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Path past papers Flashcards

1
Q

What presents with centrocytes and centroblasts on histology

A

Follicular NHL

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2
Q

Physiologically what causes an increased ESR

A

Fibrinogen
Acute phase proteins
Immunoglobulins

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3
Q

What is glanzmanns thrombasthenia

A

Inherited lack of Glp11b/111a leading to defective platelet aggregration

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4
Q

What is most common cause of death in myelodysplastic syndromes

A

Bacterial infection

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5
Q

What antibodies are indicated in GBS

A

Anti-ganglioside LM1

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6
Q

Recurrent episodes of flushed face and breathing problems with hepatomegaly

A

Hereditary angioedema

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7
Q

Acute GvHD post-allogeneic haematopoietic stem cell transplant is mediated by which cell type?

A

Donor T cells

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8
Q

Which class of antibiotics has concentration dependent killing (i.e. the goal of therapy is to maximise peak > MIC)

A

Aminoglycoside and fluoroquinolines

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9
Q

What is the commonest cause of portal vein thrombosis?

A

Liver cirrhosis

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10
Q

What is stain for cryptococcus

A

India ink- see yeast cells surrounded by halos

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11
Q

Stain for chlamydia

A

Giemsa stain

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12
Q

Causes of fanconi syndrome

A

Congenital
Wilsons
Myeloma
Lead poisoning
Tetracyclines

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13
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism/albright hereditary osteodystrophy presentation

A

Resistance to PTH
- low calcium
- high phosophate
- high PTH
Short 4th and 5th metacarpals

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14
Q

Which brain tumour has psammoma bodies in

A

Meningioma

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15
Q

What respiratory condition is characterised by airspace enlargement and alveolar wall destruction?

A

Emphysema

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16
Q

What are codfish vertebrae, pepper pot skull and looser zones seen in

A

Osteomalacia

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17
Q

Proportion of thyroid transported in blood

A

Thyroglobulin binding globulin 75
Thyroxine binding prealbumin 20
Albumin 5
Free 0.03

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18
Q

How are streptoccus infections split up

A

Into alpha or beta haemolytic
Incubate on blood agar
- partial haemolysis is alpha (green)
- complete haemolysis is beta (clear)
Beta haemolytic then split into lancefield groups based off antigens on cell membrane

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19
Q

How does reticular dysgenesis present

A

Severe life threatening infections
Profound sensorineural deafness

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20
Q

What are hyperlobated nuclei (flower cells) seen in

A

Adult T cell lymphoma

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21
Q

What is nucleolar pattern immunofluorescence associated with

A

Diffuse systemic sclerosis

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22
Q

What is somatotrophin

A

GH

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23
Q

How are macrophages described in granulomas

A

Epithelioid as develop intracellular organelle growth

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24
Q

Rank these as cause of HAI

A. Skin and soft tissue
B. Surgical site
C. Urinary tract
D. Hospital acquired pneumonia
E. Gastrointestinal system

A

1 - E. Gastrointestinal system
2 - C. Urinary tract
3 - D. Pneumonia/ LRTI
4 - B. Surgical site
5 - A. Skin and soft tissue

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25
Q

Rank as cause of anaphylaxis
A. Eggs
B. Penicillin
C. Banana
D. Gliadin
E. Peanut

A

1 - E. Peanut
2 - B. Penicillin
3 - A. Eggs
4 - D. Gliadin
5 - C. Banana

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26
Q

Rank from narrow to broad spectrum
A. Meropenem
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Tazocin
E. Amoxicillin

A

1 - B. Benzylpenicillin
2 - E. Amoxicillin
3 - C. Co-amoxiclav
4 - D. Tazocin
5 - A. Meropenem

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27
Q

How would you manage renal failure in a patient with Myeloma?

A

Haemodialysis

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28
Q

A man presents with a midshaft femur fracture without a serious history of trauma. What may have caused this?

A

Likely metastases

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29
Q

A patient with HIV presents with signs of raised ICP and new onset epilepsy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

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30
Q

A patient with pneumonia has a CXR, which shows a bat wing appearance. What is the most likely causative organism?

A

PJP

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31
Q

In which breast cancer are Indian Files seen?

A

Invasive Lobular

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32
Q

In which breast cancer are empty spaces seen?

A

Mucinous invasive

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33
Q

Which stain is used to distinguish Squamous Cell Carcinomas from Adenocarcinomas?

A

P40

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34
Q

Name one mutation that is associated with Type I endometrial carcinoma.

A

PTEN

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35
Q

What are the stages of lobar pneumonia?

A

Congestion- fluid everywhere
Red hepatisation- neutrophils
Grey hepatisation- fibrosis
Resolution- macrophages

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36
Q

In which condition might you see a proliferative synovitis, with pannus formation and grimley sokoloff cells on histology?

A

RA

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37
Q

What is the most common genetic predisposition to brain tumours?

A

Neurofibromatosis

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38
Q

Which brain cancer displays ‘round cells with clear cytoplasm’ (fried egg appearance)

A

Oligodendroma

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39
Q

Which brain cancer shows ‘small blue round cells’ and ‘Horner-Wright Rosettes’?

A

Medulloblastoma

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40
Q

What do TH1 cells release

A

IL-2
IFN-Gamma

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41
Q

How to differentiate between IDA and beta thalassaemia on blood film

A

Basophillic stippling in beta thalassaemia

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42
Q

What are gram negative coco bacilli

A

Haemophilus
Bordatella
Pseudomonas
Chlamydia
Brucella

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43
Q

Ribavirin MOA

A

Nuceloside analogue

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44
Q

What haem condition is associated with ADAMTS13 mutations other than TTP

A

MAHA

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45
Q

If have gout in knee, poisoning with what leads to it

A

Lead

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46
Q

Difference between NF1 and NF2

A

NF 1- astrocytomas, neurofibromas and optic gliomas
NF2 - vestibular schwannomas, meningiomas, ependymomas and astrocytomas

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47
Q

Which Parkinson Plus syndrome is associated with early falls, axial rigidity, akinesia, dysarthria and dysphagia?

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

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48
Q

Which tumour is ventricular, and associated with hydrocephalus?

A

Ependyoma

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49
Q

Which brain tumour is soft, gelatinous and calcified?

A

Oligodendroma

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50
Q

Which bacteria is caught through reheated meats, causes diarrhoea and cramps and may cause gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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51
Q

How does the mannose binding pathway work?

A

MBL binds to microbial cell surface carbohydrates, which stimulates C2/4 of the classical pathway

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52
Q

Role ofTH17 cells

A

Help neutrophils

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53
Q

Which immunohisto stain targets epithelial cells?

A

Cytokeratin

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54
Q

How do renal tubular acidosis type 1 and 2 cause acidosis

A

T1- Can’t excrete H+
T2- can’t reabsorb bicarb

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55
Q

When is Urobilinogen raised

A

Pre-hepatic

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56
Q

What is the most common radiolucent cause of nephrolithiasis?

A

Uric acid

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57
Q

What does Hyxroxycarbimide do?

A

Increase foetal Hb

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58
Q

When is Vitamin K indicated?

A

INR over 5 and bleeding
INR over 8 and not bleeding

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59
Q

Which T Cell lymphoma is most aggressive?

A

Anaplastic

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60
Q

Which hypersensitivity type is Chronic urticaria?

A

T2

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61
Q

Which stain is used for Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Periodic acid schiff

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62
Q

A patient presents with a rash and coryzal symptoms. They are found to have a basophilia on blood film. Which class of virus are they most likely to be infected with?

A

Poxvirus

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63
Q

What is mutation in reticular dysgenesis

A

Adenylate kinase 2

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64
Q

A patient presents with descending paralysis. he reports visiting a farm recently and trying their honey. What is the most likely causative organism?

A

Clostridium botulinum

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65
Q

A patient presents with a chronic productive cough. Biopsy shows dilatation of the airways, goblet cell hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucous glands. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Chronic bronchitis

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66
Q

A child presents with episodes of cough and wheeze, with associated dyspnoea. They have a history of eczema. Histology shows whorls of shed epithelium, eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden Crystals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Asthma

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67
Q

How is Campylobacter treated?

A

Erythomycin/ciprofloxacin

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68
Q

How might Myasthenia Gravis be treated?

A

Neostigmine and plasmapharesis

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69
Q

Which inherited disorder of metabolism can lead to recurrent E coli infections

A

Galactossaemia

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70
Q

What is cerebral salt wasting syndrome and result

A

In context of intracranial pathology get impaired sodium loss from kidney with depletion of extracellular volume
Urinary sodium HIGH

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71
Q

Preferred drug for resistant SIADH

A

Tolvaptan

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72
Q

Euvolaemic hyponatraemia with low urinary sodium

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

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73
Q

Effect of high glucose on osmolality in hyponatraemia

A

Hyperosmolar

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74
Q

When investigating sodium imbalances what investigation order for diagnosing SIADH

A

Paired serum and urinary osmolalites

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75
Q

First investigation if hypokalaemia

A

Serum magnesium

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76
Q

When interpreting hyperkalaemia what is important thing to consider

A

Is it spurios- does it fit with clinical picture

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77
Q

Rank these as hypercalcaemia
Osteoporosis
Parathyroid carcinoma
Osteomalacia
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Parathyroid carcinoma- extremely high as autonomous PTH

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78
Q

Differentiating atrophic hypothyroidism from hashimotos

A

No goitre in atrophic
Antibodies present in hashimotos

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79
Q

What is given in a myxoedema coma

A

Liothyronine which is active T3

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80
Q

What is sick euthyroid

A

In severe illness body tries to shut down the thyroid to conserve energy
Get low T4 and high TSH but then TSH drops too

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81
Q

What is a pituitary macroadenoma most likely

A

Non functional
Microadenomas tend to be functional

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82
Q

What cancer associated with acromegaly

A

Colorectal

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83
Q

What is used to treat ectopic cushings

A

Ketoconazole or metyrapone
CYP450 inhibitors

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84
Q

What is nelsons syndrome

A

If remove adrenals and pituitary tumour is cause then it will grow uncontrollably

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85
Q

Most common cause of conns

A

Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

86
Q

What is difference between what produced between neuroblastoma and phaeochromocytoma

A

Neuroblastomas produce noradrenaline
Phaeos produce adrenaline

87
Q

What is liraglutide

A

Incretin/ GLP-1 inhibitor

88
Q

Management of HHS

A

NaCl 0.9%
Only add insulin if ketones present

89
Q

What is visual defect with pituitary tumours

A

Bitemporal inferior quadrantopia

90
Q

Best invstigation for suspected parathyroid adenoma

A

Technetium 99 scan

91
Q

When can not do skin prick tests

A

History of recent anaphylaxis
Skin conditions like eczema
Cant stop taking antihistamines

92
Q

Bleeding pattern of VWB vs haemophilia

A

VWB- epistaxis and easy bleeding
Haemophilia- deep bleeding in joints in particular

93
Q

When is Ph chromosome present

A

ALL
CML

94
Q

What is ecluzimab

A

Antibody against C5

95
Q

Severe childhood SLE symptoms with normal C3 and C4 levels, what is diagnosis

A

C1q deficiency/C2 deficiency

96
Q

Which breast cancer associated with pagets disease of the breast

A

Ductal

97
Q

Rashes in secondary syphilis

A

Condyloma acuminate
Rash on soles and palms

98
Q

What beta lactam has anti-pseudomonal activity

A

Carbapenems
Tazocin
Ceftazidine

99
Q

Do tazocin or co-amoxiclav anti-pseudomonal abilities

A

Tazocin yes
Co-amoxiclav no

100
Q

What happens to the body of the stomach in a patient with pernicious anaemia

A

Atrophy

101
Q

Patient with HIV, raised ICP, new onset epilepsy

A

CNS lymphoma

101
Q

Patient with HIV, raised ICP, new onset epilepsy

A

CNS lymphoma

102
Q

Hypertensive and diabetic, with angioedema

A

Think that they are on ACEi so get hereditary angioedema

103
Q

Jaundice rash and diarrhoea post transfusion

A

GVHD

104
Q

What is screening test for SCD

A

Sickle solubility
If goes cloudy then sickle cells present

105
Q

Man gets swollen lips when blowing up balloons

A

Latex hypersensitivity

106
Q

Incubation periods of the gastroenteritis causes

A

1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*
12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli (watery camper)
48-72 hrs: Shigella (bloody), Campylobacter (hayfever campylo (flu prodrome) + (diarrhoea can be bloody))
7 days: Amoebiasis (Bloody), Giardiasis (Non-bloody diarrhoea)

107
Q

Diarrhoea and flu like symptoms

A

Campylobacter

108
Q

What amylase is raised in mumps vs pancreatitis

A

Mumps- amylase S
Pancreatitis- amylase P

109
Q

What are blood results of pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

Same as secondary hyperparathyroidism
Low Ca
High ALP
High phosphate
Caused by failure of kidney to recongise PTH

110
Q

Management of lupus nephritis

A

Mycophenolate

111
Q

Differentiating primary hyperparathyroidism and familial hypercalcaemia

A

Low urinary calcium in familial hypercalcaemia

112
Q
  1. Which of these can cause peri/neonatal illness without causing damage to the foetus if the mother is infected antenatal?
    a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
    b. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
    c. Enterovirus
    d. Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)
    e. Rubella
A

Enterovirus

113
Q

What does RANKL stand for

A

Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B Ligand

114
Q

What is the amyloid in alzheimers vs T2DM

A

Alzheimers= amyloid B
T2DM= amyelin

115
Q

What are burr cells (echinocytes) seen in

A

Renal disease

116
Q

What is in von hippel lindau syndrome

A

Haemangiomas
- brain
- kidney
- retina
- adrenals

117
Q
  1. Man with macrocytic anaemia, atrophy of body of stomach. What substance are they deficient in that leads to B12 malabsorption?
A

Intrinsic factor

118
Q
  1. Previous IVDU man is given Rituximab - CHOP treatment for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. He later 8 months later develops fulminant liver failure and dies. Why?
A

Hepatitis B

119
Q

Starts a drug then get oral ulcers

A

Stephen johnsons syndrome

120
Q

What are the neutralising antibodies in HIV

A

Anti-gp41 (IgM)
Anti-gp120 (IgG)

121
Q

What are non-neutralising antibodies in HIV

A

Anti-p24 GAG

122
Q

What are GAG and gp41

A

GAG- provides HIV structural support
gp41- provides conformational change after gp120 initial binding

123
Q

Which macrophage produces chemokines neutralise HIV

A

MIP-1a
MIP-1b
RANTES

124
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones

125
Q

What is the definition of herd immunity threshold

A

1-(1/R0)
R0= basic reproduction number

126
Q
  1. Insulinoma. What would you find?
    Low cortisol, low FFAs, low pro-insulin, low glucagon, low c-peptide
A

Low FFAs

127
Q

What level of platelets aim for to prevent bleeding in surgery

A

Over 50
Over 100 if critical location like eye or CNS

128
Q

What level of platelets give transfusion if bleeding

A

30

129
Q

Definitive host of toxoplasmosis

A

Cats

130
Q

Sore throat with exudate and elevated liver enzymes

A

EBV

131
Q

What are 4 types of viruses

A

DNA
- herpes and polyomaviridae
Reverse RNA
- Hep b anf HIV
Positive sense RNA
- coronaviridae
- picornoviridae- hep a and polio
- flaviviridae- hep c, dengue, rubella, zika
Negative sense RNA
- measles, mumps, RSV and flu

132
Q

What is nystatin

A

Polyene like amphotericin B

133
Q

What is histology of pseudosac

A

Collection of fluid in FIBRINOUS sac

134
Q

Renal mass with classic brown mahogany lesion with central scar

A

Oncocytoma

135
Q

Ovarian mass with Coffee bean nuclei

A

Brenner tumour

136
Q

What are features of leydig cell tumours in males

A

Precocious puberty
Reinke crystals
DIGGING FOR CRYSTALS

137
Q

Features of yolksac tumours

A

Secretes AFP
Schillder duval bodies

138
Q

What is first line for taking swab for chlamydia

A

If doing speculum then endocervical
If not then vulvovaginal

139
Q

If partner comes back as saying has tested positive for chlamydia what do

A

Treat and get tested simultaneosuly

140
Q

WHich macrolide use in pregnancy

A

Erythomycin

141
Q

What is main component of cryoprecipitate

A

Factor 8

142
Q

What are the 2 types of brain oedema

A

Vasogenic- breakdown in blood-brain barrier
Cytotoxic- from cellular injury

143
Q

WHich chronic hepatitis will cause fatty changes

A

C

144
Q

Which drug can cause post transplant lymphoproliferative disease

A

Ciclosporin

145
Q

Which drug reduces IgG

A

Rituximab

146
Q

MOA of remdesivir

A

Nucleoside analogue used to inhibit RNA polymerase

147
Q

What is test for latent TB

A

IGRA- interferon gamma release assay

148
Q

Diagnostic test for mycoplasma

A

Serology or cold agglutin

149
Q

How can staphylococcal toxic shock rash present

A

Desquamating in particular on hands

150
Q

Hepatitis after eating seafood

A

Hepatitis E

151
Q

Management of non typhoid salmonella and shigellosis

A

Ciprofloxacin

152
Q

Management of acute heamolytic reaction

A

Stop transfusion
IV fluids
Take bloods for coombs

153
Q

What causes white patches on tongue in immunosuppressed patient

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia caused by EBV

154
Q

Rank the following in order of highest to lowest reticulocyte count
Anaemia secondary to low dose myelosuppressive chemotherapy
Hereditary spherocytosis
ITP
Occult GI blood loss
Severe aplastic anaemia

A

Anaemia secondary to low dose myelosuppressive chemotherapy – 4
Hereditary spherocytosis – 1
ITP – 3
Occult GI blood loss – 2
Severe aplastic anaemia- 5

155
Q

62 y/o woman attends GP with tachycardia and fatigue. FBC chows macrocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia. The blood film shows neutrophils have reduced granularity and lobation, and there is no polychromasia. Rank the following in likelihood of being the diagnosis:
Aplastic anaemia
Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
B12 deficiency
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Aplastic anaemia – 2
Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura – 4
B12 deficiency – 5
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia – 3
Myelodysplastic syndrome - 1

156
Q

Rank the cancers below from most to frequent as a cause of death of men in the UK
Breast
Colon
Head and neck
Lung
Prostate

A

Breast – 5
Colon – 3
Head and neck – 4
Lung – 1
Prostate – 2

157
Q

72 y/o Afro-Caribbean woman is admitted with acute SOB. PMHx includes hypertension and T2DM. She takes Metformin, Atorvastatin, and Amlodipine. O/E BP is 148/96. Auscultation reveals a 3rd heart sound and bibasal crackles, but no murmurs.
Investigations:
Sodium 142
Potassium 3.5
Urea 12.4
Creatinine 126
Rank the following diagnoses from most to least likely:
Essential hypertension
Cushing’s syndrome
Conn’s syndrome
Phaeochromocytoma
Addison’s disease

A

Essential hypertension - 1
Cushing’s syndrome - 3
Conn’s syndrome - 2
Phaeochromocytoma - 4
Addison’s disease - 5

158
Q

Rank the following in order of efficacy at reducing LDL:
Atorvastatin
Bezafibrate
Evolocumab
Prednisolone
Simvastatin

A

Atorvastatin – 2
Bezafibrate – 4
Evolocumab – 1
Prednisolone – 5
Simvastatin – 3

159
Q

55 y/o woman develops dry mouth and eyes alongside fatigue and arthralgia of the small joints in her hands. Investigations:
Urate normal
ESR 64 (raised)
IgG 22 (raised)
Rheumatoid factor 120 (raised)
Anti-CCP antibody 0.9 (negative)
Speckled anti-nuclear antibody titre 1:640 (raised)
Rank the following diagnoses by likelihood:
Gout
Osteoarthritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Primary Sjogren’s syndrome
Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Gout – 4
Osteoarthritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca – 2
Osteogenesis imperfecta – 5
Primary Sjogren’s syndrome – 1
Rheumatoid arthritis – 3

160
Q

22 y/o woman presents with mild SLE. Rank the following test results by likelihood of appearing in this case:
Absent IgG
Low complement C3
Positive ANA
Positive C3 nephritic factor
Positive ds-DNA

A

Absent IgG – 5
Low complement C3 – 3
Positive ANA – 1
Positive C3 nephritic factor – 4
Positive ds-DNA – 2

161
Q

A 20 y/o woman presents w 2 days of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and suprapubic pain. Rank the organisms by likelihood of being causative:
Proteus mirabilis
Acinetobacter baumanii
Candida albicans
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

Proteus mirabilis – 4
Acinetobacter baumanii – 5
Candida albicans – 3
Escherichia coli – 1
Staphylococcus saprophyticus – 2

162
Q

A neonate develops meningitis at 36 hours old. Rank the organisms by likelihood of being causative:
Escherichia coli
Group B Strep
Cryptococcus neoformans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Listeria monocytogenes

A

Escherichia coli – 2
Group B Strep – 1
Cryptococcus neoformans – 5
Pseudomonas aeruginosa – 4
Listeria monocytogenes – 3

163
Q

Most common causes of late onset neonatal sepsis

A

Staphlococcus epidermis= most common
Staph aureus
Strep
Pseudomonas

164
Q

What naturally occurring antibody will be in the serum of an A negative person?

A

Anti-B IgM

165
Q

Which organism causes pneumonia with ‘red currant jelly sputum’

A

Klebsiella

166
Q

What is associated with C3 deficiency

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

167
Q

What type of emphysema is associated with smoking and chronic bronchitis?

A

Centrilobular

168
Q

What type of emphysema seen in alpha-1-antitrypsin

A

Panlobular

169
Q

What is the most common cause of hypocalcaemia in the community?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

170
Q

Deficiency of which plasma protein occurs in patients with movement disorder and liver disease?

A

Caeruloplasmin

171
Q

What disease present in both MEN 1 and MEN 2a

A

Parathyroid hyperplasia

172
Q

What fluid given in addisons

A

IV 0.9% saline

173
Q

Spelling of adrenal cortex zones

A

Glomerulosa
Fasiculata
Reticularis

174
Q

Specific organism for HUS

A

Esherichia coli O157:H7

175
Q

What do grafes of brain tumours indicate

A

Grade 1 – benign – long-term survival
Grade 2 – more than 5 yrs
Grade 3 – less than 5 yrs
Grade 4 – less than 1 yr

176
Q

MRI of pilocytic astrocytoma, meningioma and glioblastoma multiforme

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma- Well circumscribed, cystic
Glioblastoma multiforme- heterogenous, enhancing post contrast
Meningioma- extra axial

177
Q

What can be used to identify cell type in brain tumours

A

Methylome profile

178
Q

What promotes hyperkalaemia in addisons

A

Renal loss of sodium

179
Q

What happens to urobilinogen in haemolytic anaemia

A

Up

180
Q

Baseline immunosuppression during transplant

A

Steroids
Mycophenolate/azathioprine
CNI

181
Q

What toxin associated with hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Aflatoxins

182
Q

Rank from narrow to broad
Benzylpenicillin
Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone
Piperaciilin/tazobactam
Meropenem

A

Benzylpenicillin
Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone
Piperaciilin/tazobactam
Meropenem

183
Q

rank the causative organisms below in order of likelihood, with (1) being the most likely and 5 the least likely.
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
E coli
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Brucella melitensis

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
E coli
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Brucella melitensis

184
Q

How much does Hb and platelet increase by after transfusion of respective parts

A

Hb= 10g/L
Plt- 35x10^9/L

185
Q

What can IFN beta be given in

A

MS
Behcets

186
Q

What vaccines can HIV patients not receive

A

BCG
Yellow fever

187
Q

What cell is involved in attacking prosthetic implants

A

Macrophage

188
Q

What causes haemorrhagic infarctions

A

Venous occlusion

189
Q

What are mallory denk bodies

A

cytoplasmic regular eosinophilic hyaline bodies which develop from pre-keratin intermediate filaments

190
Q

What is rubor

A

Flushing and reddening in inflammatino

191
Q

Alum is-effective as an adjuvant for vaccination. Which of the following best describes its mechanism of action?

A

Promotion of B cell differentiation

192
Q

Which organisms are becoming resistant to carbapenems

A

Klebsiella

193
Q

What separates fluclox from other penicillins

A

Resists beta lactamase

194
Q

Most common causes of HAP

A

Enterobacteriae- E coli, klebsiella
Staph aureus
Pseudomonas

195
Q

Painless genital pustule → ulcer → painful inguinal lymphadenopathy → proctocolitis

A

LGV

196
Q

What type of AIHA is idiopathic

A

Intravascular

197
Q

What is the most common cancer cause of mortality in men and women

A

For both is lung

198
Q

What is seen on biopsy of hirschprung

A

Absence of ganglia in myenteric plexus

199
Q

What investigation do on peripheral blood for myeloma

A

Serum electrophoresis

200
Q

What is dose used in low vs high dose dex test

A

Low-0.5mg
High- 2mg

201
Q

How are strep infections split up

A

Alpha haemolytic = green as partially haemolyse= s.pneumoniae, s.viridans
Beta haemolytic= clear as full haemolysis- group A= pyogenes, Group B = agalactiae
Gamma haemolytic no haemolysis= enterococcus faecalis

202
Q

What is the gamma haemolytic strep

A

Enterococcus faecalis

203
Q

What is used to differentiate beta haemolytic strep

A

Bacitracin
Bacitrscin sensitive= pyogenes

204
Q

CURB 65 treatments

A

0-1= outpt with amoxicillin
2= amox and clari, consider admission
3-5= admit with co amox and clari IV

205
Q

What is used to treat resistant TB

A

Amikacin
Linezolid

206
Q

What are the 3 types of GI infection

A

Secretory= toxin produced and get no fever + watery diarrhoea
Inflammatory= fever and diarrhoea from invasion
Enteric fever= fever and unwell with few GI symptoms

207
Q

Causes of secretory vs inflammatory diarrhoea

A

Secretory- Cholera, enterotoxigenic e coli
Inflammatory- campylobacter, shigella, salmonella

208
Q

Which bacteria is associated with bloody diarrhoea in MSM

A

Shigella

209
Q

What are the types of E.coli and there associations

A

Entero toxigenic = travellers diarrhoea
Entero invasive= bloody diarrhoea
Entero pathogenic= in children P for paeds
Enterohaemorrhagic= HUS

210
Q

Which HSV causes meningitis vs encephalitis

A

Mening= HSV 2
Enceph= HSV 1

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