Path past papers Flashcards
1
Q
What presents with centrocytes and centroblasts on histology
A
Follicular NHL
2
Q
Physiologically what causes an increased ESR
A
Fibrinogen
Acute phase proteins
Immunoglobulins
3
Q
What is glanzmanns thrombasthenia
A
Inherited lack of Glp11b/111a leading to defective platelet aggregration
4
Q
What is most common cause of death in myelodysplastic syndromes
A
Bacterial infection
5
Q
What antibodies are indicated in GBS
A
Anti-ganglioside LM1
6
Q
Recurrent episodes of flushed face and breathing problems with hepatomegaly
A
Hereditary angioedema
7
Q
Acute GvHD post-allogeneic haematopoietic stem cell transplant is mediated by which cell type?
A
Donor T cells
8
Q
Which class of antibiotics has concentration dependent killing (i.e. the goal of therapy is to maximise peak > MIC)
A
Aminoglycoside and fluoroquinolines
9
Q
What is the commonest cause of portal vein thrombosis?
A
Liver cirrhosis
10
Q
What is stain for cryptococcus
A
India ink- see yeast cells surrounded by halos
11
Q
Stain for chlamydia
A
Giemsa stain
12
Q
Causes of fanconi syndrome
A
Congenital
Wilsons
Myeloma
Lead poisoning
Tetracyclines
13
Q
Pseudohypoparathyroidism/albright hereditary osteodystrophy presentation
A
Resistance to PTH
- low calcium
- high phosophate
- high PTH
Short 4th and 5th metacarpals
14
Q
Which brain tumour has psammoma bodies in
A
Meningioma
15
Q
What respiratory condition is characterised by airspace enlargement and alveolar wall destruction?
A
Emphysema
16
Q
What are codfish vertebrae, pepper pot skull and looser zones seen in
A
Osteomalacia
17
Q
Proportion of thyroid transported in blood
A
Thyroglobulin binding globulin 75
Thyroxine binding prealbumin 20
Albumin 5
Free 0.03
18
Q
How are streptoccus infections split up
A
Into alpha or beta haemolytic
Incubate on blood agar
- partial haemolysis is alpha (green)
- complete haemolysis is beta (clear)
Beta haemolytic then split into lancefield groups based off antigens on cell membrane
19
Q
How does reticular dysgenesis present
A
Severe life threatening infections
Profound sensorineural deafness
20
Q
What are hyperlobated nuclei (flower cells) seen in
A
Adult T cell lymphoma
21
Q
What is nucleolar pattern immunofluorescence associated with
A
Diffuse systemic sclerosis
22
Q
What is somatotrophin
A
GH
23
Q
How are macrophages described in granulomas
A
Epithelioid as develop intracellular organelle growth
24
Q
Rank these as cause of HAI
A. Skin and soft tissue
B. Surgical site
C. Urinary tract
D. Hospital acquired pneumonia
E. Gastrointestinal system
A
1 - E. Gastrointestinal system
2 - C. Urinary tract
3 - D. Pneumonia/ LRTI
4 - B. Surgical site
5 - A. Skin and soft tissue
25
Rank as cause of anaphylaxis
A. Eggs
B. Penicillin
C. Banana
D. Gliadin
E. Peanut
1 - E. Peanut
2 - B. Penicillin
3 - A. Eggs
4 - D. Gliadin
5 - C. Banana
26
Rank from narrow to broad spectrum
A. Meropenem
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Tazocin
E. Amoxicillin
1 - B. Benzylpenicillin
2 - E. Amoxicillin
3 - C. Co-amoxiclav
4 - D. Tazocin
5 - A. Meropenem
27
How would you manage renal failure in a patient with Myeloma?
Haemodialysis
28
A man presents with a midshaft femur fracture without a serious history of trauma. What may have caused this?
Likely metastases
29
A patient with HIV presents with signs of raised ICP and new onset epilepsy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary CNS lymphoma
30
A patient with pneumonia has a CXR, which shows a bat wing appearance. What is the most likely causative organism?
PJP
31
In which breast cancer are Indian Files seen?
Invasive Lobular
32
In which breast cancer are empty spaces seen?
Mucinous invasive
33
Which stain is used to distinguish Squamous Cell Carcinomas from Adenocarcinomas?
P40
34
Name one mutation that is associated with Type I endometrial carcinoma.
PTEN
35
What are the stages of lobar pneumonia?
Congestion- fluid everywhere
Red hepatisation- neutrophils
Grey hepatisation- fibrosis
Resolution- macrophages
36
In which condition might you see a proliferative synovitis, with pannus formation and grimley sokoloff cells on histology?
RA
37
What is the most common genetic predisposition to brain tumours?
Neurofibromatosis
38
Which brain cancer displays ‘round cells with clear cytoplasm’ (fried egg appearance)
Oligodendroma
39
Which brain cancer shows ‘small blue round cells’ and ‘Horner-Wright Rosettes’?
Medulloblastoma
40
What do TH1 cells release
IL-2
IFN-Gamma
41
How to differentiate between IDA and beta thalassaemia on blood film
Basophillic stippling in beta thalassaemia
42
What are gram negative coco bacilli
Haemophilus
Bordatella
Pseudomonas
Chlamydia
Brucella
43
Ribavirin MOA
Nuceloside analogue
44
What haem condition is associated with ADAMTS13 mutations other than TTP
MAHA
45
If have gout in knee, poisoning with what leads to it
Lead
46
Difference between NF1 and NF2
NF 1- astrocytomas, neurofibromas and optic gliomas
NF2 - vestibular schwannomas, meningiomas, ependymomas and astrocytomas
47
Which Parkinson Plus syndrome is associated with early falls, axial rigidity, akinesia, dysarthria and dysphagia?
Progressive supranuclear palsy
48
Which tumour is ventricular, and associated with hydrocephalus?
Ependyoma
49
Which brain tumour is soft, gelatinous and calcified?
Oligodendroma
50
Which bacteria is caught through reheated meats, causes diarrhoea and cramps and may cause gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
51
How does the mannose binding pathway work?
MBL binds to microbial cell surface carbohydrates, which stimulates C2/4 of the classical pathway
52
Role ofTH17 cells
Help neutrophils
53
Which immunohisto stain targets epithelial cells?
Cytokeratin
54
How do renal tubular acidosis type 1 and 2 cause acidosis
T1- Can't excrete H+
T2- can't reabsorb bicarb
55
When is Urobilinogen raised
Pre-hepatic
56
What is the most common radiolucent cause of nephrolithiasis?
Uric acid
57
What does Hyxroxycarbimide do?
Increase foetal Hb
58
When is Vitamin K indicated?
INR over 5 and bleeding
INR over 8 and not bleeding
59
Which T Cell lymphoma is most aggressive?
Anaplastic
60
Which hypersensitivity type is Chronic urticaria?
T2
61
Which stain is used for Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?
Periodic acid schiff
62
A patient presents with a rash and coryzal symptoms. They are found to have a basophilia on blood film. Which class of virus are they most likely to be infected with?
Poxvirus
63
What is mutation in reticular dysgenesis
Adenylate kinase 2
64
A patient presents with descending paralysis. he reports visiting a farm recently and trying their honey. What is the most likely causative organism?
Clostridium botulinum
65
A patient presents with a chronic productive cough. Biopsy shows dilatation of the airways, goblet cell hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucous glands. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Chronic bronchitis
66
A child presents with episodes of cough and wheeze, with associated dyspnoea. They have a history of eczema. Histology shows whorls of shed epithelium, eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden Crystals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Asthma
67
How is Campylobacter treated?
Erythomycin/ciprofloxacin
68
How might Myasthenia Gravis be treated?
Neostigmine and plasmapharesis
69
Which inherited disorder of metabolism can lead to recurrent E coli infections
Galactossaemia
70
What is cerebral salt wasting syndrome and result
In context of intracranial pathology get impaired sodium loss from kidney with depletion of extracellular volume
Urinary sodium HIGH
71
Preferred drug for resistant SIADH
Tolvaptan
72
Euvolaemic hyponatraemia with low urinary sodium
Psychogenic polydipsia
73
Effect of high glucose on osmolality in hyponatraemia
Hyperosmolar
74
When investigating sodium imbalances what investigation order for diagnosing SIADH
Paired serum and urinary osmolalites
75
First investigation if hypokalaemia
Serum magnesium
76
When interpreting hyperkalaemia what is important thing to consider
Is it spurios- does it fit with clinical picture
77
Rank these as hypercalcaemia
Osteoporosis
Parathyroid carcinoma
Osteomalacia
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Parathyroid carcinoma- extremely high as autonomous PTH
78
Differentiating atrophic hypothyroidism from hashimotos
No goitre in atrophic
Antibodies present in hashimotos
79
What is given in a myxoedema coma
Liothyronine which is active T3
80
What is sick euthyroid
In severe illness body tries to shut down the thyroid to conserve energy
Get low T4 and high TSH but then TSH drops too
81
What is a pituitary macroadenoma most likely
Non functional
Microadenomas tend to be functional
82
What cancer associated with acromegaly
Colorectal
83
What is used to treat ectopic cushings
Ketoconazole or metyrapone
CYP450 inhibitors
84
What is nelsons syndrome
If remove adrenals and pituitary tumour is cause then it will grow uncontrollably
85
Most common cause of conns
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
86
What is difference between what produced between neuroblastoma and phaeochromocytoma
Neuroblastomas produce noradrenaline
Phaeos produce adrenaline
87
What is liraglutide
Incretin/ GLP-1 inhibitor
88
Management of HHS
NaCl 0.9%
Only add insulin if ketones present
89
What is visual defect with pituitary tumours
Bitemporal inferior quadrantopia
90
Best invstigation for suspected parathyroid adenoma
Technetium 99 scan
91
When can not do skin prick tests
History of recent anaphylaxis
Skin conditions like eczema
Cant stop taking antihistamines
92
Bleeding pattern of VWB vs haemophilia
VWB- epistaxis and easy bleeding
Haemophilia- deep bleeding in joints in particular
93
When is Ph chromosome present
ALL
CML
94
What is ecluzimab
Antibody against C5
95
Severe childhood SLE symptoms with normal C3 and C4 levels, what is diagnosis
C1q deficiency/C2 deficiency
96
Which breast cancer associated with pagets disease of the breast
Ductal
97
Rashes in secondary syphilis
Condyloma acuminate
Rash on soles and palms
98
What beta lactam has anti-pseudomonal activity
Carbapenems
Tazocin
Ceftazidine
99
Do tazocin or co-amoxiclav anti-pseudomonal abilities
Tazocin yes
Co-amoxiclav no
100
What happens to the body of the stomach in a patient with pernicious anaemia
Atrophy
101
Patient with HIV, raised ICP, new onset epilepsy
CNS lymphoma
101
Patient with HIV, raised ICP, new onset epilepsy
CNS lymphoma
102
Hypertensive and diabetic, with angioedema
Think that they are on ACEi so get hereditary angioedema
103
Jaundice rash and diarrhoea post transfusion
GVHD
104
What is screening test for SCD
Sickle solubility
If goes cloudy then sickle cells present
105
Man gets swollen lips when blowing up balloons
Latex hypersensitivity
106
Incubation periods of the gastroenteritis causes
1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*
12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli (watery camper)
48-72 hrs: Shigella (bloody), Campylobacter (hayfever campylo (flu prodrome) + (diarrhoea can be bloody))
7 days: Amoebiasis (Bloody), Giardiasis (Non-bloody diarrhoea)
107
Diarrhoea and flu like symptoms
Campylobacter
108
What amylase is raised in mumps vs pancreatitis
Mumps- amylase S
Pancreatitis- amylase P
109
What are blood results of pseudohypoparathyroidism
Same as secondary hyperparathyroidism
Low Ca
High ALP
High phosphate
Caused by failure of kidney to recongise PTH
110
Management of lupus nephritis
Mycophenolate
111
Differentiating primary hyperparathyroidism and familial hypercalcaemia
Low urinary calcium in familial hypercalcaemia
112
35. Which of these can cause peri/neonatal illness without causing damage to the foetus if the mother is infected antenatal?
a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
c. Enterovirus
d. Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)
e. Rubella
Enterovirus
113
What does RANKL stand for
Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B Ligand
114
What is the amyloid in alzheimers vs T2DM
Alzheimers= amyloid B
T2DM= amyelin
115
What are burr cells (echinocytes) seen in
Renal disease
116
What is in von hippel lindau syndrome
Haemangiomas
- brain
- kidney
- retina
- adrenals
117
31. Man with macrocytic anaemia, atrophy of body of stomach. What substance are they deficient in that leads to B12 malabsorption?
Intrinsic factor
118
32. Previous IVDU man is given Rituximab - CHOP treatment for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. He later 8 months later develops fulminant liver failure and dies. Why?
Hepatitis B
119
Starts a drug then get oral ulcers
Stephen johnsons syndrome
120
What are the neutralising antibodies in HIV
Anti-gp41 (IgM)
Anti-gp120 (IgG)
121
What are non-neutralising antibodies in HIV
Anti-p24 GAG
122
What are GAG and gp41
GAG- provides HIV structural support
gp41- provides conformational change after gp120 initial binding
123
Which macrophage produces chemokines neutralise HIV
MIP-1a
MIP-1b
RANTES
124
Most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones
125
What is the definition of herd immunity threshold
1-(1/R0)
R0= basic reproduction number
126
19. Insulinoma. What would you find?
Low cortisol, low FFAs, low pro-insulin, low glucagon, low c-peptide
Low FFAs
127
What level of platelets aim for to prevent bleeding in surgery
Over 50
Over 100 if critical location like eye or CNS
128
What level of platelets give transfusion if bleeding
30
129
Definitive host of toxoplasmosis
Cats
130
Sore throat with exudate and elevated liver enzymes
EBV
131
What are 4 types of viruses
DNA
- herpes and polyomaviridae
Reverse RNA
- Hep b anf HIV
Positive sense RNA
- coronaviridae
- picornoviridae- hep a and polio
- flaviviridae- hep c, dengue, rubella, zika
Negative sense RNA
- measles, mumps, RSV and flu
132
What is nystatin
Polyene like amphotericin B
133
What is histology of pseudosac
Collection of fluid in FIBRINOUS sac
134
Renal mass with classic brown mahogany lesion with central scar
Oncocytoma
135
Ovarian mass with Coffee bean nuclei
Brenner tumour
136
What are features of leydig cell tumours in males
Precocious puberty
Reinke crystals
DIGGING FOR CRYSTALS
137
Features of yolksac tumours
Secretes AFP
Schillder duval bodies
138
What is first line for taking swab for chlamydia
If doing speculum then endocervical
If not then vulvovaginal
139
If partner comes back as saying has tested positive for chlamydia what do
Treat and get tested simultaneosuly
140
WHich macrolide use in pregnancy
Erythomycin
141
What is main component of cryoprecipitate
Factor 8
142
What are the 2 types of brain oedema
Vasogenic- breakdown in blood-brain barrier
Cytotoxic- from cellular injury
143
WHich chronic hepatitis will cause fatty changes
C
144
Which drug can cause post transplant lymphoproliferative disease
Ciclosporin
145
Which drug reduces IgG
Rituximab
146
MOA of remdesivir
Nucleoside analogue used to inhibit RNA polymerase
147
What is test for latent TB
IGRA- interferon gamma release assay
148
Diagnostic test for mycoplasma
Serology or cold agglutin
149
How can staphylococcal toxic shock rash present
Desquamating in particular on hands
150
Hepatitis after eating seafood
Hepatitis E
151
Management of non typhoid salmonella and shigellosis
Ciprofloxacin
152
Management of acute heamolytic reaction
Stop transfusion
IV fluids
Take bloods for coombs
153
What causes white patches on tongue in immunosuppressed patient
Oral hairy leukoplakia caused by EBV
154
Rank the following in order of highest to lowest reticulocyte count
Anaemia secondary to low dose myelosuppressive chemotherapy
Hereditary spherocytosis
ITP
Occult GI blood loss
Severe aplastic anaemia
Anaemia secondary to low dose myelosuppressive chemotherapy – 4
Hereditary spherocytosis – 1
ITP – 3
Occult GI blood loss – 2
Severe aplastic anaemia- 5
155
62 y/o woman attends GP with tachycardia and fatigue. FBC chows macrocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia. The blood film shows neutrophils have reduced granularity and lobation, and there is no polychromasia. Rank the following in likelihood of being the diagnosis:
Aplastic anaemia
Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
B12 deficiency
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Aplastic anaemia – 2
Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura – 4
B12 deficiency – 5
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia – 3
Myelodysplastic syndrome - 1
156
Rank the cancers below from most to frequent as a cause of death of men in the UK
Breast
Colon
Head and neck
Lung
Prostate
Breast – 5
Colon – 3
Head and neck – 4
Lung – 1
Prostate – 2
157
72 y/o Afro-Caribbean woman is admitted with acute SOB. PMHx includes hypertension and T2DM. She takes Metformin, Atorvastatin, and Amlodipine. O/E BP is 148/96. Auscultation reveals a 3rd heart sound and bibasal crackles, but no murmurs.
Investigations:
Sodium 142
Potassium 3.5
Urea 12.4
Creatinine 126
Rank the following diagnoses from most to least likely:
Essential hypertension
Cushing’s syndrome
Conn’s syndrome
Phaeochromocytoma
Addison’s disease
Essential hypertension - 1
Cushing’s syndrome - 3
Conn’s syndrome - 2
Phaeochromocytoma - 4
Addison’s disease - 5
158
Rank the following in order of efficacy at reducing LDL:
Atorvastatin
Bezafibrate
Evolocumab
Prednisolone
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin – 2
Bezafibrate – 4
Evolocumab – 1
Prednisolone – 5
Simvastatin – 3
159
55 y/o woman develops dry mouth and eyes alongside fatigue and arthralgia of the small joints in her hands. Investigations:
Urate normal
ESR 64 (raised)
IgG 22 (raised)
Rheumatoid factor 120 (raised)
Anti-CCP antibody 0.9 (negative)
Speckled anti-nuclear antibody titre 1:640 (raised)
Rank the following diagnoses by likelihood:
Gout
Osteoarthritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Primary Sjogren’s syndrome
Rheumatoid arthritis
Gout – 4
Osteoarthritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca – 2
Osteogenesis imperfecta – 5
Primary Sjogren’s syndrome – 1
Rheumatoid arthritis – 3
160
22 y/o woman presents with mild SLE. Rank the following test results by likelihood of appearing in this case:
Absent IgG
Low complement C3
Positive ANA
Positive C3 nephritic factor
Positive ds-DNA
Absent IgG – 5
Low complement C3 – 3
Positive ANA – 1
Positive C3 nephritic factor – 4
Positive ds-DNA – 2
161
A 20 y/o woman presents w 2 days of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and suprapubic pain. Rank the organisms by likelihood of being causative:
Proteus mirabilis
Acinetobacter baumanii
Candida albicans
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Proteus mirabilis – 4
Acinetobacter baumanii – 5
Candida albicans – 3
Escherichia coli – 1
Staphylococcus saprophyticus – 2
162
A neonate develops meningitis at 36 hours old. Rank the organisms by likelihood of being causative:
Escherichia coli
Group B Strep
Cryptococcus neoformans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Listeria monocytogenes
Escherichia coli – 2
Group B Strep – 1
Cryptococcus neoformans – 5
Pseudomonas aeruginosa – 4
Listeria monocytogenes – 3
163
Most common causes of late onset neonatal sepsis
Staphlococcus epidermis= most common
Staph aureus
Strep
Pseudomonas
164
What naturally occurring antibody will be in the serum of an A negative person?
Anti-B IgM
165
Which organism causes pneumonia with ‘red currant jelly sputum’
Klebsiella
166
What is associated with C3 deficiency
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
167
What type of emphysema is associated with smoking and chronic bronchitis?
Centrilobular
168
What type of emphysema seen in alpha-1-antitrypsin
Panlobular
169
What is the most common cause of hypocalcaemia in the community?
Vitamin D deficiency
170
Deficiency of which plasma protein occurs in patients with movement disorder and liver disease?
Caeruloplasmin
171
What disease present in both MEN 1 and MEN 2a
Parathyroid hyperplasia
172
What fluid given in addisons
IV 0.9% saline
173
Spelling of adrenal cortex zones
Glomerulosa
Fasiculata
Reticularis
174
Specific organism for HUS
Esherichia coli O157:H7
175
What do grafes of brain tumours indicate
Grade 1 – benign – long-term survival
Grade 2 – more than 5 yrs
Grade 3 – less than 5 yrs
Grade 4 – less than 1 yr
176
MRI of pilocytic astrocytoma, meningioma and glioblastoma multiforme
Pilocytic astrocytoma- Well circumscribed, cystic
Glioblastoma multiforme- heterogenous, enhancing post contrast
Meningioma- extra axial
177
What can be used to identify cell type in brain tumours
Methylome profile
178
What promotes hyperkalaemia in addisons
Renal loss of sodium
179
What happens to urobilinogen in haemolytic anaemia
Up
180
Baseline immunosuppression during transplant
Steroids
Mycophenolate/azathioprine
CNI
181
What toxin associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
Aflatoxins
182
Rank from narrow to broad
Benzylpenicillin
Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone
Piperaciilin/tazobactam
Meropenem
Benzylpenicillin
Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone
Piperaciilin/tazobactam
Meropenem
183
rank the causative organisms below in order of likelihood, with (1) being the most likely and 5 the least likely.
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
E coli
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Brucella melitensis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
E coli
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Brucella melitensis
184
How much does Hb and platelet increase by after transfusion of respective parts
Hb= 10g/L
Plt- 35x10^9/L
185
What can IFN beta be given in
MS
Behcets
186
What vaccines can HIV patients not receive
BCG
Yellow fever
187
What cell is involved in attacking prosthetic implants
Macrophage
188
What causes haemorrhagic infarctions
Venous occlusion
189
What are mallory denk bodies
cytoplasmic regular eosinophilic hyaline bodies which develop from pre-keratin intermediate filaments
190
What is rubor
Flushing and reddening in inflammatino
191
Alum is-effective as an adjuvant for vaccination. Which of the following best describes its mechanism of action?
Promotion of B cell differentiation
192
Which organisms are becoming resistant to carbapenems
Klebsiella
193
What separates fluclox from other penicillins
Resists beta lactamase
194
Most common causes of HAP
Enterobacteriae- E coli, klebsiella
Staph aureus
Pseudomonas
195
Painless genital pustule → ulcer → painful inguinal lymphadenopathy → proctocolitis
LGV
196
What type of AIHA is idiopathic
Intravascular
197
What is the most common cancer cause of mortality in men and women
For both is lung
198
What is seen on biopsy of hirschprung
Absence of ganglia in myenteric plexus
199
What investigation do on peripheral blood for myeloma
Serum electrophoresis
200
What is dose used in low vs high dose dex test
Low-0.5mg
High- 2mg
201
How are strep infections split up
Alpha haemolytic = green as partially haemolyse= s.pneumoniae, s.viridans
Beta haemolytic= clear as full haemolysis- group A= pyogenes, Group B = agalactiae
Gamma haemolytic no haemolysis= enterococcus faecalis
202
What is the gamma haemolytic strep
Enterococcus faecalis
203
What is used to differentiate beta haemolytic strep
Bacitracin
Bacitrscin sensitive= pyogenes
204
CURB 65 treatments
0-1= outpt with amoxicillin
2= amox and clari, consider admission
3-5= admit with co amox and clari IV
205
What is used to treat resistant TB
Amikacin
Linezolid
206
What are the 3 types of GI infection
Secretory= toxin produced and get no fever + watery diarrhoea
Inflammatory= fever and diarrhoea from invasion
Enteric fever= fever and unwell with few GI symptoms
207
Causes of secretory vs inflammatory diarrhoea
Secretory- Cholera, enterotoxigenic e coli
Inflammatory- campylobacter, shigella, salmonella
208
Which bacteria is associated with bloody diarrhoea in MSM
Shigella
209
What are the types of E.coli and there associations
Entero toxigenic = travellers diarrhoea
Entero invasive= bloody diarrhoea
Entero pathogenic= in children P for paeds
Enterohaemorrhagic= HUS
210
Which HSV causes meningitis vs encephalitis
Mening= HSV 2
Enceph= HSV 1
