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Buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

Differentiating the beta haemolytic strep species

A

Optochin sensitivity
- strep pneumonia= sensitive
- strep viridans= resistant

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2
Q

Virus causing clumsiness, weakness, vision changes in “recent transplant”

A

JC

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3
Q

Illness in person who had “transfusion long time ago”

A

Hep C

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4
Q

Ischaemic tongue

A

Giant cell arteritis

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5
Q

Pneumonia in COPD patients

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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6
Q

Blanching rash, which looks like “islands of white in sea of red” in recovery phase

A

Dengue

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7
Q

Most common helminth

A

Ascaris

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8
Q

Fungal infection of lung in AIDS patients

A

Cryptococcus

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9
Q

Antifungal causing nephrotoxicity

A

Polyenes

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10
Q

Pneumonia after travelling from abroad (Mexico)

A

Mycoplasma

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11
Q

GI infection after Canned and vacuumed foods

A

Clostridium botulinum

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12
Q

GI infection after eat refrigerated food (especially sandwiches)

A

Listeria

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13
Q

GI infection after sushi (undercooked seafood)

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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14
Q

GI infection with foul-smelling diarrhoae

A

Campylobacteri

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15
Q

GI infection causing cellulitis in shellfish handlers

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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16
Q

Protozoal GI infection from swimming pools

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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17
Q

Protozoal GI infection diagnosed using string test

A

Giardia lamblia

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18
Q

Returned from Mediterranean with undulant fever

A

Brucella

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19
Q

Ulcerating papule, with necrotic centre. Gram +ve rods, responds to penicillin

A

Anthrax

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20
Q

Most common Hepatitis in IVDU

A

HB

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21
Q

UTI always associated with functional/anatomical abnormalities of the renal tract

A

Klebsiella

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22
Q

causes haemorrhagic cystitis in children

A

Adenovirus

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23
Q

Gram +ve cocci in chains, which grew on MacConkey plate and was aesculin-positive. Resistant to the conventional anti-streptococcal antibiotics.

A

Enterococcus

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24
Q

Seen in burns victims. Gram -ve bacilli that produced a green pigment

A

Pseudomonas

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25
Q

Schuffner’s Dots seen in thin blood film

A

Plasmodium vivax and ovale

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26
Q

Maurer’s Clefts seen in thin blood film

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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27
Q

Used to treat contacts of meningococcal

A

Rifampicin
Ciprofloxacin

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28
Q

What do beta lactams bind to

A

Transpeptidase

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29
Q

Cause of erysipelas

A

Group A strep

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30
Q

Malaria drug against organisms in blood

A

ACT

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31
Q

Malaria drug against organisms in liver

A

Primaquine

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32
Q

Fundoscopy: retina looks like “pizza pie”

A

CMV

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33
Q

Treatment of Hep E

A

Ribavirin

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34
Q

Diagnosis toxoplasmosis in pregnancy

A

T. gondii DNA in amniotic fluid (PCR)

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35
Q

Assay used for fungi serology

A

βD Glucan Assay

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36
Q

Milky urethral discharge in man

A

NG

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37
Q

Stain used for H. pylori

A

Giemsa

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38
Q

Viral thymidine kinase converts aciclovir to what?

A

Aciclovir monophosphate

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39
Q

STI presents as a shallow painful ulcer, sometimes progressing to a lymphadenopathy

A

Chancroid

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40
Q

Costochondral swelling

A

Rickets

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41
Q

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

A

Hypercalcaemia – get brown tumours in bone

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42
Q

Q
Jigsaw/mosaic pattern in bone

A

Paget’s Disease

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43
Q

Eruptive xanthomas

A

Primary Hypertriglyceridaemia

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44
Q

Non-Islet Cell Tumour secrete which hormone, causing hypoglycaemia

A

IGF-2 (binds to insulin receptors, acting like insulin)

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45
Q

Which drug cannot be found in hair?

A

Cannabis

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46
Q

Half-life of albumin

A

20 days

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47
Q

Colourless urine gets oxidised to purple before reaches the lab

A

Porphyria

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48
Q

Porphyria with blistering on backs of hands

A

Hereditary Coproporphyria (HCP)

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49
Q

Polysplenia and situs inversus

A

Biliary atresia

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50
Q

Frontal bossing in kids

A

Rickets

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51
Q

23 year old who has just started penicillin. Presents with confusion, weakness and seizures. Pale, bruised and breathing deeply

A

ATIN

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52
Q

45 year old female with swelling ankles and abdomen. Urine dipstick +++ protein, no blood. Microscope shows thichening of GBM

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

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53
Q

25yo male sees blood in urine. Microscope shows mesangial cell proliferation

A

Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis

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54
Q

Side effect of medication: prolonged PR interval

A

Digoxin

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55
Q

First-line test when screening for metabolic diseases

A

Amino acids (urine and plasma)

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56
Q

Cause of episodic diarrhoea in long-term diabetic

A

Autonomic neuropathy

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57
Q

Illegal drug which increases CK

A

Ecstasy as can cause rhabdomyolysis

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58
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU) inhibits this

A

Thyroid peroxidase

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59
Q

Severe hypoglycaemia (symptoms worse after exercise) with sudden weight gain

A

Insulinoma

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60
Q

Immune deposits on the outside of GBM showing “spike and dome” pattern

A

Membranous Glomerulonephritis

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61
Q

Cushingoid, but pituitary and adrenals are normal. Heavy drinker

A

Pseudo-Cushings = caused by alcoholic liver disease and psych conditions

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62
Q

Decreased faecal elastase

A

Pancreatic Insufficiency

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63
Q

This converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1

A

Renin

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64
Q

Main cause of drug-induced cholestasis

A

Co-amoxiclav

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65
Q

Rosette Cells

A

NET

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66
Q

Liver biopsy shows nodular hepatocyte with collagen cuff around it
Liver with lots of nodules

A

Cirrhosis

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67
Q

What is interface hepatits

A

Interface hepatitis = can’t see where hepatocytes end and portal tract begins = T cell destruction of hepatocytes

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68
Q

Pericellular fibrosis around hepatocytes

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

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69
Q

Chocolate brown liver

A

Haemochromatosis

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70
Q

Liver disease with increased gamma globulin

A

PSC

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71
Q

IBD: Crypt abscess

A

uc

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72
Q

Lip and mouth complications of Crohn’s

A

Cheilitis = inflammation of lips (look dry and cracked)
Stomatitis = mouth ulcers

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73
Q

Brain tumour with long history of neuro signs/seizures

A

Oligodendroma

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74
Q

Whorl pattern (spirals) on brain biopsy

A

Meningioma

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75
Q

Medulloblastoma expresses this neuronal marker

A

Synaptophysin

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76
Q

Skin disease with hyperkeratosis

A

Contact Dermatitis (epidermis thicker after scratching)

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77
Q

Skin lesion with smooth surface, non-mobile, central punctum

A

Sebaceous Cyst

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78
Q

Weird horns growing on skin

A

Bowens

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79
Q

Skin viral infection which causes target lesions

A

Pityriasis Rosea = HHV6/7 (get URTI before rash)

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80
Q

Lung disease with Curschmann’s Spiral

A

Asthma

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81
Q

Lung infection which does not have consolidation on CXR, but shows patchy changes. Terminal event which kills off old person

A

Bronchopneumonia

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82
Q

Breast lump which shows 3D cluster of cells on biopsy

A

Intraductal papilloma

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83
Q

Palpable spleen with notch, and microscopic haematuria

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

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84
Q

Positive CLO test

A

Duodenal ulcer

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85
Q

A jejunal biopsy showed periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive macrophages

A

Whipples disease

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86
Q

Constipated with abdo pain that is relieved by pooing

A

Diverticular Disease

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87
Q

Cauliflower-like mass covered by dysplastic columnar epithelium in the rectum

A

Villous adenoma

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88
Q

Old man with palpable mass in right loin, and hypercalcaemia

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma- get humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy from PTHrP release

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89
Q

Largest ovarian neoplasm

A

Mucinous Tumour

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90
Q

Painful ulceration of the vulval skin. Intraepithelial blisters, intranuclear viral inclusions and eosinophilic cytoplasmic swelling

A

HSV

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91
Q

Pap smear taken from a chronic granulomatous ulcer shows a necrotic centre, periarteritis and endarteritis obliterans and an intense peripheral cellular infiltrate consisting mainly of mononuclear cells and giant cells

A

Syphilis

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92
Q

H. Pylori affects which part of the stomach the most?

A

Antrum

93
Q

Red cell casts in urine

A

Glomerulonephritis

94
Q

Pepper pot skull

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

95
Q

Raindrop skull

A

Myleoma

96
Q

Multifocal breast lumps in young person

A

Lobular carcinoma

97
Q

Tender bump, but contains inflammatory cells and proteinaceous debris only. A few weeks after giving birth

A

Duct ectasia

98
Q

Firm breast lump – histology: long clefts with myxoid cellular stroma

A

Phyllodes tumour

99
Q

Biliary brush cytology shows cellular discohesion and a high nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

100
Q

Pins and needles in legs in osteoporosis

A

Vertebral collapse

101
Q

Vitamin deficiency causing dry skin, dry eyes

A

Vit A

102
Q

Ca 15-3 tumour marker

A

Breast

103
Q

Symmetrical, erythematous lesions – with “central clearing”, and some have overlying vesicles/bullae

A

Erythema multiforme (Type IV Hypersensitivity)

104
Q

Pancreatic cancer found in tail of pancreas

A

Neuroendocrine

105
Q

Composition of radiolucent gallstones

A

Cholesterol

106
Q

This disease predisposes to pilocytic astrocytoma

A

NF1

107
Q

This makes CSF

A

Choroid plexus

108
Q

Causes Tau -ve Pick’s Disease

A

Progranulin mutation

109
Q

What do if CTG comes back normal that was started because of concerns from intermittent auscultation

A

Stop CTG and proceed with usual care

110
Q

What do if CTG classified as suspicous

A

Assess whether there are other concerning risks like meconeum, sepsis or slow progress
- if not continue and assess hourly
- if so then consider underlying causes and conservative measures, fetal scalp stimulation or expediting delivery

111
Q

What do if CTG classified as pathological

A

1- exclude acute events like prolapse, abruption or uterine rupture
- get full set of obs
2- consider conservaive measures
3- if these unsuccessful then consider expediting

112
Q

What do with prolonged acute bradycardia

A

Expedite if over 9 minutes
Can use less time if significant other factors

113
Q

What are conservative measures for CTG management

A

Assess maternal position- encourage to mobilise
Hypotension- if mother hypotensive or signs of sepsis give fluids. If from epidural top up- lay on left lateral position and give fluids
Contraction frequency- reduce oxytocin or offer subcut tubertaline

114
Q

What causes foetal tachycardia

A

Maternal pyrexia
Chorioamnionitis
Hypoxia
Prematurity

115
Q

What causes foetal bradycardia

A

Fetal distress
Congenital HB
Beta blockers

116
Q

What causes loss of baseline variability

A

Prematurity, hypoxia

117
Q

What causes late foetal decelerations

A

Indicates fetal distress e.g. asphyxia or placental insufficiency

118
Q

What does variable decelerations suggest

A

May indicate cord compression

119
Q

Stain for reticulocytes

A

Methylene blue

120
Q

What are smear cells

A

fragile cells which open up = purple splodges

121
Q

Tear drop cell and macrocytes

A

Pernicious anaemia

122
Q

Test to differentiate IDA from Thalassaemia Trait

A

Hb Electrophoresis
- IDA: normal
- Thalassaemia: increased HbA2 in beta-thalssaemia, normal in alpha

123
Q

Megakaryocytes in neonate

A

Neonatal Leukaemia (develops in utero and remits spontaneously)

124
Q

Universal recipient

A

Group AB, RhD+ve

125
Q

Polychromatic macrocytes

A

G6PD deficiency

126
Q

Low platelets in post-surgical/septic patient

A

DIC

127
Q

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency have deficiency in what?

A

Glutathione

128
Q

What are echinocytes seen in

A

G6PD
Renal disease
Are irregularly contract RBC

129
Q

Pectus excavatum, lax joints and a high-arched palate

A

Ehlers danlos

130
Q

19 year old Jewish male presenting with multiple pathological fractures and hypersplenism

A

Gaucher’s disease

131
Q

Bone marrow red cell aplasia and a positive Paul-Bunnell test

A

B19 parvovirus infection

132
Q

Anti-leucocyte antibodies with similar specificity to the patient’s white blood cell antigens

A

TRALI

133
Q

Acanthocytes (spiculated blood cells/spur cells)

A

Hyposplenism

134
Q

Treatment of blast crisis in CML

A

Allogenic SCT

135
Q

Causes primary effusion within a lymphoma

A

HHV8

136
Q

Neonate with thumb abnormalities and macrocytic anaemia

A

Diamond-Blackfan Anaemia (affect RBC progenitors)

137
Q

VTE – how long warfarin and what INR target?

A

Warfarin for 3 months (6 if cancer)

INR 2.5-3.5

138
Q

VTE while on warfarin - how long warfarin and what INR target?

A

Warfarin lifelong
INR 3.5

139
Q

Hepatomegaly and chondrocalcinosis

A

Haemochromatosis

140
Q

Nuclei of cancer cells have cloverleaf apperance

A

Adult T-cell leukaemia

141
Q

WBCs with filamentous projections/finger-like projections of cytoplasm

A

Hairy Cell Leukaemia

142
Q

Waxing and waning lymphadenopathy but NO B symptoms

A

Follicular NHL

143
Q

Treatment of Aplastic Anaemia in
< 50yrs
> 50yrs

A

<50yrs: stem cell transplant

> 50yrs: horse anti-thymocyte globulin and ciclosporin

144
Q

Reverses warfarin in emergency

A

Prothrombin Complex Concentrate

145
Q

Mesangial Cell
Microglia

A

Kidney macrophage
Brain macrophage

146
Q

Recurrent chickenpox

A

NK Deficiency

147
Q

Which renal disease causes complement deficiency?

A

Membranous Glomerulonephritis = nephritic factors attack C3

148
Q

Do not respond to immunisations

A

Common Variable Immune Deficiency (very low IgG)

149
Q

Side effect of denosumab

A

Avascular necrosis of jaw

150
Q

BCG vaccine contains this live attenuated organism

A

Mycobacterium bovis

151
Q

Vaccine given to sero-negative women only

A

Rubella

152
Q

Steroid used to prevent rejection
Steroid used to treat rejection

A

Prednisolone
Methylprednisolone

153
Q

HLA associated with dermatitis herpetiformis

A

HLA-DR3

154
Q

Cell surface marker associated with Reed-Sternberg cells

A

CD15

155
Q

How does HIV enter CD4?

A

gp120 binds to CXCR4 on surface of CD4

CCR5 is on surface of macrophages

156
Q

Anti-CCP target what in rheumatoid?

A

Filaggrin

157
Q

Immunosuppressant used in multi-system vasculitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

158
Q

Which type of antihistamine used in allergy: H1, 2, 3 or 4?

A

H1 antagonist
(H2 = gastric mucosa)

159
Q

Initiates Classical Complement
Deficiency associated with SLE

A

C1q

160
Q

Components of MBL Pathway

A

C2 and C4 – MBL binds to microbial cell surface carbs, stimulating Classical Pathway

161
Q

Complement Pathway dependent of adaptive immune system

A

Classical (C1 binds to antibody-antigen complexes)

162
Q

Hereditary Angioedema = deficiency in what?

A

C1 inhibitor protein –> have low C4 during attacks

163
Q

Positive hydrogen breath test, increased stool osmolality

A

Lactose Intolerance

164
Q

Immunoglobulin deficiency predisposing towards encapsulated organisms

A

IgG Deficiency

165
Q

Patient involved in trauma and transfused with O negative blood –> he lost consciousness a few minutes after the transfusion

A

Splenic Haemorrhage (NOT ABO as O-ve!!)

166
Q

STI that can cross placenta in 3rd trimester

A

Syphillis

167
Q

Bloody discharge from nipple –> mammogram does not show any lesions

A

Intraductal Papilloma

168
Q

Thyroid cancer associated with Ret mutation

A

Medullary

169
Q

Lump containing epithelium cells

A

Intraductal papilloma

170
Q

Investigation for hypotonia and hypoglycaemia in young child

A

Ketones

171
Q

Immune cells which migrate to germinal centre

A

Dendritic cells

172
Q

Blood product to use if you want to avoid allergic reactions

A

Washed RBCs = most of plasma, platelets and WBCs removed

173
Q

Gram positive showing increased resistance to vancomycin and teicoplanin

A

Enterococcus

174
Q

Infection where baby can be asymptomatic initially, but then get problems

A

Beta herpesvirus (HHV6/7)
Also toxoplasmosis
Also HIV

175
Q

Organism targeted by vaccine: lockjaw

A

Clostridium tetani

176
Q

Used to prevent transplant rejection, by blocking T cell proliferation and activation

A

Anti-CD25 (part of IL-2Rα) = basiliximab

177
Q

Breast cancer which has a high, medium and low stage to it.

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

178
Q

Best antibody for Sjogren’s

A

Anti-La (La = “the” best)

179
Q

A Rhesus D negative woman is having a Haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) and is CMV IgG negative. What is the most important thing to ensure in the transplant?

A

CMV IgG negative

180
Q

Man has just been started on allopurinol and now has ulcers of mucus membranes

A

SJS

181
Q

Bowel polyps not associated with increased cancer risk

A

Hamartomatous

182
Q

Optic nerve tumour excised and now lump on hand

A

Neurofibromatosis 1 (lump = neurofibroma)

183
Q

Travel vaccine not given to someone with ank spond on anti-TNF

A

Yellow fever

184
Q

What is in RIAMET/ACT

A

Arthether+lumenfantrine

185
Q

Stain for thick and thin blood films

A

Fields and giemsa

186
Q

First line investigation for malaria

A

Rapid diagnostic test

187
Q

First line investigaton for dengue

A

PCR in first 7 days
Then do serology

188
Q

Which vaccins should HIV patient avoid

A

BCG
Yellow fever

189
Q

Maangement of severe leptospirosis

A

IV ceftriaxone

190
Q

Life cycle of taenia

A

Humans bowel
Faeces to vegetation
Muscle of cows or pig
Humans eat meat

191
Q

Definitive host of hydatid

A

Canines

192
Q

Management of all just worms in hydatid and taenia

A

Praziquantel

193
Q

Management of cysts in echinococcus and taenia

A

Echinococcus- surgery, albendazole and praziquantel
Cystericosis- steroids, albendazole and praziquantel

194
Q

Diagnosing cestodes infections

A

Serology

195
Q

Life cycle of schistosomiasis

A

Invade human skin in infected water
Enter veins
Secreted in urine and stool
Infect snails

196
Q

What organs does schistosomiasis really damage

A

Bladder
Bowel
Retrograde travel= to liver

197
Q

Management of schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel

198
Q

How investigate schisto

A

Urine and stool microscopy
Serology

199
Q

What is the only helminth capable of autoinfection

A

Strongyloides
Larvase invades skin
Grows in bowel
Larvae in stool can reinfect

200
Q

Treatment of strongyloides

A

Ivermectin

201
Q

Animal vector for filariasis

A

Balckflies and mosquitoes

202
Q

What worm causes elephantiasis

A

Filariasis

203
Q

What worm causes pill shaped larvae by skin which look like maggots

A

Myiasis
Remove by asphyxiating and surgery

204
Q

What are the flukes

A

Trematodes- schistosomiasis

205
Q

What are the roundworms

A

Nematodes
- strongyloides
- ascaris
- filariasis

206
Q

What parasite causes disease through intestinal obstruction

A

Ascaris

207
Q

What is equation for sensitivity

A

About number of positive
True positive/disease present

208
Q

What is equation for specificty

A

About number of negatives
True negative/disease absent

209
Q

What is equation for positive predictive value

A

True positive/ total positive

210
Q

What is equation for negative predictive value

A

True negative/ total negative

211
Q

PKU
- enzyme deficient
- what measure
- management

A
  • phenylalanine hydroxylase which breaks down tyrosine
  • on guthrie is blood phenylalanine, can also measure phenylacetic acid in urine or phenylpyruvate in blood
  • PKU formula containing lots of protein which arent phenylalanine
212
Q

Cystic fibrosis what measure

A

Immune reactive trypsin
If over 99.5th centile on 3 blood spots do DNA analysis

213
Q

How is phenylalanine measured

A

Mass spectrometry

214
Q

What is measured in MCADD

A

Acylcarnitine using mass spec

215
Q

Presentation of homocysteinuria

A

Lens dislocation
Mental retardation
VTE
Brittle hair

216
Q

Inheritance of urea cycle disorders

A

Autosomal recessive except ornithine transcarbamylase which X-linked

217
Q

Presentation of urea cycle disorder

A

Vomiting without diarrhoea
Resp alkalosis
Hyperammonaemia- Neurological enceph
Avoidance in diet

218
Q

Hyperammonaemia with metabolic acidosis not caused by lactate

A

Organic acidurias

219
Q

What causes cheesy or sweaty smelling urine

A

Isovalaeric acidaemia

220
Q

Organic aciduria presentation

A

Unusual odour
Truncal hypotonia with limb hypertonia
Mycoclonus

Or reye syndrome with vomiting and resp, neuro sx depression

221
Q

What is galactossaemia

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl deficinecy leads to deposition of gal-1-phosphatase in kidney and liver
Presents with conj bilirubinaemia, hypoglycaemia and hepatomegaly

222
Q

What measure in galactossaemia

A

Urine reducing agents
Red cell gal-1-put

223
Q

How does glycogen storage disorders present

A

Hepatomegaly
Nephromegaly
Neutropenia

224
Q

What are the 3 mitochondrial disorders

A

Birth Barth (cardiomyopathy, neutropenia, myopathy)
5-15 MELAS (mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acids and stroke-like episodes)
12-30 Kearns-Sayre (Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, retinopathy, deafness, ataxia)

225
Q

What are peroxisomal disorders

A

Metabolism of very long chain fatty acids and biosynthesis of complex phospholipids
Investigation is very long chain fatty acid profile

226
Q

Presentation of peroxisomal disorders

A

Severe muscular hypotonia
Seizures
Dysmorphic signs
Hepatic dysfunction- mixed hyperbilirubinaemia
Bone changes
Early blindness and sensorineural deafness

227
Q

Tay sachs/lysoosmal storage disorders

A

Intraorganelle substrate accumulation leading to organomegaly
Measure Urine mucopolysaccharides and/or oligosaccharides

228
Q

What helminth can autoinfect

A

Strongyloides

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