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D2 Fall - Pathology Exam 3 > Path Exam 3 > Flashcards

Path Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following works with “Blood pressure”?
A

a. Renin

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2
Q
  1. What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?
A

b. Fibroadenoma

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3
Q
  1. A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever . The mass is biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis is
A

a. Wilms Disease

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4
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome has all of the following EXCEPT:
A

a. Hyperalbuminemia

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5
Q
  1. What is the most common site of Urothelial Carcinoma?
A

a. Bladder

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6
Q
  1. In what type of inheritance is “Complete penetrance” common?
A

a. Autosomal recessive

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7
Q
  1. This is when one copy of the X chromosome is inactivated
A

a. Lyonization

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8
Q
  1. What disease has Cardiac problems? (something like this)
A

a. Marfan syndrome

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9
Q
  1. All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Neurofibromatosis EXCEPT:
A

a. Cafe au lait
b. Optic glioma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Lisch nodules
e. Whatever the correct choice was

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10
Q
  1. In which disease do you get the accumulation of gangliosides?
A

a. Tay-Sachs disease

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11
Q
  1. What deficiency is present in Hemophilia A?
A

a. Factor VIII deficiency

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12
Q
  1. All of the following are differentials for Traumatic ulcerations EXCEPT:
A

a. Deep fungal infection
b. Syphilitic ulcer
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Whatever the correct answer was

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following tablets may cause a Chemical burn to occur?
A

a. Aspirin

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14
Q
  1. (Shows a picture of Palatal petechiae) All of the following are reasons this can occur EXCEPT:
A

a. Don’t remember the answer choice, but it was fairly obvious

Trauma from sex acts, violent coughing, viral infection (infectious mononucleosis)

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15
Q

A patient just finished doing chemotherapy and has been struggling with some oral
complications in the following weeks. Which of the following complications do you think the patient has?

A

a. Mucositis

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16
Q
  1. Patient has been complaining about inflammatory tissue due to a faulty fitting denture. They
    most likely has
A

a. Epulis fissuratum

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17
Q
  1. A patient had a tooth extraction done recently and has presented to your office with swelling
    around the extraction site. They most likely have
A

a. Myospherulosis

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18
Q
  1. (T/F) Maternal alcohol and tobacco use can be a risk factor for Orofacial clefts. The use of phenytoin possesses a 2x risk of getting Cleft lip
A

a. First statement is true. Second statement is false

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19
Q
  1. This is congenital invagination of the lower lips
A

a. Paramedian lip pits

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20
Q
  1. Your patient presents with multiple yellow-white papules. What do you think it is?
A

a. Fordyce Granules

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21
Q
  1. This has a white appearance that disappear when mucosa stretched
A

a. Leukoedema

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22
Q
  1. Macroglossia question (don’t remember exactly what it was)
    Macroglossia is caused by:
A

Amyloidosis

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23
Q
  1. Lingual thyroids have a female predominance. In most cases, the ectopic gland is the only thyroid tissue
A

a. Both statements are True

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24
Q
  1. Fissure tongue is often associated with
A

a. Geographic tongue

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25
Q
  1. This is often confused with the incisive foramen (idk it was something like that)
A

a. Nasopalatine duct cyst

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26
Q
  1. (Shows a picture of a lesion on the posterior lateral tongue) What is this lesion?
A

a. Lymphoepithelial cyst (at least I thought it was)

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27
Q
  1. What group of agents is associated with “Acute myeloid leukemia”?
A

a. Benzene

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following are NOT hallmarks of cancer?
A

d. Increased apoptosis

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29
Q
  1. Statement question about “Immunohistochemistry”
A

i. (just know this slide)

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30
Q
  1. Epstein Barr virus mostly affects what cells?
A

a. B lymphocytes

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31
Q
  1. Histo question on Fibroma
A
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32
Q
  1. In oral focal mucinosis, you get the overproduction of what?
A

a. Hyaluronic acid by fibroblasts

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33
Q
  1. You see a proliferation of Schwann cells and fibroblasts in this
A

a. Neurofibroma

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34
Q
  1. Picture of
A

Congenital Epulis

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35
Q
A

Granular Cell tumor (tumor on the tongue)

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36
Q
  1. What is the most common tumor of infancy?
A

a. Hemangioma

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37
Q
  1. Question about Lymphangioma
A

Benign growth of lymphatic vessels

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38
Q
  1. What clinical presentation of Kaposi Sarcoma do you primarily see oral lesions in?
A

a. Epidemic

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39
Q
  1. Picture of
A

squamous papilloma

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40
Q
  1. In Condyloma Acuminatum, HPV 6 + 11 is the most common type. It is a common sexually
    transmitted disease
A

a. Both statements are true

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41
Q
  1. Presents as dark keratin patches on the skin
A

a. I think it was Seborrheic keratosis

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42
Q
  1. (Picture asking was it was) Can you get a normal appearance after habit cessation?
A

a. It is Tobacco Pouch keratosis and you can get a normal appearance after cessation

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43
Q
  1. Maybe a question about frictional keratosis
A

White keratotic areas, produced by trauma, teeth, ill fitting denture

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following can lead to cancer? (Maybe a picture??)
A

a. Leukoplakia

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45
Q
  1. Picture of
A

Actinic Cheilitis

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46
Q
  1. Picture of
A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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47
Q
  1. Question about Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia and its transformation rate
A

70→ 100% transformation rate

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48
Q
  1. What type of HPV positive Oropharyngeal SCC is on the rise?
A

a. HPV (+) Oropharyngeal with Sexual behavior is on the rise

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49
Q
  1. What does the “E” in the ABCDEs of melanoma stand for?
A

a. Evolution

A. Asymmetry
B. Borders
C. Color
D. Diameter
E. Evolution

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50
Q
  1. What is the order for HIV replication?
A

a. Binding, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, replication, assembly, budding

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51
Q
  1. Replacement of one mature cell type for another mature cell type is known as
A

a. Metaplasia

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52
Q
  1. Sulfur granules are associated with
A

a. Actinomycosis

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53
Q
  1. What is the primary cell of chronic inflammation?
A

a. Mononuclear cell

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54
Q
  1. Which cell type will produce the most scarring?
A

a. Neurons

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55
Q
  1. Hyperplastic candidiasis is best described as
A

a. White plaque that cannot be wiped off

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56
Q
  1. (Shows you a picture) Patient presents with this on the tongue. No exudate is present. What could it be?
A

Nodule

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57
Q
  1. The term “Hair on end” is used to describe what?
A

a. Thalassemia

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58
Q
  1. What best describes “Multiple myeloma”?
A

a. Punched out holes (radiolucency)

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59
Q
  1. Krunkenberg tumors are often seen in
A

a. Ovaries

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following hepatitis are transmitted “Enterically”?
A

a. Hep A

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61
Q
  1. Which of the following is associated with Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism?
A

a. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

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62
Q
  1. What is associated with mucocutaneous lesions and bronzing?
A

a. Addison’s disease

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63
Q
  1. Thrombocytopenic purpura platelet count would be
A

a. Below normal

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64
Q
  1. This is associated with respiratory droplets
A

a. Covid-19

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65
Q
  1. What is a tissue with an epithelial lined cavity?
A

a. Periapical cyst

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66
Q
  1. What is the name for malignant blood vessels?
A

a. Angiosarcoma

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67
Q
  1. What is the name for malignant cartilage?
A

a. Chondrosarcoma

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68
Q
  1. Head and neck malignancy?
A

Gardner

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69
Q
  1. Yellowing of gingiva?
A

Jaundice

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70
Q
  1. Salivary gland tumor on hard palate?
A

Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma - PLGA

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71
Q
  1. Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure
A

Both false – malignant; increases

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72
Q

COPD

A

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

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73
Q
  1. Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma
A

a. Erythroleukoplakia

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74
Q
  1. Peutz-Jegher occurs in what
A

a. Peri-oral freckling

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75
Q
  1. most common salivary gland tumor
A

a. Pleomorphic adenoma

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76
Q
  1. Granulomatous inflammation
A

a. Chron’s disease

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77
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma on radiographic
A

a. Punched out

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78
Q
  1. Sickle cell is valine for what
A

a. Glutamine

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79
Q
  1. T/F Tall patient had pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas. This is type MEN Type
    2A
A

False - MEN type 2B

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80
Q
  1. Hyperplastic candidiasis?
A

a. Can not be wiped off

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81
Q
  1. Which of following does not cause gingival hyperplasia
A

a. Perry romberg

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82
Q
  1. The change of one mature cell type to another
A

a. Metaplasia

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83
Q
  1. Kidney regulate blood pressure
A

Renin

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84
Q
  1. Which antibody is found in bodily secretions, GI, saliva, tears
A

IgA

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85
Q
  1. Invasion of abnormal squamous epithelium into connective tissue in seen
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

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86
Q
  1. Chipmunk face for thalassemia due to what
A

a. Compensatory hyperplasia of bone marrow

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87
Q
  1. Cell granulomatous inflammation
A

d. Active macrophage

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88
Q
  1. What is true of paramedian lip pits
A

b. Express saliva

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89
Q
  1. Healing by primary intention pulls margin together, secondary intention don’t pull
    margins together
A

a. Both True

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90
Q
  1. Order these terms in increasing size: Purpura, Petechiae, and Ecchymosis
A

a. Petechiae → Purpura → ecchymosis

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91
Q
  1. Kid presents with mandibular molar with hyperplasia toward the coronal end of the
    tooth
A

a. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis

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92
Q
  1. Low virulence will
A

b. Immunocompromised patients

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93
Q
  1. If you think someone has blood under their skin, what is the technique, you use to
    blanch?
A

a. Diascopy

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94
Q
  1. Munchausen syndrome is example of
A

a. Factitial injury

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95
Q
  1. often associated with ill-fitting denture
A

a. Epulis fissuratum

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96
Q
  1. Tetracycline staining
A

a. Intrinsic

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97
Q
  1. True/ False radiation kills only tumor cells
A

a. False– radiation kills both tumor and normal cells

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98
Q
  1. Least concerned with pigmented lesion
A

b. Diameter <6cm

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99
Q
  1. Cleft lip is:
A

a. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

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100
Q
  1. Which of the following doesn’t present with facial asymmetry?
A

a. Marie Santon disease

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101
Q
  1. Fordyce granules are what kinds of glands?
A

a. Ectopic sebaceous glands

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102
Q
  1. Port-wine nevus distribution is
A

CN V

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103
Q
  1. Branchial cyst is histologically similar to a:
A

a. lymphoepithelial

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104
Q
  1. Acromegaly
A

a. After the closure of epiphyseal plates

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105
Q
  1. Cystic Hygroma involves what type of vessels?
A

a. Lymphatic

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106
Q
  1. Exclusively on skin
A

a. Basal cell carcinoma

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107
Q
  1. Giant cell arteritis
A

a. Temporal artery

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108
Q
  1. Philadelphia chromosome
A

a. CML

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109
Q
  1. Treatment of stable angina
A

a. Nitroglycerin

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110
Q
  1. Most common congenital heart malformation
A

a. Ventricular septal defect

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111
Q
  1. T/F Left-sided heart failure is pulmonary edema
A

True

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112
Q
  1. Measure diabetes
A

a. Hemoglobin A1C

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113
Q
  1. Verocay bodies
A

a. Neurilemmoma

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114
Q
  1. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
A

a. Type III (immune mediated)

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115
Q
  1. Most common benign neoplasm of breast
A

a. Fibroadenoma

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116
Q
  1. One that asked about the cells changing but not breaking basement membrane
A

a. Dysplasia

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117
Q
  1. Syphilitic aneurysm
A

a. Ascending aorta

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118
Q
  1. Which displays spontaneous regression?
A

a. Hemangioma

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119
Q
  1. Non-vital tooth, tissue lined cavity
A

a. Periapical cyst

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120
Q
  1. Rheumatic fever
A

a. Cardiac antigen react with antibodies, complication of group A Streptococcal

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121
Q
  1. Developing overgrowth of tissues native to site
A

b. Hamartoma

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122
Q
  1. Breast cancer frequently occurs
A

a. Upper outer quadrant

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123
Q
  1. Risk of squamous cell carcinoma EXCEPT
A

c. HPV 6 & 11

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124
Q
  1. Plasma cell
A

a. Multiple myeloma

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125
Q
  1. Benign smooth muscle
A

a. Rhabdomyosarcoma

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126
Q
  1. Malignant tumor of lymphocytes
A

a. Lymphoma

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127
Q
  1. Malignant cartilage
A

a. Chondrosarcoma

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128
Q
  1. Malignant Blood vessels
A

Angiosarcoma

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129
Q
  1. Benign adipose tissue
A

a. Lipoma

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130
Q
  1. Malignant glandular epithelium
A

a. Adenocarcinoma

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131
Q
  1. High risk area for breast cancer
A

a. Outer upper

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132
Q
  1. Which is skin only?
A

b. Basal cell carcinoma

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133
Q
  1. Which gives you a high risk for head and neck malignancy?
A

a. Plummer vinson

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134
Q
  1. What is true of atherosclerosis?
A

a. Plaque weakens the lumen

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135
Q
  1. What is true of medial sclerotic calcification?
A

a. Does not encroach on vessel

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136
Q
  1. Giant cell arteritis is in which artery
A

c. Temporal

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137
Q
  1. Where are verocay bodies found?
A

a. Neurolemma

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138
Q
  1. What is found in granulomatous tissue?
A

b. Activated macrophages

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139
Q
  1. What is tissue with an epithelial lined cavity?
A

a. Periapical cyst

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140
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome has all except:
A

d. Hyperalbuminemia

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141
Q
  1. What is true of paramedian lip pits?
A

b. Express saliva

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142
Q
  1. What is true of hyperplastic candidiasis?
A

b. Corners of lips

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143
Q
  1. Which is a potential complication of cerebral edema?
A

a. Herniation

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144
Q
  1. Most common cause of right sided heart failure
A

a. Left sided heart failure

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145
Q
  1. Which is autoimmune
A

a. Pernicious anemia

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146
Q

Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary
tract. Pyelonephritis is an immune complex mediated disease

A

a. False false

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147
Q
  1. Granulomatous inflammation
A

a. Chrons disease

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148
Q

What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into
itself leading to necrosis?

A

a. intussusception

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149
Q
  1. Meckle’s location
A

a. Small intestine

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150
Q
  1. Krunkenberg location
A

a. Ovaries

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151
Q
  1. Life span of RBC
A

a. 4 months

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152
Q
  1. Hair on end radiographic apperance
A

a. Thalassemia

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153
Q
  1. Most common anemia
A

a. Iron deficiency

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154
Q
  1. CML gene translocation
A

a. 9:22

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155
Q
  1. Plummer vincent is not
A

a. Pernicious anemia

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156
Q
  1. Sjogrens syndrome is associated with which lymphoma
A

a. MALT-oma

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157
Q
  1. Insulin produced by what
A

a. Beta cell

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158
Q
  1. In adipose tissue all of the following are effects of insulin besides what
A

a. Decreased glucose uptake

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159
Q
  1. All associated with H pylori but
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma?

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160
Q
  1. What is true of fatty streak (ask on discussion board)
A

a. Complication would be thrombus?

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161
Q
  1. Common cause of stroke (ask on discussion board)
A

a. Thrombus from atherosclerosis ???
b. I think it might’ve been the one with embolism

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162
Q
  1. Rib notches due to collateral circulation
A

a. Cooartion of the aorta

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163
Q
  1. Neutropenia susceptible to what
A

a. Bacterial infections

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164
Q
  1. Thrombocytopenia purpura platelet count would be
A

a. T oo little

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165
Q
  1. Syphilitic aneurysm
A

a. Ascending aorta

166
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma
A

a. Punched out radiolucency

167
Q
  1. Rheumatic fever
A

a. Immune reaction with Cardiac antigens and antibodies against streptococcal

168
Q
  1. Most common neoplasm OF liver
A

a. Hepatocellular carcinoma

169
Q
  1. Glomerulonephritis is all of the following but
A

a. Zones of something (not stones bones moans and groans)

170
Q
  1. Negri bodies (ask on discussion board)
A

a. Rabies

171
Q
  1. Most common congenital heart defect
A

a. VSD - ventricular septal defect

172
Q
  1. Sickle cell is valine for what
A

a. Glutamine

173
Q
  1. Oral pigmentation
A

Addisons

174
Q
  1. What is not left sided heart failure
A

a. Lower vascular edema

175
Q
  1. Least likely to embolize
A

a. Astrocytoma of brain to cervical lymph notes

176
Q
  1. High levels of erythropoietin
A

a. Polycythemia

177
Q
  1. Renal failure leads anemia why?
A

a. Kidney failure to produce erythropoietin
b. Or maybe the one about proteinuria? Idk lol

178
Q
  1. Most common leukemia in children
A

a. ALL - acute lymphoblastic leukemia

179
Q
  1. Most common primary tumor is Astrocytoma; most common tumor in brain in
    metastatic
A

a. True (bc gylioblastomia is an astrocytoma), true

180
Q
  1. Atrial stenosis blocking the left ventricle? (T/F)
A

False

181
Q

A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever. The
mass is biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form
abortive glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis

A

Wilm’s tumor

182
Q
  1. Mucosal neuromas
A

a. MEN 2B

183
Q
  1. Ulcerations on tongue, chronic gingivitis, and bone loss
A

a. Cyclic neutropenia

184
Q
  1. Best way to manage diabetes
A

a. Hemoglobin A1c

185
Q
  1. Universal recipient blood type
A

AB

186
Q
  1. To have hep D to have to have what first
A

Hep B

187
Q
  1. Chipmunk face for thalassemia due to what
A

a. Compensatory hyperplasia of bone marrow

188
Q
  1. Step ladder trabeculae
A

a. Sickle cell

189
Q
  1. Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
A

a. Type III immune mediated

190
Q
  1. Alzhemers neuritis plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. Alzheimers is the most
    common form of dementia in older adults
A

True true

191
Q
  1. HPV 16 and 18 associated with what
A

a. Cervical squamous cell carcinoma

192
Q
  1. Most common benign neoplasm of breast
A

a. Fibroadenoma

193
Q
  1. Most common astrocytoma
A

a. Glioblastoma multiforme

194
Q
  1. If you think someone has blood under their skin, what is the technique, you use to
    blanch?
A

a. Diascope/Diascopy

195
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about congestive heart failure?
A

a. Right sided is caused by left sided

196
Q
  1. Chronic congestive liver disease is caused by
A

a. Right sided heart failure

197
Q
  1. Which of the following does not result from myocardial infarction?
A

Angina

198
Q
  1. Infection of the blood
A

a. Septicemia

199
Q
  1. Complete loss of blood supply to the organ
A

a. Infarct

199
Q
  1. Main protein affecting osmotic colloid
A

a. Albumin

199
Q
  1. Edema present in right side heart failure
A

a. Pitting edema

199
Q
  1. Organ that is edema is not tolerated in
A

a. Brain

200
Q
  1. Hemorrhage into skin and mucosa sizes
A

a. Petechia < purpura < ecchymosis

200
Q
  1. Unwanted blood clot
A

a. Thrombus

200
Q
  1. Thrombi on heart valves
A

a. Vegetations

200
Q
  1. Dislodgement and travel of thrombus
A

a. Embolism

201
Q
  1. (couldn’t find this info in notes) Which of the following is not a cause of MI?
A

a. Aneurysm

202
Q

(couldn’t find this info in notes) Which of the following is not a risk factor for
atherosclerosis?

A

a. Aneurysm

203
Q
  1. (couldn’t find this info in notes) Which of the following is not commonly associated
    with fixed stenosis?
A

Necrosis

204
Q
  1. (couldn’t find this info in notes) Which of the following is the most common
    congenital heart defect?
A

a. Ventricular Septal Disorder (VSD)

205
Q
  1. (couldn’t find this info in notes) Which of the following is not true about infective
    endocarditis?
A

a. Viral infection

206
Q
  1. Spilling mucin into surrounding tissue and forming granulation tissue
A

a. Mucocele

207
Q
  1. All of the following are examples of iatrogenic except
A

a. Munchausen syndrome

208
Q
  1. Munchausen syndrome is example of
A

Factitial

209
Q
  1. Epulis often associated with ill-fitting denture
A

a. Epulis fissuratum

210
Q
  1. Tetracycline staining
A

a. Intrinsic

211
Q
  1. Most common salivary lesion on lower lip
A

a. Mucocele

212
Q
  1. Radiation
A

a. Kills both tumor cells and normal cells

213
Q
  1. Osteoradionecrosis cause
A

a. Radiation

214
Q
  1. Exposed bone that persists for three months in an irradiated area
A

a. Osteoradionecrosis

215
Q
  1. First antiresorptive agent to be associated with MRONJI
A

a. Bisphosphonates

216
Q
  1. Which is not a requirement for a good biopsy
A

a. Compressive (should be representative, orientable, undistorted)

217
Q
  1. Good biopsy
A

a. > 1 cm

218
Q
  1. Genotype is 45 X0
A

a. Turner syndrome

219
Q

A karyogram on a newborn shows a 47 XXY genotype. The child has which of the
following?

A

a. Klinefelter’s syndrome

220
Q
  1. Aortic dissection is associated with:
A

a. Marfan syndrome

221
Q

Woman has father with x-linked disease, lyonization is 50:50, what are the odds the
child will have it

A

a. 50%

222
Q
  1. What are the chances a father with x-linked disease will pass to son
A

0%

223
Q
  1. Looking at family tree, males and females equally effected, skips generations
A

a. Autosomal recessive

224
Q
  1. Missense mutations
A

All of the above (substitution of one amino acid, can have fatal effects, can have
no big deal effects, cause sickle cell anemia)

225
Q
  1. Lyonization
A

a. Protects females from X-linked diseases by using other X chromosome

226
Q
  1. What type of polyps in Gardner syndrome?
A

a. Adenomatous polyps

227
Q
  1. Which of the following is due to a defect in fibrillin?
A

a. Marfan syndrome

228
Q
  1. Patient has cysts of the jaw and multiple early onset basal carcinomas
A

a. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma

229
Q
  1. Congenital is hereditary. Familial is at birth and not associated with genetics.
A

a. Both false

230
Q
  1. What is vitamin D resistant rickets?
A

a. X linked

231
Q
  1. A Barr Body is:
A

a. An inactivated X chromosome

232
Q
  1. Cleft lip is:
A

a. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

233
Q
  1. Paramedian lip pits
A

a. Express saliva
b. ** defective merging between mandibular processes

234
Q
  1. Peutz-Jegher type of polyps
A

a. Hamartomatous polyps

235
Q

. Pt with downward slanting palpebral fissures, Colomba of lower eye lid, and hypoplastic
zygoma

A

a. Mandibulofacial dysplasia (Treacher Collins)

236
Q
  1. Which one of the following expresses asymmetry?
A

a. Parry Romberg

237
Q
  1. Which of the following doesn’t present with facial asymmetry?
A

a. Marie Santon disease

238
Q
  1. Peri-oral freckling occurs in what syndrome?
A

a. Peutz-Jegher

239
Q
  1. Signs of Pierre Robin
A

a. All of the above (Mandibular hypoplasia, Palatal cleft, Glossoptosis)

240
Q
  1. Macroglossia is caused by:
A

a. Amyloidosis

241
Q
  1. Fordyce granules are what kinds of glands?
A

a. Ectopic sebaceous glands

242
Q
  1. Port-wine nevus distribution is
A

a. CN V (trigeminal nerve)

243
Q
  1. Branchial cyst is histologically similar to a:
A

a. Cervical lymphoepithelial cyst

244
Q
  1. Acromegaly
A

a. After the closure of epiphyseal plates

245
Q
  1. Tumor suppressor genes act in a recessive manner. Oncogenes act in a dominant
    manner.
A

a. Both true

246
Q
  1. Carcinoid tumors secrete what hormone
A

a. Serotonin

247
Q
  1. Sarcomas are more common in children. Carcinomas are more common in old people.
A

a. Both true

248
Q
  1. Sarcoma is from mesoderm. Carcinoma is from ecto/endoderm.
A

a. Both true

249
Q
  1. Cyst with tissue from all three germ layers
A

a. Teratoma

250
Q
  1. These are all sarcoma/mesodermal except:
A

a. Myxoma

251
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with neoplasm?
A

a. Malignancy

252
Q
  1. Most of the malignancies in the US are accounted for by
A

a. None of the above – carcinoma

253
Q
  1. Grading done by pathologist, staging done by clinician
A

a. Both true

254
Q
  1. Tumor suppressor gene mutation has what effect on cancer formation?
A

a. Loss of function

255
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a sign of Neurofibromatosis?
A

a. Polyps/Intestinal polyposis

256
Q
  1. Keloid is made of
A

a. Collagen

257
Q
  1. Cystic Hygroma involves what type of vessels?
A

a. Lymph vessels

258
Q
  1. Cystic Hygroma involes:
A

a. Airway obstruction

259
Q
  1. Rhabdomyosarcoma is common in children. Rhabdomyosarcoma is more common than
    Rhabdomyoma (benign).
A

a. Both True

260
Q
  1. The most common soft tissue carcinoma of children:
A

a. Rhabdomyosarcoma

261
Q
  1. Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (PEH) can be confused with:
A

a. Granular cell tumor

262
Q

Patient has pheochromatoma of adrenal medulla, and nodules in mouth. What do they
have?

A

a. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome IIb (MEN IIb)

263
Q

Which of the following is not associated with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome IIb (MEN IIB)?

A

a. Pituitary tumor

264
Q
  1. Some question about MEN IIA (lol v descriptive)
A

False

265
Q
  1. MEN type II has thyroid cancer. MEN type II involves oral mucosal nodules.
A

Both true

266
Q
  1. Kaposi sarcoma caused by HIV
A

False

267
Q

Uterine mass

A

Leiomyoma

268
Q
  1. High risk of cancer in all the following except:
A

a. Acanthosis nigricans

269
Q
  1. What is the risk factor for lower lip vermillion carcinoma?
A

a. Actinic radiation

270
Q
  1. Which is not true of in-situ?
A

a. Has invaded the basement membrane

271
Q
  1. Which is not high risk for cancer?
A

a. Dorsal tongue

272
Q
  1. 90% of Erythroplakia will be dysplastic. 20% of Leukoplakia is dysplastic.
A

Both true

273
Q
  1. Al of the following are characteristics of dysplasia except:
A

a. Hyperkeratosis

274
Q
  1. Melanoma prognosis is dependent on:
A

a. Depth/invasion

275
Q
  1. Under 1 cm is always benign, over 1 cm is malignant
A

False

276
Q
  1. Abnormal cell growth that has not gone through basement membrane is:
A

a. Dysplasia

277
Q
  1. You can diagnose squamous cell carcinoma clinically
A

False

278
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a part of the ABCD of malignant melanoma?
A

a. Compressible

279
Q
  1. (T/F): Squamous Cell Carcinoma metastasizes to the regional lymph nodes.
A

True1

280
Q
  1. (T/F) Lateral border of the tongue is high risk site for squamous cell carcinoma.
A

True1

281
Q
  1. Sarcomas travel by hematogenous route and end in the lungs. Carcinomas travel via
    lymphatics and end up in the lymph nodes
A

True

282
Q
  1. Most common tumor of the lungs?
A

a. Metastatic

283
Q
  1. Which has the Alpha 1-anti-trypsin deficiency
A

a. Panaciniar emphysema

284
Q
  1. Loss of sympathetic innervation (aka Horner’s) causes all of the following except:
A

Exophthalmia

285
Q
  1. Which is the most likely to metastasize
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

286
Q
  1. Surfactant is secreted by
A

a. Type II pneumocytes

287
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?
A

Resorption

288
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within pleural cavity?
A

a. Compression

289
Q
  1. What type of collapsed lung is caused by local or generalized fibrotic changes?
A

a. Contraction

290
Q
  1. COPD consists of:
A

a. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

291
Q
  1. Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos
    exposure.
A

a. Both false

292
Q
  1. Most pain receptors are on the:
A

a. Pleura of lungs

293
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
A

c. Left-sided heart failure

294
Q
  1. What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?
A

b. Fibroadenoma

295
Q
  1. Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract.
    Pyelonephritis is an immune complex-mediated disease.
A

d. Both statements are false

296
Q
  1. What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself,
    leading to necrosis?
A

b. Intussusception

297
Q
  1. Patients with Barret’s esophagus are at risk for developing what type of cancer?
A

a. Adenocarcinoma

298
Q
  1. Krukenburg tumor is used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the
A

Ovaries

299
Q
  1. What is the average life span of an RBC?
A

c. 4 months

300
Q
  1. A “hair-on-end” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
A

c. Thalassemia

301
Q
  1. A “step-ladder trabeculae” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
A

a. Sickle cell anemia

302
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution of valine to
A

b. Glutamine (should be glutamic acid)

303
Q
  1. Patients with Plummer-Vinson syndrome present with all of the following except?
A

c. Pernicious anemia

304
Q
  1. Which anemia is considered autoimmune disease?
A

b. Vitamin B12 anemia

305
Q
  1. What is the most common anemia?
A

b. Iron-deficiency anemia

306
Q
  1. Which of the following presents with mucocutaneus lesions and bronzing?
A

a. Addison’s disease

307
Q
  1. Patient presents with sloughy, enlarged gingiva. What type of leukemia would you
    suspect?
A

b. AML

308
Q
  1. Which of the following do you expect to see during bacterial infections?
A

a. Neutrophilia

309
Q
  1. Which of the following presents with pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas?
A

c. MEN 2B

310
Q
  1. Which pancreatic cell releases insulin?
A

b. Beta cell

311
Q
  1. If a child has periodic aphthous-like ulcerations and periodontitis, which of the following
    does the patient have most likely?
A

a. Cyclic neutropenia

312
Q
  1. CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome which is a translocation between
    chromosomes
A

9 to 22

313
Q
  1. Which lymphoma is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome?
A

b. MALT lymphoma

314
Q
  1. Which disease is characterized by granulomatous inflammation?
A

a. Crohn’s Disease

315
Q
  1. Which of the following do not result from H. pylori infection?
A

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

316
Q
  1. Hepatitis D relies on coinfection with?
A

b. Hepatitis B

317
Q
  1. Meckel diverticulosis is the developmental defect of which organ?
A

a. Small intestine

318
Q
  1. Patients with Peutz-Jehger syndrome present with which of the following?
A

a. Hamartomatous polyps

319
Q
  1. What is the most common tumor of the liver?
A

b. Hepatocellular carcinoma

320
Q
  1. Which of the following radiographic findings would you find with multiple myeloma?
A

b. Punched out holes

321
Q
  1. Chipmunk face which is a common manifestation of thalassemia which is caused by
    compensation of?
A

d. Hyperplasia of bone marrow

322
Q
  1. Negri bodies are found in which of the following
A

Rabies

323
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism?
A

e. Hyperplasia

324
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin?
A

c. Decrease glucose uptake

325
Q
  1. The most common congenital heart defect in humans is:
A

d. Ventricular septal defect

326
Q
  1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to happen?
A

a. Astrocytoma (of the brain) metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes

327
Q

Some tumors such as renal cell carcinoma may inappropriately secrete supraphysiologic
levels of erythropoietin. The result could be:

A

c. Polycythemia

328
Q
  1. In immune thrombocytopenic purpura platelet levels would be found to be
A

c. Below normal

329
Q
  1. What is the most common primary tumor of the brain?
A

a. Glioblastoma multiforme

330
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential complication of cerebral edema?
A

c. Herniation of brainstem

331
Q

The most common cause of parenchymal brain hemorrhage is hypertension. The most
common cause of a cerebral vascular accident is?

A

a. Thrombosis of a vessel involved by atherosclerosis

332
Q

A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever. The mass is
biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive
glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis

A

a. Wilm’s tumor

333
Q
  1. Streptococcal glomerulonephritis is classified as a
A

c. Immune complex-mediated reaction

334
Q

Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the major microscopic features of
Alzheimer disease. Alzheimer disease is the most common dementia of the elderly.

A

a. Both statements are true

335
Q
  1. Left-sided heart failure may be associated with all of the following findings EXCEPT:
A

e. Lower extremity edema

336
Q
  1. Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?
A

c. Type AB

337
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about fatty streaks?
A

a. It is more common in adults
b. Can eventually lead to thrombosis

338
Q
  1. A syphilitic aneurysm commonly occurs in the
A

b. Ascending aorta

339
Q
  1. Rheumatic fever can cause mitral stenosis by
A

Inflammation reaction by antibodies reacting with cardiac antigens of Group A
streptococcal bacteria

340
Q
  1. Intercostal notching and hypertension can be caused by?
A

c. Coarctation of the aorta

341
Q
  1. Acute rheumatic fever that causes mitral stenosis is an example of a
A

b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction

342
Q
  1. It is recommended to get vaccinated against HPV subtypes 16 and 18 to prevent?
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

343
Q
  1. The astrocytoma is the most common primary malignant tumor of the brain. The most
    common malignant tumor in the brain is metastatic tumor.
A

True, true

344
Q
  1. Aortic stenosis can cause concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
A

True

345
Q

What is the best way to assess a patient’s blood sugar levels in a patient with Diabetes
Mellitus?

A

b. Monitor A1c

346
Q
  1. All of the following are types of cells found in the CNS except
A

Islet cells

347
Q
  1. Which of the following isn’t associated w viral meningitis/encephalitis?
A

c. Sy6philis

348
Q
  1. Define the pathogenesis of a prion disease and give an example of one
A

Abnormal forms of cellular protein cause transmissible neurodegenerative
disorders.
i. Example – Creutschfield

349
Q

A localized reduction or cessation of blood flow to a defined portion of the brain is
called

A

a. Focal Cerebral Ischemia

350
Q
  1. What causes MS?
A

Multiple areas of demyelination (plaques) in white matter of brain and spinal
cord

351
Q
  1. Individuals with sleep apnea have a 30% increased risk of morbidity and mortality?
A

True

352
Q
  1. Concussion refers to ____ and contusion refers to ____
A

a. Clinical syndrome of altered consciousness secondary to head injury – sudden
disruption of neuro fxn
b. Direct parenchymal injury of brain (bruising)

353
Q

A patient exhibits a unilateral proliferation of blood vessels (vascular nevus) involving
the skin of the distribution of the 3rd branch of the trigeminal verve – what type of disease is this?

A

a. Developmental disease

354
Q

Circulating immune complexes filter out in small vessels and activate the complement
cascade. C5a attracts neutrophils which cause local damaging inflammation… (can’t see
rest)

A

a. Type III immune injury disease

355
Q
  1. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except
A

b. Bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia

356
Q
  1. Which organ has a very low tolerance to edema?
A

a. Brain and lungs

357
Q
  1. Tetracycline staninig is an example of
A

Intrinsic stain

358
Q

A karyogram shows a newborn has Klinefelter syndrome. What genotype would you
expect to see?

A

a. 47 XXY

359
Q
  1. Pts with Peuts – Jegher syndrome often first present with
A

c. Perioral freckling

360
Q
  1. Grading of a malignancy is done by pathologists at the microscope. Staging done by clinician to determine distrubition of tumor in body
A

(T/T)

361
Q
  1. A ds of squamous cell carcinoma can be made clinically
A

False

362
Q
  1. Kaposi sarcoma is caused by the HIV
A

False

363
Q
  1. Most common cause of right sided heart failure is
A

Left sided heart failure

364
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions isn’t a well established risk factor for breast cancer
A

b. Having a child

365
Q
  1. Most common benign neoplasm of the breast is
A

b. Fibroadenoma

366
Q
  1. What percentage of mend evelop prostate cancer by the age of 80?
A

70%

367
Q
  1. Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract.
    Pyelonephritis is an immune complex mediated diseas
A

F/F

368
Q

What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself
leading to necrosis?

A

a. Intussisception?

369
Q
  1. Pts with barrett’s esophagus are at risk of developing what type of malignancy?
A

a. Adenocarcinoma

370
Q
  1. The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as
A

pyostomatitis vegetans

371
Q

What terminology used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the bilateral
ovaries?

A

Krukenberg tumor

372
Q

What is average life span of a RBC?

A

120 days

373
Q

What radiographic term can be used to describe both sickle cell anemia and
thalassemia?

A

Hiar on end

374
Q

Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution bw which 2 amino acids?

A

Valine for glutamic acid

375
Q

Pts with plummer vinson syndrome present with which type of anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

376
Q
  1. Which anemia considered autoimmune disease
A

a. Hemolytic anemia

377
Q
  1. In viral infection, which type of WBC is elevated?
A

a. Leukocyte

378
Q
  1. What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of neutrophils
A

a. Neutropenia

379
Q

When presenting with oral manifestation, which leukemia has a predilection for the
gingiva

A

a. Acute myelogenous leukemia

380
Q
  1. What low grade lymphoma can be associated with patients with sjogrens?
A

Lymphoma???

381
Q
  1. Which high grade lymphoma has a predilection for the jawbone of children and is
    associated with herpes IV?
A

a. Burkett’s lymphoma

382
Q
  1. A malignancy of plasma cells is referred to as
A

Multiple myeloma

383
Q
  1. Name one medication that impairs ability of platelets to aggregate
A

Aspirin

384
Q

Right lung has 2 lobes?

A

False

385
Q

An aspirated crown mor elikely to be lodged in right side?

A

True

386
Q

What type of necrosis seen in TB?

A

Caseous necrosis

387
Q
  1. Name three types of atelectasis?
A

a. Resorption, compression, contraction

388
Q
  1. Which type of emphysema predominates in non-smokers?
A

a. Panacinar emphysema

389
Q
  1. Name 3 diff types of lung cancers
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Small cell carcinoma

390
Q
  1. Name 3 diff hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
A

a. GH
b. Prolactin
c. ACTH

391
Q
  1. Excess secretion of GH after epiphyseal plates have closed results in which abnormality?
A

a. Acromegaly

392
Q
  1. Which specific portion of adrenal gland secretes cortisol?
A

Zona fasciulata of adrenal cortex

393
Q
  1. What is the oral manifestation of MEN 2B
A

a. Mucosal neuromas

394
Q
  1. Glucagon is secreted by which type of pancreatic cell?
A

a. Alpha cells

395
Q
  1. Hep A considred STD?
A

true

396
Q

25 yo man presents to oral surgery for extraction of #15 with divergent and dilacerated
roots. When pt returned… cluster of painful small ulcerations that began as vesicles were noted on herd palate. On pulpation, this lesion no indurated and didn’t have rolled
border…. Or symptoms. Which of following is most appropriate dx?

A

a. Recurrent herpetic infection

397
Q

What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of
neutrophils?

A

Neutropenia

398
Q
  1. What’s the name of oral lesion in secondary syphilis?
A

a. Mucous patch

399
Q
  1. Increase in overall size of tissue due to increase in size of cells
A

Hypertrophy

400
Q

Name 2 periapical pathosis that can present as a periapical radiolucency associated with
a non vital tooth

A

a. Periapical cyst and periapical granuloma

401
Q
  1. Name the most commom benign salivar gland tumor
A

a. Pleomorphic adenoma

402
Q
  1. Vomiting of fresh red blood is called…
A

Hematemesus

403
Q
  1. Which type of colonic polyp has greatest incidence of undergoing malignant?
A

Familial adenomatulous polyposus coli (FAP)

404
Q
  1. The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as
A

Pyostomatits Vegetans

D2 Fall - Pathology Exam 3 (4 decks)

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