

Non-invasive papillary tumors

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24
Q

Most important risk factor in bladder CA

A

Smoking

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25
Q

Urothelial CA - more common in males or females?

A

Males

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26
Q

Role of BCG in bladder CA

A

For recurrence prevention - topical immunotherapy by intravesicle installation of BCG

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27
Q

Triad of Reiter syndrome

A

Arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis

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28
Q

Fibromatosis of Buck’s fascia

A

Peyronie disease

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29
Q

What fails to close in hypo and epispadias?

A

Male urogenital folds

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30
Q

Orifice of the prepuce too small to permit normal retraction

A

Phimosis

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31
Q

Bell clapper deformity

A

Testicular toraion

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32
Q

MC germ cell tumor

A

Seminoma

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33
Q

Female counterpart of seminoma

A

Dysgerminoma

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34
Q

Testicular tumor: large polyhedral, distinct cell membrane, clear cytoplasm and a large central nucleus

A

Seminoma

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35
Q

Schiller-Duval bodies

A

Yolk sac tumors

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36
Q

YST tumor markers

A

AFP, alpha-1 antitrypsin

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37
Q

Tumor marker of Choriocarcinoma

A

b-HCG

38
Q

Helter-Skelter collection of differentiated cells or organoid structures

A

Teratoma

39
Q

First area of lymphatic spread of testicular tumors

A

Para-aortic > mediastinal > supraclavicular

40
Q

Hematogenous spread of testicular tumors

A

Lungs > liver, brain, bones

41
Q

Rod shaped crystaloids of Reinke

A

Leydig cell tumor

42
Q

MC form of testicular neoplasm in men over 60 years old

A

Testicular lymphoma

43
Q

Recurrent UTI with boggy prostate on PE

A

Chronic prostatitis

44
Q

Hallmark finding in BPH

A

Nodular hyperplasia

45
Q

When to start screening for prostate CA?

A

Low risk: > 50 yo

High risk: > 40 yo

46
Q

Most common variant of prostate adenocarcinoma

A

Acinar variant (70%)

47
Q

Normal PSA

A

NV: < 4 ng/ml

48
Q

Greenish opaque membranes with dense band-like exudates on amniotic surface

A

Chorioamnionitis

49
Q

Brown tumor

A

Hyperparathyroidism

50
Q

Railroad track appearance of cancellous bone

A

Hyperparathyroidism

51
Q

Platybasia

A

Paget diaeaae

52
Q

Leontiasis ossea

A

Paget disease

53
Q

Erlenmeyer flask deformity

A

Osteopetrosis

54
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

Osteonecrosis

55
Q

MC location of osteosarcoma

A

Metaphysis of long bones (50% around the knee)

56
Q

Chicken wire pattern of mineralization

A

Chondroblastoma

57
Q

MCC of SIADH

A

Small cell CA of the lung

58
Q

What causes the mental status dysfunction in patients with SIADH?

A

Cerebral edema

59
Q

Treatment for SIADH

A

Water restriction

If symptomatic, correct H2O deficit first before H2O restriction

60
Q

MCC of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Renal failure

61
Q

MC primary hypercoagulable state

A

Factor V Leiden mutation

62
Q

MCC of fever 24-36 hours post-op

A

Resorption/ Obstruction atelectasis

Fever, absent tactile fremiti, dullness to percussion, IPSILATERAL tracheal deviation

63
Q

Deficiency in alpha-1 anti-trypsin will cause what kind of emphysema?

A

Panacinar emphysema

From respiratory bronchioles to alveoli

64
Q

Smoking leads to what kind of emphysema

A

Centroacinar emphysema

Includes respiratory bronchioles and upper lobes

65
Q

Criteria for chronic bronchitis

A

Persistent cough with sputum for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years in the absence of any identifiable cause

66
Q

Putative mediators of the acute asthma attack (cause the attack)

A

Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4 (SRSA) and Ach

67
Q

Scene of the crime mediators of the acute asthma attack

A

Histamine, PGD2, platelet aggregating factor

68
Q

Permanent diltation of bronchi and bronchioles

A

Bronchiecstasis

69
Q

MCC of clinical pyelonephritis

A

Ascending infection

70
Q

What condition presents with anemia out of proportion to the renal insufficiency

A

Analgesic Nephropathy

71
Q

Positively birefringent needle-like crystals

A

Urate Nephropathy

72
Q

Saturnine gout

A

Lead poisoning that leads to gout

73
Q

MCC of renal disease in patients with essential hypertension

A

Benign nephrosclerosis

74
Q

MC type of renal stone

A

Calcium oxalate (adults/ oldies), calcium phosphate (pedia) stones

75
Q

Coffin lid appearance

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones

76
Q

Only radioluscent stone

A

Uric acid stones (the rest are radio opaque)

77
Q

MC type of renal cell CA

A

Clear cell carcinoma (70-90%) - chromosome 3 affected

78
Q

Pole most commonly involved in renal cell CA

A

Upper pole

79
Q

Pole most commonly involved in Horseshoe kidney

A

Lower pole

80
Q

Respiratory infections in patients with Cystic Fibrosis is commonly due to what organism?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

81
Q

Most common finding in SIDS

A

Multiple petechiae

82
Q

MC tumors of infancy

A

Hemangiomas

Spontaneously regress within 1 year

83
Q

MC form of teratoma in childhood

A

Sacrococcygeal teratomas

84
Q

Tumors of the sympathetic ganglia and adrenal medulla

A

Neuroblastoma

85
Q

MC extra cranial solid tumor of childhood

A

Neuroblastoma

86
Q

N-myc oncogene

A

Neuroblastoma

87
Q

c-myc oncogene

A

Burkitt lymphoma

88
Q

Triphasic combination of blastemal, stromal and epithelial cell types

A

Wilm’s tumor

89
Q

Milk and roses complexion

A

Arsenic poisoning

90
Q

Pathogenesis of malignant hyperthermia

A

Nitrosylation of ryanodine receptor type 1 (RYR1)

DOC: dantrolene

91
Q

Spike and wave vs spike and dome

A

Spike and wave: EEG finding in absence seizure, tx: ethosuximide

Spike and dome: Seen in EM of MGN

92
Q

1972 vs 1973

A

1972: vit k dependent clotting factors
1973: roots of the PNS

93
Q

Glisson’s capsule vs Gerota’s capsule

A

Glisson’s: liver

Gerota’s: kidneys

Pathology (26 decks)

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