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Patho > Patho Exam 2 > Flashcards

Patho Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

which immunoglobulin protects mucous membranes of genitourinary, gastrointestinal & pulmonary systems. Activity not related to infection; has protective & preventative role. (location: breast milk, tears, sweat, saliva)

A

IgA

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2
Q

which immunoglobulin binds antigens to B cells. Binds to basophils and mast cells in hypersensitivity reactions. Early stage, when antigen has first entered the body. (location: attached to surface of B cells, in skin, digestive, respiratory tracts)

A

IgD

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3
Q

which immunoglobulin is abundant in skin, mucous membranes, and respiratory tract. active in allergic reactions; binds to mast cells & basophils to release histamine & leukotrienes. Not related to infection, found in persons with allergies. (location: found on mast cells in pulmonary & gastrointestinal tracts) (pollen, dust, animal dander)

A

IgE

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4
Q

which immunoglobulin initiates complement activity & further immune responses, early infection, RESPONDS FIRST (shows recent/current infection) in infection (location: throughout blood stream) also called macroglobulin due to large size.

A

IgM

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5
Q

which immunoglobulin activates complement to release inflammatory & bactericidal mediators, confers long-term immunity, active against viruses, bacteria, antitoxins; moves across maternal-fetal barrier. SECONDARY RESPONDER in infection (shows previous exposure)! Late disease, recovery, & long term after, most abundant in bloodstream, most important antipathogenic immunoglobulin in infections & commonly involved in autoimmune disease

A

IgG

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6
Q

what allows the body to recognize an antigen, target antigen, limit its response to that antigen & develops memory for the antigen for future reference. Its system’s ability to recognize & remember specific antigens is called specificity. Distinguishes self from non self. 2 types of this - humoral and cell mediated

A

adaptive immunity

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7
Q

type of adaptive immunity that is associated with B cells that mature within bone marrow

A

humoral adaptive immunity

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8
Q

type of adaptive immunity that is associated with T cells that mature within thymus gland

A

cell-mediated adaptive immunity

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9
Q

type of immunity that is obtained through exposure to an antigen or through a vaccination that provides immunization. LONGER LASTING.

A

active acquired immunity

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10
Q

type of immunity where an individual is given premade, fully formed antibodies against an antigen. Pt is a passive recipient of the antibodies, & their body does not have to perform the actions needed to develop immunity. Provides immediate immunity, but short term.

A

passive acquired immunity

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11
Q

what type of immunity is when an infant is breastfed & receives fully formed maternally produced antibodies in breast milk OR pt has hep B infection so family member gets administration of HBIg against hep b … short term immunity!

A

passive acquired immunity

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12
Q

what type of immunity is after a child contracts measles infection, the child develops this type of immunity? The child’s body has to process the antigen & develop B cells & plasma cells that secrete Igs while enduring the disease. The child develops all symptoms of disease but at the same time develops significant Igs for life. OR child can develop active acquired immunity by receiving measles vaccine.. long lasting!

A

Active acquired immunity

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12
Q

bacterium that causes many different infections. Gram positive. Has capsules that resist WBC phagocytosis & secrete substances that degrade tissue membranes. Streptococci can also release an exotoxin that can cause fever and rash.

A

GABHS (Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus)

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12
Q

these work hand in hand with macrophages to destroy foreign invaders and self

A

major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)

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12
Q

every human has these surface antigens which are also called human leukocyte antigens. These give the ability to distinguish self from non-self & come into play for autoimmune disorders to recognize foreign invaders & get rid of them which can also destroy self.

A

major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs)

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14
Q

these are found in the innate division, the first line of defense against foreign invaders or antigens. They engulf, ingest, & break down foreign matter such as bacteria, pollen, viruses, fungi that enter the body.

A

macrophages

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15
Q

these consist of either viral or bacterial components. They can be live or or inactivated.

A

vaccines

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16
Q

what type of vaccine has the potential, although rare, to mutate into disease-causing strain?

A

live virus vaccines

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17
Q

what type of vaccine should immunocompromised people never get?

A

live virus vaccines! because could mutate into disease causing strain

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18
Q

an illness caused by a pathogen that takes advantage of the lack of immune defenses within the host

A

opportunistic infection

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19
Q

3 stages of HIV

A

acute HIV infection, chronic HIV infection, AIDS

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20
Q

who is at greater risk for HIV?

A

African Americans, gay/bisexual men, IV drug users

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21
Q

what happens with HIV is left untreated?

A

it can advance to AIDS

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22
Q

what shows progression in HIV?

A

depletion of CD4 T cells.

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23
Q

when is AIDS reached?

A

when CD4 T cells get to 200 or below and they have a presence of an opportunistic infection such as Kaposi’s sarcoma, TB, pneumocystitis pneumonia, candida infection (thrush), toxoplasmosis, cryptococcus

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24
Q

What is the latent stage or latency period?

A

when you have it but appear healthy, you aren contagious at this time & don’t know. Most dangerous latent stage of HIV is 2 weeks to 6 months after contraction of virus where bloodwork looks normal, asymptomatic.

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25
Q

What is the transition period?

A

when your tests show positive and will have flu like symptoms

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26
Q

someone who has the infection but is asymptomatic

A

carrier

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27
Q

what encompasses immune reactions against self antigens that result from the loss of self-tolerance. T cells or Igs cannot make a distinction between nonantigenic cell surface markers and antigenic foreign cell surface markers. Inability of body to recognize self (body starts attacking self so we start on immunosuppressants which makes pt greater risk for infection and then cancer as well bc body doesn’t know how to fight it off)

A

autoimmune disease

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28
Q

type of autoimmune disease that pt has fever, butterfly rash, joint inflammation, damage to kidney, lungs, serosal membranes. most common in women, African Americans as well as asians and hispanics. presence of Epstein-Barr virus increases risk of this as well.

A

SLE (systemic lupus erythematous)

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29
Q

this occurs from lupus (SLE) and is an episodic vasospasm of the arteries supplying the fingers. has blue, red, to white color change. can be numb, painful, tingly.

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon

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30
Q

autoimmune disease that is chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder that affects the joints bilaterally (joint pain/inflammation)

A

RA (Rheumatoid Arthritis)

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31
Q

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A
  1. type I: Immediate hypersensitivity
  2. type II: Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
  3. type III: Immune complex disorders
  4. type IV: Delayed hypersensitivity
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32
Q

which type of hypersensitivity is an allergy or atopic disorder, rapidly developing immune reaction that occurs after IgE binds to mast cells and combines with antigen, occurs in individuals previously exposed to antigen, local (hives/rash aka urticaria) or systemic. Allergic rhinitis reactions. Can lead to anaphylactic reaction. Ex: pollen, dust, shellfish, peanuts

A

Type 1: Immediate hypersensitivity

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33
Q

which type of hypersensitivity is mediated by Igs directed toward antigens present on cell surfaces. Antibody mediated cell destruction & phagocytosis occur in these reactions. Ex: blood transfusion reaction in which cells from an incompatible donor react with host Igs. Or certain drug reactions.

A

Type II: Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity

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34
Q

what type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs when antigen combines with Ig within circulation & these complexes are then deposited in tissues causing organ dysfunction. Autoimmune disease – failing to recognize self. Ex: systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) where complexes are deposited in kidney, blood vessels, lung skin. Can also be localized such as joints in RA.

A

Type III: Immune Complex Disorders

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35
Q

what type of hypersensitivity reaction is initiated by T lymphocytes that have had previous exposure to an antigen. The T lymphocytes are sensitized to the antigen do not attack the antigen until days after initial exposure. Most common is contact dermatitis. Ex: poison ivy but don’t get itchy til days after exposure. PPD skin test as well. Also occurs in transplant rejection (don’t know til days after)

A

type IV: delayed hypersensitivity

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36
Q

what cells are associated with HIV?

A

CD4 t cells, monocytes, and macrophages

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37
Q

specific strain of E.Coli that causes severe gastroenteritis and HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome) aka disorder of acute renal failure. Infants and elderly are most susceptible to this. Can be fatal. Transmitted through fecal/oral route. Contaminated (undercooked meat) food and water.

A

E. coli O157:H7

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38
Q

Gram negative, rod shaped bacteria that inhabit the human intestine. Can cause cholecystitis, bacteremia, cholangitis, UTI, traveler’s diarrhea, neonatal meningitis, & pneumonia.

A

E. coli

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39
Q

disorder of acute renal failure, s/s include fever, diarrhea, n/v, stomach cramps, flatulence, stool may have blood/mucus/pus. rare instances kids can have seizures. This can happen from a GI bacterial infection like shigella or E. coli

A

HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)

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40
Q

Collapsed alveoli !!!!!!!! due to pressure placed on it by fluid. Leads to PNA.

A

atelectasis

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41
Q

Increased AP diameter = good chance they have chronic emphysema …these pts trap air/ have difficulty expelling CO2

A

barrel chest

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42
Q

coughing up blood , bright red blood in sputum. Can be a sign of 2 things: TB and/or lung cancer

A

Hemoptysis

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43
Q

a lung condition that causes shortness of breath (dyspnea). The air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) are damaged. Over time, the inner walls of the air sacs weaken & rupture. Obstruction to expiratory airflow, loss of elastic recoil of the alveoli, & high residual volume of CO2 in lung

A

Emphysema

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44
Q

immune responses that is our skin, mucus membranes, enzymes

A

innate immune response

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45
Q

immune response that once it has seen an antigen, it recognizes it & adapts to it to know how to deal with it next time. Ex: immunizations

A

adaptive immune response

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46
Q

Patients with allergic urticaria(hives) should be monitored for signs of what?

A

anaphylaxis

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47
Q

ARDS

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

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48
Q

pulmonary dysfunction characterized by diffuse alveolar injury, pulmonary capillary damage, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, & severe hypoxemia. Occurs in critically ill pts. Most common risk factor is sepsis. symptoms include SOB, fatigue, confusion, hypercapnic (too much CO2 in blood), poor O2, high CO2, severe organ dysfunction and muscle weakness

A

ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)

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49
Q

which type of hypersensitivity reaction is type I?

A

Immediate hypersensitivity

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50
Q

which type of hypersensitivity reaction is type II?

A

Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity

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51
Q

which type of hypersensitivity reaction is type III?

A

Immune Complex Disorders

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52
Q

which type of hypersensitivity reaction is type IV?

A

Delayed Hypersensitivity

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53
Q

if this malfunctions, you cough when drinking. this allows you to breathe and drink when you want.

A

Epiglottis

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54
Q

this is produced in utero as a fetus, it reduces surface tension in the lungs, cells in alveoli produce these

A

Surfactant

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55
Q

where major organs are, space between lungs

A

Mediastinum

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56
Q

surround lungs

A

Pleural membranes

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57
Q

intercostal muscles

A

Thoracic cavity

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58
Q

C shaped, smaller, less likely to get PNA

A

left lobe lung

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59
Q

larger, straight, higher risk of PNA

A

right lung

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60
Q

thin walled, balloon like structures that are surrounded by pulmonary capillaries that enables transfer of O2 & CO2

A

alveoli

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61
Q

hemoglobin plus oxygen

A

oxyhemoglobin

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62
Q

the % Hgb with oxygen bound. Use a pulsox to measure this (indirect measurement)

A

Oxygen saturation (SaO2)

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63
Q

optimal saturation of Hgb

A

PaO2 90-100mmHg

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64
Q

what type of injury will cause motor and sensory conduction to diaphragm to stop and pt will require respiratory support to maintain life?

A

C4 or above injury

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64
Q

controlled voluntarily and involuntarily

A

diaphragm separates and from thoracic cavity)

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65
Q

what innervates the diaphragm?

A

phrenic nerve

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66
Q

the amt of blood reaching alveoli, ideally it should be equal. If unequal then there is an imbalance. AIR TO BLOOD TO AVEOLI that should be matched.

A

VQ ratio (lung scan)

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67
Q

ventilate with ______, perfuse with _______

A

ventilate with air, perfuse with blood

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68
Q

the process of inspiration & expiration

A

ventilation

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69
Q

the movement of blood through the pulmonary circulation, then tissues

A

perfusion

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70
Q

occurs when oxygen levels of blood are insufficient to meet needs of tissue (at risk for this if O2 is less than 90%)

A

hypoxia

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71
Q

no perfusion so PE, weak heart, insufficient blood & hemoglobin, recent MI or heart failure … this will lead to what?

A

VQ mismatch

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72
Q

if VQ is unequal, there is an imbalance and a VQ scan should for ordered for what?

A

pulmonary embolism

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73
Q

hyperventilation leads to what?

A

hypocapnia ( getting rid to too much CO2) which can cause alkalosis & CNS excitation

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74
Q

hypoventilation leads to what?

A

hypercapnia (holding onto too much CO2) which leads to respiratory acidosis (these people are blowers aka trying to blow the CO2 off)

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75
Q

what is the 1st sign of someone in respiratory acidosis?

A

CNS depression aka change in mental status (remember hypoventilation leads to hypercapnia which leads to respiratory acidosis)

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76
Q

amount of air that moves into & out of the lungs during a normal breath

A

Tidal volume(TV)

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77
Q

max amount of air that can be inspired in excess of the normal TV

A

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

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78
Q

max amount that can be exhaled in excess of TV

A

Expiratory reserve (ERV)

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79
Q

amount of air that remains in lungs after forced expiration; increases w/ age

A

Residual volume (RV)

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80
Q

IRV + (TV and ERV); is the amt of air that can be exhaled from the point of maximal inspiration

A

Vital capacity

81
Q

involves full inspiration to TLC followed by forceful maximal expiration

A

Forced vital capacity

82
Q

form of dyspnea and is the sensation of dyspnea when lying flat. It is commonly seen in heart failure but can also be seen in asthma.

A

orthopnea

83
Q

Which measure of lung function indicates the total amount of air that the lungs can hold?

A

Total lung capacity

84
Q

zero amount of O2 in blood

A

Anoxia

85
Q

hypoxia vs hypoxemia

A

hypoxemia- abnormally low blood oxygen levels
hypoxia- low Oxygen levels in tissues

86
Q

OLDCART

A

Onset, location, duration, character, aggravating or relieving factors, treatment

87
Q

restricted airway

A

wheezing (doesn’t clear with cough)

88
Q

bradypnea vs tachypnea

A

bradypnea - less than 12 breaths
tachypnea - more than 20 breaths

89
Q

feeling for vibrations aka fluid aka atelectasis (should be equal bilaterally)

A

tactile fremitus

90
Q

percussion sounds (dull, resonant, hyper resonance)

A

dull - solid mass (bone) or fluid
resonant - air
hyperresonance - lungs overinflated (emphysema)

91
Q

percussion sound for chronic bronchitis, COPD, emphysema

A

hyperresonance

92
Q

rhonchi vs crackle

A

rhonchi - snores
crackles - velcro

93
Q

what could the pt have if you hear crackles/rales

A

HF, PNA

94
Q

wheezing could mean what?

A

asthma, obstruction (doesn’t clear w/ cough)

95
Q

Serum blood values obtained through arterial blood. Identified alterations in acid-base balance caused by respiratory issues.

A

ABG (arterial blood gases)

96
Q

normal ABG values (pH, PCO2, HCO3-, PO2, % Hgb sat)

A

pH: 7.35 - 7.45
PCO2: 35 - 45
HCO3-: 22 - 26
PO2: 90 - 100
% Hgb sat: 95 - 100

97
Q

inflammation & irritation of nasal mucosa

A

acute rhinitis

98
Q

during allergies (IgE), these increase

A

eosinophils

99
Q

sore throat, always viral, antibiotics don’t help with this.. inflammation of the pharynx

A

acute pharyngitis

100
Q

inflammation of the sinuses, almost always viral

A

acute sinusitis

101
Q

inflammation of the bronchi/bronchioles, mostly viral but can be bacterial, can occur from cold exposure or smoking in house

A

acute bronchitis

102
Q

egophony, bronchophony, whispered pectoriloquy

A

egophony- pt says “e” but abnormal aka PNA if it sounds like “a”

bronchophony- pt says “99” , should sound muffled or will hear clear as day if abnormal

whispered pectoriloquy- whisper “1,2,3” and will hear it clear as day if abnormal aka possible PNA.. muffled if normal

102
Q

this is not a type of PNA but puts you at risk for PNA because of decreased immune response when you have this

A

the flu/ influenza

103
Q

these treat fevers

A

antipyretics

104
Q

this medication opens up airway for more ventilation

A

bronchodilators

104
Q

these are heard over peripheral lung fields and may indicate PNA

A

bronchial breath sounds

105
Q

these are released by WBCs, bronchoconstrcition

A

leukotrienes / histamine

106
Q

if these pts are given high levels of O2, their respiratory drive will be suppressed

A

COPD or chronic hypercapnia pts

107
Q

The high pulmonary artery pressure places high resistance against the RV of the heart, which leads to RVH
(right ventricular hypertrophy) and RV failure.. this is known as what?

A

cor pulmonale

108
Q

this is a type of CT scan that is used to diagnose pulmonary embolisms

A

VQ Scan

108
Q

these are types of obstructive disorders

A

asthma and COPD

109
Q

what is the number 1 and 2 symptoms for asthma?

A
  1. wheezing
  2. cough, dyspnea, maybe use of accessory muscles
110
Q

also known as blue bloater, happens due to hypoxia & cyanosis as well as edema that occurs due to RV failure

A

chronic bronchitis

111
Q

also known as pink puffer, well oxygenated until later in disease & exhibit pursed lip breathing

A

emphysema

112
Q

this is RV failure caused by pulmonary disease, signs/symptoms include JVD, ascites (fluid collects in abdomen), hepatomegaly, jaundice dyspnea, wheezing, ankle edema, might have 3rd heart sound

A

cor pulmonale

113
Q

collapsed lung, air in plural cavity that causes collapse of lung. can be caused by trauma or rupture of alveoli

A

pneumothorax

114
Q

Type of pneumothorax that is Closed, penetrating wound allows air into pleural cavity, but not out.
Life-threatening: Cardiac structures compressed

A

tension pneumothorax

115
Q

type of pneumothorax where there is air in intrapleural space, No preceding trauma or underlying disease. Most common in tall, young men

A

primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP)

116
Q

type of pneumothorax where underlying pathological process in the lung, Air enters the pleural space via ruptured blebs, Long-term emphysema most at risk

A

secondary spontaneous pneumothorax (SSP)

117
Q

type of pneumothorax caused by penetrating wound of the thoracic cage, Rib fracture that puncture pleural membrane

A

traumatic pneumothorax

118
Q

type of pneumothorax that is from a Complication of medical procedure, Transthoracic needle aspiration

A

latrogenic pneumothorax

119
Q

Syndrome characterized by severe and rapid onset of dyspnea, tachypnea, hypoxemia, pulmonary edema, and pulmonary infiltrates

A

ARDS (Acute respiratory distress)

120
Q

Ig found in bodily secretions

A

IgA

121
Q

caused by fluid

A

rales/rhonchi

122
Q

lymphocyte plasma cells are triggered by?

A

humoral immune response

123
Q

health status of a person with HIV in latent stage

A

healthy with no symptoms

124
Q

hormone implicated in creased risk of SLE (lupus)

A

estrogen

125
Q

worsening LV HF leads to …

A

pulmonary edema

126
Q

immunity via vaccine or disease, long lasting

A

active acquired immunity

127
Q

anaphylaxis is which type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 1 immediate hypersensitivity

128
Q

virus implicated in development of RA

A

EBV

129
Q

Associated with glomerulonephritis, pharyngitis (sore throat), necrotizing fasciitis

A

GABHS (Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus)

130
Q

abnormally elevated CO2 levels

A

hypercapnia

131
Q

number of new cases

A

incidence

132
Q

Right ventricular failure and enlargement, commonly seen in chronic emphysema

A

cor pulmonale

133
Q

this is caused by bronchoconstriction

A

wheezing

134
Q

Side effect of treatment with immunosuppressant agents for autoimmune diseases

A

risk of infections

135
Q

antibody administration confers..

A

short term immunity

136
Q

inability to distinguish self from non self

A

autoimmune disorder

137
Q

what causes Raynaud’s

A

capillary vasoconstriction

138
Q

period of seroconversion (HIV/AIDS)

A

2 weeks to 6 months

139
Q

PPD (Mantoux text) or poison ivy is with hypersensitivity rx?

A

Type IV Delayed hypersensitivity

140
Q

Fatal toxic effect caused by e.coli 0157

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

141
Q

sign of lung cancer

A

hemoptysis

142
Q

Macrophages contain these substances which allow them to recognize self from non self

A

MHC (major histocompatibility complexes)

143
Q

immunoglobulins that antibody titers measure

A

IgM (first responder, shows current infection) and IgG (secondary response, shows previous exposure)

144
Q

type of PNA that is commonly transmitted through warm moist air, older pts so don’t have high fevers

A

Legionella pneumophila (Legionaries Disease)

145
Q

cause of VQ mismatch in PE

A

decreased blood flow through pulmonary arteries

146
Q

vector borne infection (through insects!!!!)

A

malaria

147
Q

type of PNA that affects ppl <40 y/o, don’t really have symptoms

A

walking PNA aka mycoplasma PNA

148
Q

who is at risk for TB

A

prison, homeless shelters, schools, third world countries, HIV

149
Q

who is at risk for aspiration

A

decreased LOC

150
Q

immunoglobulin involved in hypersensitivity rxs

A

IgD

151
Q

cause of absent breath sounds unilaterally

A

pneumothorax

152
Q

associated with high fever, productive cough, pleuritic chest pain, rigors

A

PNA

153
Q

most prevalent type in US

A

HIV 1

154
Q

risk factor for COPD

A

tobacco use

155
Q

FEV1

A

forced expiratory volume

156
Q

most important system to asses in C spine injury

A

respiratory

157
Q

immunoglobulin involved in allergic rx

A

IgE

158
Q

most common feature of RA

A

bilateral joint pain

159
Q

adequate oxygen range

A

92-100%

160
Q

mast cells predominate here (which type)

A

Type 1 immediate hypersensitivity rx

161
Q

organ specific autoimmune disease

A

DM1

162
Q

blood transfusion rx (which type)

A

Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity

163
Q

cell most affected in HIV

A

CD4 (WBC)

164
Q

examples of opportunistic infections

A

Kaposi sarcoma, TB, pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

165
Q

what happens when CD4 cells are less than 200

A

AIDS

166
Q

reset after recent exposure

A

HBV antibody titer

167
Q

antibody mediated cell destruction and phagocytosis occurs here (which type)

A

type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity

168
Q

systemic lupus erythematous (SLE = lupus) which type

A

type III hypersensitivity immune rx

169
Q

antigen combines with Ig within circulation and the complex are deposited in tissues causing organ dysfunction

A

type III hypersensitivity immune complex rx

170
Q

these block entry of environmental antigens

A

anatomical barriers

171
Q

type of PNA that is more common in healthcare workers and people with compromised immune systems

A

Pseudomonas pneumonia

172
Q

what causes decreased ventilation?

A

not enough air reaching the alveoli, hypoventilation can cause this. airway obstruction or bronchonconstriction

173
Q

what should people with decreased immune response be doing?

A

washing hands, avoid crowds, get vaccines to avoid infectious disease

174
Q

risk factors for chronic emphysema, bronchitis, COPD

A

exposure to chemical irritants like tobacco or anything that could damage lungs. bleach, fine particulate matter, asbestos

175
Q

acute vs chronic bronchitis

A

acute bronchitis- inflammatory, occurs as a viral illness

chronic bronchitis- tobacco

176
Q

this is bronchoconstriction/inflammatory response so we give steroids to reduce inflammation

A

asthma

177
Q

how to treat acute rhinitis

A

treat with antihistamine, potential steroid to reduce inflammation, & give leukotriene inhibitor

178
Q

how to treat type 1 anaphylaxis rx

A

epinephrine to open airway

179
Q

protects us against PNA, part of our upper respiratory tracts. Innate. Moves up our inhaled particles that were missed from our nose/oral airway

A

mucus cilliray clearnace

180
Q

this leads to pulmonary edema aka backup of blood flow into lungs, s/s include rails, rhonchi, crackles, decreased O2, tachypnea, chronic hypertension, wearing of left ventricular pump, puffy extremities

A

left ventricular failure

181
Q

leads to cor pulmonale aka back up of systemic blood flow, s/s include JVD, jaundice, ascites, enlarged liver

A

right ventricular failure

182
Q

we do this for early detection of COPD, emphysema, or to monitor asthma. this measures how much O2 you take in/out. (tidal capacity tells us how much you can hold). this tells us how severe your pulmonary disease is. (ex: coal miners are at high risk for pneumoconiosis aka black lung disease)

A

pulmonary function test

183
Q

what are the 5 stages of infectious disease?

A
  1. incubation stage (microorganisms being replication without symptoms)
  2. prodromal stage (symptoms start, often vague/general)
  3. acute stage (full infectious disease, signs/symptoms in full force trying to fight it off)
  4. convalescent stage (body starts to eliminate the pathogen, no longer infectious)
  5. resolution stage (pathogen eliminated)
184
Q

ppl are treated with immunosuppressant drugs for inflammatory disorders are increased risk for what?

A

developing infections!

185
Q

measures how quickly an individual can exhale, usually measured at the same time as the FVC (forced vital capacity which measures the amt of air an individual can exhale with force after inhaling as deeply as possible).

A

peak expiratory flow (PEF)

186
Q

measures the amount of air an individual can exhale with force in one breath. This is measured at 1 second

A

forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

187
Q

this is a combination of chronic bronchitis, emphysema, hyperactive airway disease. smoking is major cause of this.

A

COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

188
Q

the ability of an individual’s immune system to resist and control infections (ex: antibody titers)

A

immunocompetence (example of immunocompetence test would be allergy panel)

189
Q

Tranquilizers, sedatives, and opiates can depress respiratory drive and cause respiratory failure in what kinds of pts?

A

COPD

190
Q

this is an extension or sign of severe right ventricular heart failure… goes hand in hand with ppl with chronic emphysema & choric bronchitis. This is a back up of blood into venous systemic system including hepatic vein.

A

cor pulmonale

191
Q

this is where the pathogen is living within host, does not necessarily mean it infects it

A

colonization

192
Q

Human or animal colonized by pathogen

A

host

193
Q

Microorganisms capable of causing infectious disease

A

pathogen

194
Q

Invasion, colonization, and multiplication of pathogens

A

infection

195
Q

pathogen source

A

reservoir

196
Q

Living being that can carry pathogen from reservoir to host
Mosquito, tick, flea

A

vector

197
Q

ability to produce disease

A

virulence

198
Q

gram positive, damaging enzymes (ex: neurotoxin from tetanus, immunizations for tetanus)

A

exotoxins

199
Q

gram negative, cell wall/released with cell destruction (ex: typhoid, fevers)

A

endotoxins

200
Q

lesions that are contagious (skin infections, crusty, bumps etc)

A

impetigo

Patho (4 decks)

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