Path Final All Docs Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following works with “Blood pressure”?
A

Renin

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2
Q
  1. What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?
A

b. Fibroadenoma

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3
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome has all of the following EXCEPT:
A

a. Hyperalbuminemia

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4
Q
  1. What is the most common site of Urothelial Carcinoma?
A

a. Bladder

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5
Q

new
6. In what type of inheritance is “Complete penetrance” common?

A

a. Autosomal recessive

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6
Q

new
7. This is when one copy of the X chromosome is inactivated

A

Lyonization

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7
Q

new
8. What disease has Cardiac problems? (something like this)

A

a. Marfan syndrome

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8
Q

new
9. All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Neurofibromatosis EXCEPT:

A

a. Cafe au lait
b. Optic glioma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Lisch nodules
e. Whatever the correct choice was

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9
Q

new
10. In which disease do you get the accumulation of gangliosides?

A

a. Tay-Sachs disease

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10
Q

new
11. What deficiency is present in Hemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII deficiency

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11
Q

new
12. All of the following are differentials for Traumatic ulcerations EXCEPT:

A

a. Deep fungal infection
b. Syphilitic ulcer
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Whatever the correct answer was

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12
Q

new
13. Which of the following tablets may cause a Chemical burn to occur?

A

Aspirin

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13
Q
  1. (Shows a picture of Palatal petechiae) All of the following are reasons this can occur EXCEPT:
A

a. Don’t remember the answer choice, but it was fairly obvious
Trauma from sex acts, violent coughing, viral infection (infectious mononucleosis)

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14
Q

new
15. A patient just finished doing chemotherapy and has been struggling with some oral complications in the following weeks. Which of the following complications do you think the patient has?

A

Mucositis

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15
Q

new
16. Patient has been complaining about inflammatory tissue due to a faulty fitting denture. They most likely has

A

Epulis fissuratum

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16
Q

new
17. A patient had a tooth extraction done recently and has presented to your office with swelling around the extraction site. They most likely have

A

a. Myospherulosis

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17
Q

new
18. (T/F) Maternal alcohol and tobacco use can be a risk factor for Orofacial clefts. The use of phenytoin possesses a 2x risk of getting Cleft lip.

A

a. First statement is true. Second statement is false

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18
Q

new
19. This is congenital invagination of the lower lips

A

a. Paramedian lip pits

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19
Q

new
20. Your patient presents with multiple yellow-white papules. What do you think it is?

A

a. Fordyce Granules

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20
Q

new
21. This has a white appearance that disappear when mucosa stretched

A

a. Leukoedema

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21
Q

new
22. Macroglossia question (don’t remember exactly what it was)
Macroglossia is caused by __________

A

Amyloidosis

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22
Q

new
23. Lingual thyroids have a female predominance. In most cases, the ectopic gland is the only
thyroid tissue

A

a. Both statements are True

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23
Q

new
24. Fissure tongue is often associated with

A

a. Geographic tongue

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24
Q

new
25. This is often confused with the incisive foramen (idk it was something like that)

A

a. Nasopalatine duct cyst

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25
Q
  1. (Shows a picture of a lesion on the posterior lateral tongue) What is this lesion?
A

a. Lymphoepithelial cyst (at least I thought it was)

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26
Q

new
27. What group of agents is associated with “Acute myeloid leukemia”?

A

a. Benzene
In a super long table about work exposures

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27
Q

new
28. Which of the following are NOT hallmarks of cancer?

A

d. Increased apoptosis

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28
Q

new
29. Statement question about “Immunohistochemistry”

A

a. Honestly don’t remember what the question was

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29
Q
  1. Epstein Barr virus mostly affects what cells?
A

a. B lymphocytes

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30
Q
  1. Histo question on Fibroma
A
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31
Q

new
32. In oral focal mucinosis, you get the overproduction of what?

A

a. Hyaluronic acid by fibroblasts

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32
Q

new
33. You see a proliferation of Schwann cells and fibroblasts in this

A

Neurofibroma

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33
Q
A

Congenital Epulis

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34
Q
A

Granular Cell tumor

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35
Q

new
36. What is the most common tumor of infancy?

A

a. Hemangioma

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36
Q
  1. Question about Lymphangioma
A
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37
Q

new
38. What clinical presentation of Kaposi Sarcoma do you primarily see oral lesions in?

A

Epidemic

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38
Q
A

squamous papilloma

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39
Q

new
40. In Condyloma Acuminatum, HPV 6 + 11 is the most common type. It is a common sexually transmitted disease

A

Both statements true

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40
Q
  1. Presents as dark keratin patches on the skin
A

Seborrheic keratosis

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41
Q

new
Can you get a normal appearance after habit cessation?

A

It is Tobacco Pouch keratosis and you can get a normal appearance after cessation

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42
Q

new
43. Maybe a question about frictional keratosis

A

White keratotic areas, produced by trauma, teeth, ill fitting dentures

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43
Q

new
Which of the following can lead to cancer? (Maybe a picture??)

A

Leukoplakia

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44
Q

Actinic cheilitis

A
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45
Q
A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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46
Q

new
Question about Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia and its transformation rate

A

70→ 100% transformation rate

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47
Q

new
48. What type of HPV positive Oropharyngeal SCC is on the rise?

A

a. HPV (+) Oropharyngeal with Sexual behavior is on the rise

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48
Q

new
49. What does the “E” in the ABCDEs of melanoma stand for?

A

a. Evolution

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49
Q
  1. What is the order for HIV replication?
A

a. Binding, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, replication, assembly, budding

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50
Q
  1. Sulfur granules are associated with
A

a. Actinomycosis

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51
Q
  1. What is the primary cell of chronic inflammation?
A

a. Mononuclear cell

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52
Q
  1. (Shows you a picture) Patient presents with this on the tongue. No exudate is present. What could it be?
A

Nodule

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53
Q
  1. The term “Hair on end” is used to describe what?
A

a. Thalassemia

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54
Q
  1. Krunkenberg tumors are often seen in
A

a. Ovaries

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55
Q
  1. This is associated with respiratory droplets
A

a. Covid-19

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56
Q
  1. What is a tissue with an epithelial lined cavity?
A

a. Periapical cyst

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57
Q

new
66. What is the name for malignant blood vessels?

A

Angiosarcoma

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58
Q

new
67. What is the name for malignant cartilage?

A

a. Chondrosarcoma

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59
Q

new
1. Head and neck malignancy?

A

Gardner

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60
Q
  1. Yellowing of gingiva?
A

Jaundice

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61
Q
  1. Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure
A

a. Both false– malignant; increases

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62
Q
  1. COPD - consist of what two things:
A

a. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

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63
Q

new
6. Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma

A

a. Erythroleukoplakia

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64
Q

new
12. T/F Tall patient had pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas. This is type MEN Type 2A

A

a. False– MEN type 2B

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65
Q
  1. Which of following does not cause gingival hyperplasia
A

a. Perry romberg

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66
Q
  1. Which antibody is found in bodily secretions, GI, saliva, tears
A

a. IgA

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67
Q

new
18. Invasion of abnormal squamous epithelium into connective tissue in seen

A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

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68
Q
  1. Cell associated with granulomatous inflammation
A

d. Active macrophage

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69
Q

n/a
21. What is true of paramedian lip pits

A

b. Express saliva

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70
Q
  1. Healing by primary intention pulls margin together, secondary intention don’t pull margins together
A

a. Both True

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71
Q
  1. Order these terms in increasing size: Purpura, Petechiae, and Ecchymosis
A

a. Petechiae → Purpura → ecchymosis

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72
Q
  1. Low virulence will threaten …
A

b. Immunocompromised patients

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73
Q

n/a
26. If you think someone has blood under their skin, what is the technique, you use to blanch?

A

Diascopy

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74
Q

n/a
27. Munchausen syndrome is example of

A

a. Factitial injury

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75
Q

n/a
29. Tetracycline staining

A

a. Intrinsic

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76
Q
  1. True/ False radiation kills only tumor cells
A

a. False– radiation kills both tumor and normal cells

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77
Q

new
31. Least concerned with pigmented lesion

A

b. Diameter <6cm

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78
Q

n/a
32. Cleft lip is:

A

a. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

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79
Q

n/a
33. Which of the following doesn’t present with facial asymmetry?

A

a. Marie Santon disease

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80
Q

new
34. Fordyce granules are what kinds of glands?

A

a. Ectopic sebaceous glands

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81
Q

n/a
35. Port-wine nevus distribution is

A

CN V

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82
Q

new
36. Branchial cyst is histologically similar to a:

A

a. Lymphoepithelial

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83
Q

n/a
38. Cystic Hygroma involves what type of vessels?

A

Lymphatic

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84
Q

new
39. Exclusively on skin??????

A

a. Basal cell carcinoma???

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85
Q

n/a
40. Giant cell arteritis

A

Temporal artery

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86
Q
  1. Philadelphia chromosome
A

CML

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87
Q

n/a
42. Treatment of stable angina

A

a. Nitroglycerin

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88
Q

new
44. T/F Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary edema

A

True

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89
Q

new
46. Verocay bodies

A

b. Neuroma (Acoustic Neuroma aka Schwannoma)

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90
Q
  1. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis - what type of hypersensitivity rxn?
A

a. Type III (immune mediated)

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91
Q

new
49. One that asked about the cells changing but not breaking basement membrane

A

Dysplasia

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92
Q
  1. Which displays spontaneous regression?
A

Hemangioma

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93
Q
  1. Non-vital tooth, tissue lined cavity
A

a. Periapical cyst

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94
Q

na
54. Developing overgrowth of tissues native to site

A

b. Hamartoma

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95
Q
  1. Breast cancer frequently occurs
A

a. Upper outer quadrant

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96
Q

New
56. Risk of squamous cell carcinoma EXCEPT

A

c. HPV6&11

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97
Q
  1. Benign smooth muscle
A

Leiomyoma
a. NOT Rhabdomyosarcoma (this is malignant of skeletal muscle)

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98
Q
  1. Malignant tumor of lymphocytes
A

a. Lymphoma

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99
Q
  1. Benign adipose tissue
A

Lipoma

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100
Q
  1. Malignant glandular epithelium
A

Adenocarcinoma

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101
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
A

c. Left-sided heart failure

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102
Q
  1. Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract.
    Pyelonephritis is an immune complex-mediated disease.
A

d. Both statements are false → flipped

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103
Q
  1. What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself, leading to necrosis?
A

b. Intussusception

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104
Q
  1. Patients with Barret’s esophagus are at risk for developing what type of cancer?
A

a. Adenocarcinoma

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105
Q
  1. Krukenburg tumor is used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the
A

c. Ovaries

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106
Q
  1. What is the average life span of an RBC in months?
A

c. 4 months

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107
Q
  1. A “hair-on-end” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
A

c. Thalassemia

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108
Q
  1. A “step-ladder trabeculae” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
A

a. Sickle cell anemia

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109
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution of valine to
A

b. Glutamine

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110
Q
  1. Patients with Plummer-Vinson syndrome present with all of the following except?
A

c. Pernicious anemia

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111
Q
  1. Which anemia is considered autoimmune disease?
A

b. Vitamin B12 anemia (aka pernicious)

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112
Q
  1. What is the most common anemia?
A

b. Iron-deficiency anemia

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113
Q
  1. Which of the following presents with mucocutaneus lesions and bronzing?
A

a. Addison’s disease

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114
Q
  1. Patient presents with sloughy, enlarged gingiva. What type of leukemia would you suspect?
A

b. AML

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115
Q
  1. Which of the following do you expect to see during bacterial infections?
A

a. Neutrophilia

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116
Q
  1. Which of the following presents with pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas?
A

c. MEN 2B

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117
Q
  1. Which pancreatic cell releases insulin?
A

b. Beta cell

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118
Q
  1. If a child has periodic aphthous-like ulcerations and periodontitis, which of the following
    does the patient have most likely?
A

a. Cyclic neutropenia

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119
Q
  1. CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome which is a translocation between chromosomes
A

b. 9 to 22

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120
Q
  1. Which lymphoma is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome?
A

b. MALT lymphoma

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121
Q
  1. Which disease is characterized by granulomatous inflammation?
A

a. Crohn’s Disease

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122
Q
  1. Which of the following do not result from H. pylori infection?
A

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

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123
Q
  1. Hepatitis D relies on coinfection with?
A

b. Hepatitis B

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124
Q
  1. Meckel diverticulosis is the developmental defect of which organ?
A

a. Small intestine

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125
Q

What is the most common tumor of the liver?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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126
Q
  1. Which of the following radiographic findings would you find with multiple myeloma?
A

b. Punched out holes

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127
Q
  1. Negri bodies are found in which of the following
A

b. Rabies

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128
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism?
A

e. Hyperplasia

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129
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin?
A

c. Decrease glucose uptake

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130
Q
  1. The most common congenital heart defect in humans is:
A

d. Ventricular septal defect

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131
Q
  1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to happen?
A

Astrocytoma (of the brain) metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes

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132
Q

Some tumors such as renal cell carcinoma may inappropriately secrete supraphysiologic of erythropoietin. The result could be:

A

Polycythemia

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133
Q
  1. In immune thrombocytopenic purpura platelet levels would be found to be
A

c. Below normal

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134
Q
  1. What is the most common primary tumor of the brain?
A

a. Glioblastoma multiforme

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135
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential complication of cerebral edema?
A

c. Herniation of brainstem

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136
Q
  1. The most common cause of parenchymal brain hemorrhage is hypertension. The most
    common cause of a cerebral vascular accident is?
A

a. Thrombosis of a vessel involved by atherosclerosis

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137
Q
  1. A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever. The mass is
    biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis:
A

a. Wilm’s tumor

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138
Q
  1. Streptococcal glomerulonephritis is classified as a
A

c. Immune complex-mediated reaction

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139
Q
  1. Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the major microscopic features of
    Alzheimer disease. Alzheimer disease is the most common dementia of the elderly.
A

a. Both statements are true

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140
Q
  1. Left-sided heart failure may be associated with all of the following findings EXCEPT:
A

e. Lower extremity edema (not enough blood is being pumped out to body)

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141
Q
  1. Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?
A

c. Type AB

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142
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about fatty streaks?
A

b. Can eventually lead to thrombosis????

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143
Q
  1. A syphilitic aneurysm commonly occurs in the
A

b. Ascending aorta

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143
Q
  1. Rheumatic fever can cause mitral stenosis by
A

a. Inflammation reaction by antibodies reacting with cardiac antigens of Group A streptococcal bacteria

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143
Q
  1. Acute rheumatic fever that causes mitral stenosis is an example of a
A

b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction

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143
Q
  1. Intercostal notching and hypertension can be caused by?
A

c. Coarctation of the aorta

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143
Q
  1. It is recommended to get vaccinated against HPV subtypes 16 and 18 to prevent?
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

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143
Q
  1. The astrocytoma is the most common primary malignant tumor of the brain. The most common malignant tumor in the brain is metastatic tumor.
A

True, true

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144
Q
  1. Aortic stenosis can cause concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
A

True

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144
Q
  1. What is the best way to assess a patient’s blood sugar levels in a patient with Diabetes
    Mellitus?
A

b. Monitor A1c

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144
Q
  1. All of the following are types of cells found in the CNS except
A

c. Islet cells

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145
Q
  1. Which of the following isn’t associated w viral meningitis/encephalitis?
A

c. Syphilis

146
Q
  1. Define the pathogenesis of a prion disease and give an example of one
A

Abnormal forms of cellular protein cause transmissible neurodegenerative disorders.
Example – Creutschfield

147
Q

A localized reduction or cessation of blood flow to a defined portion of the brain is called

A

a. Focal Cerebral Ischemia

148
Q
  1. What causes MS (multiple sclerosis)?
A

Multiple areas of demyelination (plaques) in white matter of brain and spinal cord

149
Q
  1. Individuals with sleep apnea have a 30% increased risk of morbidity and mortality?
A

True

150
Q
  1. Concussion refers to ____ and contusion refers to ____
A

a. Clinical syndrome of altered consciousness secondary to head injury – sudden disruption of neuro fxn
b. Direct parenchymal injury of brain (bruising)

151
Q
  1. A patient exhibits a unilateral proliferation of blood vessels (vascular nevus) involving the skin of the distribution of the 3rd branch of the trigeminal verve – what type of disease is this?
A

a. Developmental disease

152
Q
  1. Circulating immune complexes filter out in small vessels and activate the complement cascade. C5a attracts neutrophils which cause local damaging inflammation… (can’t see rest)
A

a. Type III immune injury disease

153
Q
  1. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except
A

b. Bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia

154
Q
  1. Which organ has a very low tolerance to edema?
A

a. Brain and lungs

155
Q
  1. A karyogram shows a newborn has Klinefelter syndrome. What genotype would you expect to see?
A

a. 47 XXY

156
Q
  1. Pts with Peuts – Jegher syndrome often first present with
A

c. Perioral freckling

157
Q
  1. Grading of a malignancy is done by pathologists at the microscope. Staging done by clinician to determine distrubition of tumor in body
A

T/T

158
Q
  1. A dx of squamous cell carcinoma can be made clinically
A

False

159
Q
  1. Kaposi sarcoma is caused by the HIV
A

a. False (caused by HHV-8)

160
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions isn’t a well established risk factor for breast cancer
A

b. Having a child

161
Q
  1. What percentage of men develop prostate cancer by the age of 80?
A

a. 70%

162
Q
  1. The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as
A

pyostomatitis vegetans

163
Q
  1. What terminology used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the bilateral ovaries?
A

Krukenberg tumor

164
Q
  1. What is average life span of a RBC in days?
A

120 days

165
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution bw which 2 amino acids?
A

Valine to Glutamine

166
Q
  1. Pts with plummer vinson syndrome present with which type of anemia?
A

Iron deficiency

167
Q
  1. Which anemia considered autoimmune disease
A

a. Hemolytic anemia

168
Q
  1. In viral infection, which type of WBC is elevated?
A

a. Leukocyte (lymphocytes)????

169
Q
  1. What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of neutrophils
A

a. Neutropenia

170
Q
  1. When presenting with oral manifestation, which leukemia has a predilection for the gingiva
A

a. Acute myelogenous leukemia

171
Q
  1. Which high grade lymphoma has a predilection for the jawbone of children and is associated with herpes IV?
A

a. Burkett’s lymphoma

172
Q
  1. A malignancy of plasma cells is referred to as
A

multiple myeloma

173
Q
  1. Name one medication that impairs ability of platelets to aggregate
A

a. Aspirin

174
Q
  1. Right lung has 2 lobes?
A

False

175
Q
  1. An aspirated crown more likely to be lodged in right side?
A

True

176
Q
  1. What type of necrosis seen in TB?
A

Caseous necrosis

177
Q
  1. Name three types of atelectasis?
A

a. Resorption, compression, contraction

178
Q
  1. Which type of emphysema predominates in non-smokers?
A

a. Panacinar emphysema

179
Q
  1. Name 3 diff types of lung cancers
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Small cell carcinoma

180
Q
  1. Name 3 diff hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland (FLAT PG)
A

a. GH
b. Prolactin
c. ACTH

181
Q
  1. Excess secretion of GH after epiphyseal plates have closed results in which abnormality?
A

a. Acromegaly

182
Q
  1. Which specific portion of adrenal gland secretes cortisol?
A

a. adrenal cortex → zona fasciculata

183
Q
  1. What is the oral manifestation of MEN 2B
A

a. Mucosal neuromas

184
Q
  1. Glucagon is secreted by which type of pancreatic cell?
A

a. Alpha cells

185
Q
  1. Hep A considered STD?
A

True → FALSE???? Transmitted fecal oral route

186
Q
  1. 25 yo man presents to oral surgery for extraction of #15 with divergent and dilacerated roots. When pt returned… cluster of painful small ulcerations that began as vesicles were noted on hard palate. On palpation, this lesion was not indurated and didn’t have a rolled border…. Or symptoms. Which of following is most appropriate dx?
A

a. Recurrent herpetic infection

187
Q
  1. What’s the name of oral lesion in secondary syphilis?
A

a. Mucous patch

188
Q
  1. Increase in overall size of tissue due to increase in size of cells
A

hypertrophy

189
Q
  1. Name 2 periapical pathosis that can present as a periapical radiolucency associated with a non vital tooth
A

a. Periapical cyst and periapical granuloma

190
Q
  1. Vomiting of fresh red blood is called…
A

Hematemesis

191
Q
  1. Which type of colonic polyp has greatest incidence of undergoing malignant?
A

Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (FAP)

192
Q
  1. What terminology is used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the bilateral ovaries?
A

Krunkenberg

193
Q
  1. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with what HHV?
A

a. HHV-4

194
Q
  1. What is associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
A

a. Panacinar emphysema

195
Q
  1. What is associated with Regeneration of the Liver?
A

a. Hyperplasia

196
Q
  1. Peripheral edema is associated with
A

a. Right-side heart

197
Q
  1. All of the following are modifiable components of Atherosclerosis EXCEPT:
A

a. Family history

198
Q
  1. Major clinical factor of Atherosclerosis
A

a. Hypertension

199
Q
  1. What is a common tumor of the lungs?
A

a. Metastatic

200
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?
A

a. Resorption

201
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within the pleural cavity?
A

a. Compression

202
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by local or generalized fibrotic changes?
A

a. Contraction

203
Q
  1. A patient has type 1 diabetes to which they have to regularly take insulin shots. What type of disease would this be classified as?
A

a. Metabolic disease

204
Q
  1. Hyperplastic candidiasis is best described as
A

d. White plaque that cannot be wiped off

205
Q
  1. Which of the following Hepatitis are transmitted “Enterically”?
A

a. Hep A → (Hep E is also correct, but was not option on our exam)

206
Q
  1. Which of the following are associated with Rheumatic heart disease?
A

a. Aschoff body

207
Q
  1. What is the initial step to cause thrombosis to occur?
A

a. Injury to endothelial cells

208
Q
  1. H. Pylori are found in all of the following except:
A

a. Chronic gastritis
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. MALT lymphoma
→ asked (2x)
i. All of these answers were correct, I think she might have miss entered the
question

209
Q
  1. These is presented with ulcerations on the tongue, bone loss, and chronic gingivitis
A

a. Cyclic neutropenia

210
Q
  1. Which of the following is not part of the portal triad?
A

a. Arteriole
- Answers are portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct

211
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hepatocyte?
A

a. Lipid metabolism
b. Produces bile
c. Protein synthesis
d. Whatever the correct answer was

212
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of cholesterol stones?
A

c. Insulin accumulation → it is insulin resistance

213
Q
  1. All of the following are associated with hyperpituitarism except:
A

a. Sheehan syndrome

214
Q
  1. What do capillaries do?
A

a. Exchange of gas and material between blood and tissues

215
Q
  1. What is Stage 1 hypertension?
A

a. 130/80 mmHg

216
Q
  1. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, risk of developing:
A

a. Non- Hodgkin lymphoma

217
Q
  1. Most pain receptors?
A

a. Pleural lining

218
Q
  1. 55 yr old with swollen gingiva and bruising?
A

AML

219
Q
  1. Surfactant is secreted by
A

a. Type II pneumocytes
b. Type I pneumocytes

220
Q
  1. Histologically similar to parotid
A

a. Acinic cell carcinoma

221
Q
  1. Histologically looks like swiss cheese
A

a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma (poor long-term prognosis)

222
Q
  1. Histologically a mixture of ductal and myoepithelial elements
A

a. Pleomorphic adenoma

223
Q
  1. Most common malignant salivary gland tumor
A

a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

224
Q
  1. Salivary gland tumor that favors the hard palate
A

a. Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma

225
Q
  1. most common benign salivary gland tumor
A

a. Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed benign tumor)

226
Q
  1. Upper lip tumor
A

Monomorphic adenoma

227
Q
  1. Carcinoid tumors secrete what hormone
A

a. Serotonin

228
Q
  1. Peri-oral freckling occurs in what syndrome
A

a. Peutz-Jegher

229
Q
  1. Peutz Jegher type of polyps
A

a. Hamartomatous polyps

230
Q
  1. Most likely to be in the parotid gland
A

a. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

231
Q
  1. Which is autoimmune
A

a. Pernicious anemia

232
Q
  1. Hair on end radiographic appearance
A

a. Thalassemia

233
Q
  1. Most common leukemia in children
A

ALL

234
Q
  1. Universal donor blood type
A

a. O

235
Q
  1. Chipmunk face for thalassemia due to what
A

a. Compensatory hyperplasia of bone marrow

236
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about congestive heart failure?
A

a. Right sided is caused by left sided

237
Q
  1. Chronic congestive liver disease is caused by
A

a. Right sided heart failure

238
Q
  1. Which of the following does not result from myocardial infarction?
A

a. Angina

239
Q
  1. Complete loss of blood supply to the organ
A

a. Infarct

240
Q
  1. Major contributor of osmotic colloid pressure
A

a. Albumin

241
Q
  1. Sarcomas travel by hematogenous route and end in the lungs. Carcinomas travel via lymphatics and end up in the lymph nodes
A

a. Both true

242
Q
  1. Loss of sympathetic innervation (aka Horner’s) causes all of the following except:
A

a. Exophthalmia

243
Q
  1. Which is the most likely to metastasize
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

244
Q

A young man gets rushed to the emergency room after a severe car crash that causes him to get 2nd and 3rd degree burns. What shock best describes what he would experience?

A

a. Hypovolemic shock

245
Q
  1. Increased edema is due to which of the following?
A

a. Increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased colloid osmotic pressure

246
Q

21.Which compartment holds the most fluid

A

a. Intracellular

247
Q

35.If you have right heart failure

A

a. Pitting edema

248
Q
  1. Inflammation edema are?
A

a. Protein rich

249
Q
  1. Lymphatic filtration occurs in which compartment
A

b. Interstitial

250
Q

3 parts of Virchows Triad:

A

Hyper-coagulability
Abnormal blood flow
Endothelial injury

251
Q

􏰉0. Virchows triad does not include:

A

d. Epithelium

252
Q

Which tissue is edema the least tolerated

A

a. Brain

253
Q
  1. High levels of erythropoietin
A

a. Polycythemia

254
Q
  1. Renal failure leads anemia why?
A

a. Kidney failure to produce erythropoietin

255
Q
  1. Cyclical hyperplasia with incomplete involution of breast tissue may result in “lumpy/bumpy” breast. This has been referred to as:
A

a. fibrocystic disease

256
Q
  1. What disease is a malignant neoplasm of the pleura associated with environmental asbestos exposure?
A

Mesothelioma

257
Q
  1. What two diseases can a “hair on end” radiographic appearance be seen?
A

Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia

258
Q
  1. What is an elevated WBC count that is a physiologic response to stress or viral infection?
A

Leukemoid rxn

259
Q

CLL is characterized by

A

a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

260
Q
  1. What are the oral findings in multiple myeloma?
A

a. Macroglossia caused by amyloidosis

261
Q
  1. What medication can cause irreversible functional platelet defects?
A

a. Aspirin

262
Q
  1. What is hematemesis?
A

a. Vomiting of fresh, red blood

263
Q
  1. What syndrome is characterized by mucosal atrophy, esophageal webs and dysphagia?
A

a. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

264
Q
  1. Common cause of stroke (ask on discussion board)
A

a. Thrombus from atherosclerosis ???

265
Q
  1. An escape of blood is called
A

Hemorrhage

266
Q
  1. A patient exhibits a unilateral lesion composed of blood vessels (birthmark) that was present at birth. What type of disease is this?
A

a. Developmental disease

267
Q
  1. What happens to the thymus as you get older?
A

a. Thymus involutes into a fatty mass

268
Q
  1. Positive reaction to PPD (mantoux test), this is an example of
A

a. Type IV immune injury disease

269
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best term for a radiolucency associated with a non-vital tooth
A

a. Periapical granuloma → this was the only choice that worked on our exam

270
Q
  1. Which of the following is a dental manifestation in Congenital syphilis?
A

a. Hutchinson’s incisors

271
Q
  1. Identification:
A

Plasma cell

272
Q
  1. What viral induced disease can present with enlargement of the salivary glands?
A

Mumps

273
Q
  1. Gumma is seen in what?
A

a. Tertiary syphilis

274
Q
  1. All of the following is associated with actinomycosis, EXCEPT:
A

a. Fungal infection

275
Q
A

Plaque

276
Q
A

Ulcer

277
Q
A

a. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

278
Q
  1. What vitamin is best for wound healing?
A

Vitamin C

279
Q
  1. This is the end result of irreversible injury to a cell
A

a. Necrosis

280
Q

The underlying cause of Rheumatoid arthritis is inflammation. Immunity is the reaction to an allergy

A

a. First statement is true, second statement is false

NO it is reaction to antigen/pathogen/living organism (infection)

281
Q
  1. This is acute inflammation without consolidation that travels through the tissues
A

a. Cellulitis

282
Q
  1. IgM switching includes all of the following except:
A

a. (don’t remember what the answer was)
Class switching: T cells stimulate B cells to switch their Ig
Originally express IgM and IgD
Switches the heavy chain

283
Q
  1. Mast cells produce what?
A

a. Histamine

284
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of candidiasis?
A

d. Migratory rhomboid glossitis

285
Q
A

Vesicle

286
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT located in the cavernous sinus?
A

c. External carotid

287
Q
  1. This is a severe complication of cavernous sinus thrombosis
A

a. Severe retrograde infection

288
Q
A

Nodule

289
Q
A

MAcule

290
Q
  1. Radiograph picture asking what best describes it (TERRIBLE PICTURE)
A

Radiolucency

291
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the surface texture? (SHOWS PICTURE)
A

Papillary

292
Q
  1. Clinical question about epithelial hyperplasia example
A

a. Papilloma

293
Q
  1. Which of the following is associated with granulomatous inflammation?
A

a. Acid-fast bacilli

294
Q
  1. Allergy mediated reactions are associated with which of the following?
A

b. Th2 → Eosinophil

295
Q
  1. When a thrombus becomes dislodged from a vessel and travels to another site in the vasculature, this is called:
A

d. Embolization

296
Q
  1. Pure hypertrophy occurs in
A

a. Skeletal muscle after working out

297
Q
  1. The change of one mature cell type to another
A

a. Metaplasia

298
Q
  1. Pyknosis is associated with
A

a. Shrinking of the nucleus

299
Q
  1. Karyorrhexis is associated with
A

b. Fragmentation

300
Q

10.Caseous necrosis is seen in

A

a. Tuberculosis infection

301
Q

14.Which of the following diseases results in failure to kill

A

d. MPO deficiency

302
Q

18 .Which cell type will produce most scarring

A

b. Neurons (also cardiac myocytes)

303
Q
  1. What cells release histamine?
A

c. Mast cells

304
Q
  1. T lymphocytes come from the _______ and then travel to the lymph node.
A

b. Thymus

305
Q

26.Which of the following can cause transformations?

A

a. HHV-4 epstein barr

306
Q

30.Which of the following is not present as a radiolucency

A

d. Parulis

307
Q

39.Which of these is not an immunosuppressed disease?

A

a. Sjorens (autoimmune)

308
Q
  1. What is an example of fibrosis hyperplasia?
A

a. Fibroma

309
Q
  1. Infection of the blood
A

c. Septicemia

310
Q
  1. The primary cell of acute inflammation
A

a. Neutrophils

311
Q
A

Plasma cell

312
Q
  1. What infectious disease is shown in this photo?
A

a. recurrent intra-oral herpes → hard tissue

313
Q
  1. Myasthenia Gravis?
A

a. antibody inhibition

314
Q
  1. A Lesion Cannot Be Considered Invisible And Molecular
A

False

315
Q
  1. Diseases Are Named By All Of The Following Except:
A

e. They are named in a way to make classification standard

316
Q
  1. The cause of a disease process is
A

a. Etiology

317
Q
  1. The Mechanism Of Disease Development
A

b. Pathogenesis

318
Q
  1. A Child Has To Be Given Intravenous Insulin Injections
A

d. Metabolic

319
Q
  1. A Women Gets Biopsy For And Positive For Breast Cancer
A

c. Neoplastic

320
Q
  1. Person did not get mmr vaccine and end up getting ruebella infection
A

b. Infectious

321
Q
  1. Person has an allergic reaction to earrings
A

e. Immune-mediated

322
Q
  1. Child is born with a birthmark
A

a. Developmental

323
Q
  1. Pathological Atrophy Includes All The Following Except
A

d. Trophic Hormones

324
Q
  1. Fat Necrosis Is Seen In
A

a. Acute Pancreatitis

325
Q
  1. Which Antibody Crosses The Placental Barrier
A

IgG

326
Q
  1. Which antibody is the first responder
A

a. IgM

327
Q
  1. Which antibody is main second responder
A

IgG

328
Q
  1. Which Antibody Plays Large Role In Hypersensitivity
A

a. IgE

329
Q
  1. Which Antibody Is Found In Bodily Secretions,GI,saliva,tears
A

IgA

330
Q
  1. Which Compliment Causes Opsonization
A

C3B

331
Q
  1. Complement Activates Antibodies: T/F
A

False

332
Q
  1. Which of the following is not outcome of acute inflammation
A

a. Acute Inflammation Go On Indefinitely

333
Q
  1. Which complement molecule helps with leukocyte chemotaxis and inflammation
A

C5a

334
Q
  1. Components Of Cyst
A

a. Epithelial Lining,wall, and lumen

335
Q
  1. Granulomatous Tissue
A

a. Epithelioid Histiocytes, multinucleated giant cells, lymphocytes
Involves Macrophages

336
Q
  1. Cd4+t helper cells interact with mhc2 and cd8+cytotoxic interact with mhc 1
A

True

337
Q
  1. Which of the following would limit cellular immunity the most
A

a. Lacking Dendritic Cells

338
Q
  1. Binding of IgE to mast cells resulting in degranulation of histamine - what type of hypersensitivity
A

a. Type 1 Hypersensitivity

339
Q
  1. Type 1 Hypersensitivity - what Ab and what cell?
A

a. IgE and mast cells (releases histamine)

340
Q
  1. Type 2 Hypersensitivity
A

a. Antibody Binding To Cells (rbc,platlets)
b. AChreceptor
c. Basement membrane (desmoglein of desmosomes and laminin of
basement membrane)

341
Q
  1. Type 2 Hypersensitivity
A

a. Thrombocytopenic Purpura

342
Q
  1. Type 4 Hypersensitivity
A

a. PPD tuberculosis skin test, contact dermatitis

343
Q
  1. Xerostomia and Xerophthalmia associated with:
A

a. Sjogren Syndrome

344
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease
A

a. Granulomatous Disease Of Childhood

345
Q

Antibody-coated erythrocytes go to spleen to be cleared. Which type of reaction is this?

A

a. Type II Hypersensitivity

346
Q
  1. All Of These Are Important In Cell Mediated Immunity Except
A

b. Extracellular Bacteria→ HUMORAL immunity

347
Q

AIDS has taught us that cell-mediated immunity (antibody independent or acquired specific immunity) is our first line of defense against all except:

A

d. Extracellular pathogens (eg. Staphylococci)

348
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

b. Scarring

349
Q

􏰇. An asymptomatic patient has a positive PPD test. What does this mean?

A

d. None of the above

350
Q

􏰄. What is the longest-lived and most plentiful antibody?

A

d. IgG

351
Q

􏰃. What antibody is a secretory antibody found in tears, saliva, etc?

A

a. IgA

352
Q

􏰉. What antibody is first formed following exposure to antigen?

A

e. IgM

353
Q
  1. Which antibody can cross the placenta?
A

d. IgG

354
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of secondary syphilis?
A

b. Chancre → primary

355
Q

1􏰅. Patient presents with a purulent exudate draining from a sinus tract overlying the mandible. Yellow granules are observed upon close examination of the purulent material, suggesting the following:

A

b. Actinomycotic infection

356
Q

1􏰈. Which of the following is related to infectious mononucleosis?

A

d. HHV4

357
Q

􏰂1. A lesion cannot be considered molecular if it is a genetic mutation (something like that)

A

False

358
Q

􏰂􏰄. What happens to the liver after surgical removal of a small portion?

A

a. Hyperplasia

359
Q

Blood transfusion reaction is an example of what hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type II

360
Q

Thrombus on the valves of the heart are called

A

d. Vegetations

361
Q

􏰅􏰃. Which presents as a unilateral dermatomal infection of face and oral mucosa

A

b. Herpes zoster (shingles)

362
Q

􏰅􏰉. Which presents with koplik spots

A

a. Rubeola → measles

363
Q

􏰆0. Gumma is presented in

A

d. Syphilis → tertiary

364
Q

􏰆1. Kid presents with mandibular molar with hyperplasia toward the coronal end of the tooth

A

b. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis

365
Q

􏰆􏰅. The end of the sinus tract is

A

Parulis

366
Q

􏰆􏰆. Which of the following is a complication of Ludwig Angina?

A

Aggressive, spreading cellulitis to multiple spaces - submental, sublingual, and submandibular
Neck swelling = airway obstruction and life threatening

367
Q

Which of the following can have palatal petechiae?

A

b. Infectious mononucleosis

368
Q

􏰇􏰅. Unwanted blood clot is called a

A

􏰇􏰅. Unwanted blood clot is called a

369
Q

􏰇􏰈. Which of the following do we NOT look for in ideal biopsies?

A

d. Less than 1 cm

370
Q

􏰇􏰄. Which medication was first linked to BRONJ?

A

a. Pretty sure it was bisphosphonates

371
Q

􏰈0. What causes osteoradionecrosis?

A

a. Radiation

372
Q

􏰈1. Radiation has no long term effects on oral health (something like that)

A

b. False