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Past questions Flashcards

1
Q

Development of muscle force is controlled by:

a. Number of mitochondria surrounding a sarcomere
b. Movement of cross-bridges across the sarcomere
c. Frequency of motor neuron stimulation
d. The chemical activity of the periosteum

A

Frequency of motor neurone stimulation

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2
Q

Relaxation of a muscle fiber occurs when

a. Calcium is bound to troponin
b. Calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. Cross-bridge heads are bound to actin filaments
d. All the ATP in the myofilament has been used
e. The transverse tubules are blocked by sodium ions

A

Calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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3
Q

A motor unit consists of

a. Actin and myosin filaments
b. All the motor neurons in a muscle
c. The neuromuscular junction and T-tubules
d. The neuromuscular junction and sarcoplasmic reticulum e. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

A

A motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it innervates

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4
Q

Eccentric strength occurs when

a. Sufficient tension is developed in a muscle to cause shortening
b. Tension is developed in a muscle but outside forces cause it to lengthen
c. Calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. No movement occurs in the muscle
e. Troponin moves from the myofibril to the mitochondria

A

Tension is developed in the muscle, but outside forces cause it to lengthen

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5
Q

The maximum force capability of a muscle is inversely related to

a. The velocity of a concentric contraction
b. The angle of pennation
c. The cross-sectional size of a muscle
d. The size of the neuromuscular junction
e. The number of cross-bridges heads bound to actin

A

The velocity of a concentric contraction

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6
Q

Skeletal muscles fibres

a. Have multiple neuromuscular junctions
b. Normally are no longer than 1 cm in length
c. Have many nuclei situated on their surface
d. Are surrounded by periosteum
e. Are usually two sarcomeres in length

A

Have many nuclei situated on their surface

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7
Q

Increases in strength following resistance training

a. Are due to an increased number of muscle fibers
b. Reflect an increase in fiber size
c. Are relatively greater in males than females

A

Reflect an increased fibre size

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8
Q

During the first month after stopping resistance training

a. Strength declines modestly, if at all
b. The size of muscle fibers decreases to pre-training levels
c. Distribution of the two types of muscle fibers returns to pre-training levels
d. The aerobic enzyme content of skeletal muscle decreases

A

Strength declines modestly, if at all

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9
Q

Concurrent endurance and resistance training might

a. Increase sprint ability in a distance cyclist
b. Augment increases in aerobic power
c. Augment increases in muscle strength
d. Compromise increases in aerobic power

A

Increase sprint ability in a distance cyclist

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10
Q

Females, as compared to males

a. Show modest increases in muscle size after resistance training
b. Reflect increases in strength mainly attributed to neural factors
c. Show greater muscle fiber hyperplasia after resistance training
d. Show the same or greater relative hypertrophy after resistance training

A

Show the same or greater relative hypertrophy after resistance training

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11
Q

Which kind of joint is the knee?

A

Synovial

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12
Q

Most human limbs are operated as which class of lever?

a. First class
b. Second class
c. Third class

A

Third class

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13
Q

To compare performances of lifters of different body weights, the classical
formula divides the lift by
a. Body weight
b. Body weight squared
c. Body weight to the two-thirds power
d. Body weight to the three-fourths power

A

Body weight to the two-thirds power

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14
Q

During free-weight exercise, resistive torque varies with

a. The horizontal distance from the weight to the body joint
b. The vertical distance from the weight to the body joint
c. The movement velocity
d. The square of movement velocity
e. The inverse

A

The horizontal distance from the weight to the body joint

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15
Q

A vertical jump involves knee, hip and shoulder movement mainly in which plane?

a. Perpendicular
b. Orthogonal

c. Sagittal

d. Frontal
e. Transverse

A

Sagital

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16
Q

Compared to other athletes of various sizes and body builds, an athlete with a high strength-to- mass ratio should be able to

a. Lift more
b. Change direction more quickly
c. Throw farther
d. Hit harder
e. Absorb impact better

A

Change direction more quickly

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17
Q

Resistance exercise programs designed to stimulate new bone formation should emphasize all of the following except

a. Metabolic specificity
b. Specificity of loading
c. Progressive overload
d. Variation in exercise selection

A

Metabolic specificity

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18
Q

Which of the following exercises should most effectively stimulate new bone formation in the axial skeleton?

a. Squat
b. Leg extension
c. Bench press
d. Lat pull-down

A

Squat

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19
Q

Which of the following factors is least effective in creating an effective osteogenic stimulus?

a. Volume of exercise
b. Magnitude of the load
c. Rate of force application
d. Variation of exercise selection

A

Volume of exercise

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20
Q

Increases in type 2 muscle fibers diameter from training for strength are associated with increases in all of the following except

a. Phosphagen levels
b. Glycogen levels
c. Troglyceride levels
d. Myokinase

A

Triglyceride levels

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21
Q

Muscle size increases are caused by all of the following except

a. A higher proportion of type 2 fibers
b. A greater amount of intermuscular collagen fibers
c. An increase in diameter of type 1 fibers
d. Greater substrate stores

A

A higher proportion of type 2 fibres

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22
Q

Increases in the endurance capability of muscle tissue are caused by all of the
following except
a. Conversion of type 2b to type 1a fibers
b. Hypertrophy of type 1 fibers
c. Greater myoglobin content
d. Conversion of type 2 to type 1 fibers

A

Conversion of type 2 to type 1 fibres

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23
Q

Which of the following is the connective tissue support cell found in cartilage?

a. Chondrocyte
b. Osteoblast
c. Fibroblast
d. Myocyte

A

Chondrocyte

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24
Q

Which of the following is not a specific change that occurs within tendons or ligaments in response to chronic resistance exercise training?

a. a switch from type 2 to type 1 collagen
b. an increase in collagen fibril diameter
c. an increase in collagen fibril packing density
d. an increase in covalent cross-links present in collagen fibrils

A

A switch from tope 2 to type 1 fibres

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25
Q

Which tissue has the poorest blood supply?

a. Cartilage
b. Bone
c. Muscle
d. T endon

A

Cartilage

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26
Q

The ultimate source of energy for muscular contraction is a. GTP

b. Oxygen
c. NADH
d. ATP

A

ATP

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27
Q

Which of the following can be metabolized anaerobically? a. Protein

b. Carbohydrate
c. Fat
d. All of the above


A

CHO

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28
Q

Which energy system is used depends primarily on

a. Exercise intensity
b. Exercise duration
c. State of training
d. Body composition

A

Exercise intensity

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29
Q

The activation of ______ results in the production of lactic acid

a. The phosphagen system
b. Slow glycolysis
c. Fast glycolysis
d. The oxidation of carbohydrates

A

Fast glycolysis

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30
Q

Which of the following has the highest rate of energy production?

a. The phosphagen system
b. Fast glycolysis
c. Oxidation of fats
d. Oxidation of carbohydrates

A

The phosphagen system

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31
Q

The oxidative system results in the production of approximately _______ ATP’s
from the degregation of 1 glucose molecule
a. 36
b. 27
c. 41
d. 38

A

38

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32
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of glycolysis?

a. PFK
b. Isocitrate dehyrogenase
c. Phosphorylate
d. Lactate dehydrogenase

A

PFK

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33
Q

Which of the following hormones enhance muscle tissue growth?

a. Growth hormone and IGF-I only
b. Growth hormone and Progesterone only
c. Growth hormone, cortisol and IGF-I only
d. Growth Hormone, Cortisol and Progesterone only

A

GH and IGF-1 only

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34
Q

Which hormone has the greatest influence on changes in nerves?

a. Growth hormone
b. T estosterone
c. Cortisol
d. IGF

A

Testosterone

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35
Q

Which hormone is higher is women than men at rest?

a. Cortisol
b. Insulin
c. T estosterone
d. Growth hormone

A

GH

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36
Q

What type of workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following
the exercise session?
a. Short rest (1min), high volume, multiple sets
b. Single set, low volume
c. Sets of 5RM
d. Long rest (3min), low volume, multiple sets

A

Short rest (1 min), high volume, multiple sets

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37
Q

The contracting left ventricle pushes blood through

a. The tricuspid valve into the pulmonary circulation
b. The mitral valve into the peripheral circulation
c. The aortic valve into the peripheral circulation
d. The aortic valve into the pulmonary circulation

A

The aortic valve into the peripheral circulation

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38
Q

Normal responses to exercise include the following expect

a. Mean arterial pressure rise
b. Stroke volume increase
c. Systolic blood pressure response similar to heart rate
d. Diastolic blood pressure rise

A

Diastolic blood pressure rise

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39
Q

Which of the following is not a component of oxygen uptake?

a. Heart rate
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Stroke volume

d. arteriovenous oxygen difference

A

Stroke volume

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40
Q

A muscle that gets totally depleted of its ATP will become stiff because Select one:

a. The Myosin heads cannot swivel and deliver their powerstroke
b. The myosin heads cannot detach from the actin
c. The Myosin heads sequester calcium ions reducing calcium availability to other myofibrils

A

The myosin heads cannot detach from the actin

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41
Q

The epimysium and periosteum are structurally connected why? Select one:

a. To provide a seamless connection between the muscle and the bone
b. To allow space for muscle fibre hypertrophy
c. To prevent kinetic energy loss
d. To help prevent tendonitis

A

To provide a seamless connection between the muscle and the bone

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42
Q

What does “stacking” involve in regards to administering anabolic steroids? Select one:
a. Taking one anabolic steroid, then the next day taking a new steroid
b. Combining two anabolic steroids in one dose and then adding an antagonistic
steroid 

mixture the next day
c. Taking many anabolic steroids together

A

Taking as many anabolic steroids together

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43
Q 
Which of the following muscle fibre types are “bypassed” as a result of selective recruitment that allows an Olympic weightlifter to generate maximum power during a 1RM snatch?
Select one:
a. IIx
b. I
c. IIa
d. IIc
A

I

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44
Q 
What trunk muscles are involved in performing an abdominal crunch with a twist? (Tick all that apply)
Select one or more:

a. Tensor Fasciae Latae
d. Osteoblasts
e. External oblique
f. Pectineus
g. Semitendinosus
h. Piriformus
i. Gluteus Maximus
j. Internal oblique
A

External oblique

Internal oblique

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45
Q

How many hours after GH release is IGF-I peak seen to occur Select one:

a. 16-28hrs
b. 26-46hrs
c. 6-18hrs

A

26-46hrs

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46
Q

Golgi tendon organ function is to Select one:
a. Protect the muscle by stimulating reflex inhibition of the motor neuron
b. To cause muscle contraction in response to increased muscle loading
c. To enhance acetylcholine production in response to an increased muscle
loading
d. To provide afferent signals to increase heart rate

A

Protect the muscle by stimulating reflex inhibition of the motor neuron

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47
Q 
Which component of an integrated sports performance program is concerned with improving the rate of force production?
Select one:
a. Plyometric training
b. Cardiorespiratory training
c. Balance training
d. Core training
A

Plyometric training

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48
Q

All of the following are examples of progressively overloading the body through resistance training except:
Select one:
a. Using forced repetitions during an exercise session
b. Adding reps to a workout session
c. Increasing the velocity of the exercise to be performed
d. Increasing the rest time between sets with standard loading

A

Increasing the rest time between sets with standard loading

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49
Q

Which of the following best explains the requirement for increased protein intake by athletes? Select one:

a. The quality of protein consumed
b. Restriction of calories to lose weight
c. Increased need for tissue repair
d. Decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise

A

Increased tissue repair

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50
Q

A blunted training response to IGF-I concentration has been seen in which athletes? Select one:

a. those with an initially high resting level of IGF-I
b. those with high concentrations of Acetylcholine
c. those with high concentrations of ACTH

A

Those with an initially high resting level of IGF-1

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51
Q

Strength and conditioning facility _________ are important for offering to participants guidelines on equipment and facility use and personal conduct

a. Goals and objectives
b. Rules and policies
c. Cleaning and maintenance
d. Organization and administration

A

Rules and policies

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52
Q

Without _____, the program goal(s) may not be achieved

a. Objectives
b. Competition
c. Performance
d. New equipment

A

Objectives

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53
Q

Effective organization and efficient administration of a strength and conditioning program require of the co-ordinator skill in

a. Supervision
b. Co-operation
c. Observation
d. Instruction

A

Supervision

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54
Q

Which of the following are the major goals of a strength and conditioning program?

a. Improving performance and lowering the potential for injury
b. Providing a safe and orderly environment
c. Producing winning teams and developing an individual’s potential
d. Improving participation and attracting recruits

A

Improving performance and lowering potential for injury

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55
Q

During a short competitive period (1-3 weeks), the goal of training should be

a. Active rest
b. Maintenance of fitness
c. Development of strength
d. Development of endurance

A

Active rest

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56
Q

Volume of training during the hypertrophy phase of the preparatory period is

a. Moderate
b. Low
c. Low to moderate
d. High

A

High

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57
Q

he macrocycle is generally

a. One year of training
b. Part of a year of training
c. A week of training
d. A day’s training

A

One year of training

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58
Q

Periodization was first developed by a. Stone


b. Selye

c. Matveyev
d. O’Bryant

A

Matveyev

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59
Q

When utilizing multiple-joint exercise training, frequency should be ____________ single-joint exercises

a. Lower than
b. Greater than
c. The same as
d. Decreased one week and increased the next compared to

A

Lower than

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60
Q

In order to maintain muscle strength in an exercise, you need to engage in the exercise at least

a. 2 days/week
b. 1 day/week
c. 3 days/week
d. 4 days/week

A

3 days/week

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61
Q

Athletes returning to training after prolonged periods of detraining should begin by resting _____ usual between sets of exercise

a. Less than
b. The same as
c. More often than
d. Longer than

A

Longer than

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62
Q

Traditional circuit weight training has a work-rest ratio of approximately

a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 1:1
d. 3:1

A

1:2

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63
Q

A high jumper performing sets of three reps with 90% of hit 1RM capacity in strength training exercises should rest ______ min between sets

a. 1-2
b. 3-5
c. 7-9

d. 10-15

A

3-5 mins

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64
Q

To replenish phosphagen stores, rest between sets should last

a. 3min
b. 1min
c. 30s
d. 6min

A

1min

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65
Q

Volume of training decreases

a. During the hypertrophy/endurance phase of the preparatory period

b. For athletes whose events require high levels of aerobic endurance with low levels of strength and power
c. As the competition period approaches
d. With younger athletes


A

As the competition period approaches

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66
Q

Volume can be calculated by multiplying sets times

a. Load times time
b. Total training time
c. Repetitions time weight
d. Average weight on the bar

A

Repetitions time weight

67
Q

After a period of detraining of a joint or muscle group due to injury, training should be resumed at ____________ volume

a. Moderate (6-10 reps/set)
b. Low (1-6 reps/set)
c. High (10-20 reps/set)
d. Very low (1-3 reps/set)

A

Moderate (6-10 reps/set)

68
Q

As an athletes capability to train with high volumes improves, his or her ___________ may improve

a. Muscular hypertrophy
b. Local muscular endurance
c. Cardiovascular endurance
d. A, B and C

A

ABC

69
Q

To improve lactic acid energy systems with traditional circuit weight training, employ loads of __________________ of 1RM

a. 40% to 60%
b. 20% to 40%
c. 60% to 80%
d. 80% to 100%

A

40% to 60%

70
Q

For novices trainees, the most accurate RM should be established
a. After adequate skill acquisition has occurred
b. With free weights before machines

c. With very little warm-up, to insure little fatigue
d. From a chart estimation based on 10RM

A

After adequate skill acquisition has occurred

71
Q

To develop the most overall body power, which of the following sequences is most appropriate?
a. Power snatches, push presses, front squats, glute-ham-gastroc raises, wrist curls
b. Power squats, deadlifts, bench presses, calf raises, lat raises, chin-ups
c. Lunges, lat pulldowns, knee extensions, triceps presses, shrug pulls, push
presses
d. Shrugs, arm curls, leg curls, power cleans, good mornings, leg presses.

A

Power snatches, push presses, front squats, flute-ham-gastroc raises, wrist curls

72
Q

A collegiate discus thrower weighing 240 lb has 1RM values of 450 lb in the squat and 390 lb in the bench press. His training priority should be

a. Upper body strength
b. Gaining body weight
c. Lower body strength
d. A and C

A

Lower body strength

73
Q

What would be a good quadriceps torque goal for 200-lb decathlete tested at 60°/ s on an isokinetic knee extension unit?

a. 1.3 times body weight
b. Body weight
c. Two times body weight
d. One half of body weight

A

1.3 times body weight

74
Q

A tennis player with a shoulder flexion: extension ratio of 1:3 in his racquet arm should concentrate on which of the following exercises?

a. Lateral raises, front raises, bent-over lateral raises, elbow curls
b. Cable flys, lat pulldowns, pullovers
c. Upright rows, straight-arm lat pulldowns, internal rotations with dumbbells
d. External dumbbells shoulder rotations, triceps extensions, pullovers

A

Lateral raises, front raises, bent-over lateral raises and elbow curls

75
Q

At higher speeds of isokinetic testing (above 200°/s) joint agonist:antagonist ratios begin to approach

a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 3:1
d. 1:2

A

1:1

76
Q

Which of the following exercises does not stress the hip, knee, and low back (trunk) extensors?

a. Leg presses
b. Squats
c. Lunges
d. Snatch pulls

A

Leg presses

77
Q

During the competition phase of training, which of the following exercises could most effectively be substituted for lunges?

a. Step-ups
b. Push jerks
c. Power snatches
d. Safety bar squats

A

Step-ups

78
Q

During the preparation period (hypertrophy phase), which of the following exercises would be most appropriate for a hockey player?

a. Leg presses, incline presses, flys, back extensions, upright rowing, sit-ups
b. Power cleans, squats, bench presses, knee curls, calf raises, torso rotations
c. Lunges, pulls, push jerks, knee extensions, arm curls, wrist curls
d. Power snatches, push presses, squats, calf raises, leg raises, lateral raises.

A

leg presses, inline presses, flys, back extensions, upright rowing, sit ups

79
Q

Towing devices such as sleds and parachutes are used to develop

a. Speed
b. Endurance
c. Flexibility
d. Agility

A

Speed

80
Q

Which of the following athletes requires the highest level of aerobic metabolism training?

a. A basketball player
b. A baseball player
c. A gymnast
d. A rower

A

A rower

81
Q

Each isometric muscle action should be held for _________s

a. 10to20
b. 3to10
c. 1to3
d. 20to30

A

3 to 10 seconds

82
Q

What is the primary movement occurring in the “scoop” phase of the power clean?

a. Hip flexion
b. Hip extension
c. Knee flexion
d. Plantar flexion

A

Hip extention

83
Q

Which of the following jumps will normally have the longest amortization phase?

a. Cycle split squat jumps
b. Split squat jumps
c. Squat jumps
d. Double-leg tuck jumps

A

Squat jumps

84
Q

Which of the following is an assistive method for sprint training?

a. Downhill running
b. Maximal effort sprints
c. Pulling a weighted sled
d. Acceleration sprints

A

Downhill running

85
Q

After the start of a sprint the upper torso should be

a. Leaning slightly forward
b. Leaning forward at about 35- 40 degrees
c. Straight up
d. Leaning slightly backwards

A

Leaning slightly forwards

86
Q

Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a

a. Relaxation of GTO’s
b. Relaxation of the agonist
c. Contraction of the agonist
d. Contraction of the antagonist

A

Contraction of agonist

87
Q

Dynamic stretching is most similar to which of the following?

a. Specific warm-up
b. General warm-up
c. Easy stretch
d. Static stretch

A

Specific warm up

88
Q

Which of the following stretching methods will decrease the stimulation of muscle spindles?

a. Dynamic
b. Ballistic
c. Static
d. Drastic


A

Static

89
Q

When stimulated, the GTO’s may be responsible for which of the following?

a. Relaxation of the agonist and contraction of the antagonist
b. Relaxation of the antagonist and contraction of the agonist
c. Contraction of the agonist only
d. Contraction of the antagonist only

A

Relaxation of the agonist and contraction of the antagonist

90
Q

Taking a pulse is most reliable when the test administrator
a. Palpates the pulse at the jugular vein in the neck and counts the beats for at
least 6s
b. Palpates the pulse with his or her thumb and counts the beats for at least 10s
c. Palpates the pulse with his or her fingertips and counts the beats for at least 10s
d. Palpates the pulse at the carotid artery in the neck and counts the beats for at least 6s

A

Palpates the pulse with his or her fingertips and counts the beats for at least 10s

91
Q

When conducting the 1RM back squat test,

a. A lifting belt is mandatory
b. A lifting belt is encouraged but optional
c. Lifting boots are mandatory
d. Knee wraps are mandatory

A

A lifting belt is encouraged but optional

92
Q

In the timing of sprint events, hand-held stopwatches can result in errors of up to _____s compared with new electronic timing systems, even under ideal conditions.

a. 0.20
b. 0.24
c. 0.34
d. 0.40

A

0.24

93
Q

Purging can upset the body’s acid-base balance and affect thermoregulation as a result of

a. loss of body mass
b. vasoconstriction
c. loss of electrolytes
d. cardiac arrhythmias

A

Loss of electrolytes

94
Q

Generally, obesity is defined as

a. a body mass index above 35
b. a body mass index above 25
c. excess body fat
d. a proportion of body fat above 32%

A

Excess body fat

95
Q

Which three of the following substances are known to produce an anabolic effect (increase lean body mass)?

a. T estosterone
b. Chromium
c. L-carnitine
d. Thyroid hormones

A

ACD

96
Q

Which one of the following is the best reason for endurance athletes to stay away from erythropoietin use?

a. Several bicyclist deaths may have been caused by erythropoietin use
b. It is well known to cause heart failure
c. It is well known to reduce resistance to infectious disease
d. It may reduce the ability of blood to carry oxygen

A

Several bicyclist deaths may have been cause by EPO use

97
Q

Which one of the following is not known to increase circulating growth hormone levels?

a. Ornithine
b. Sleep
c. High-intensity exercise
d. Boron

A

Boron

98
Q

There are several good reasons that a healthy adult athlete should not use growth hormone. Which one of the following is not one of these reasons?

a. High cost
b. Potential health risks
c. Ergogenic benefits are uncertain
d. Adults will become excessively tall

A

Adults will become excessively tall

99
Q

Which one of the following is effective in increasing steroid hormone levels or steroid action in the body?

a. Sterols such as y-oryzanol
b. Boron
c. Human chorionic gonadotropin
d. Beta-agonists such as clenbuterol
e. Yohimbe bark extract

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

100
Q

Which one of the following potential effects of anabolic steroids is best supported by scientific evidence?

a. Counteracting the effects of training stress
b. More rapid recovery from injury
c. Increased muscle mass
d. Reduced interest in sex

A

Increased muscle mass

101
Q

In addition to the health risks faced by an adult, an adolescent boy using anabolic steroids may risk

a. Reduced adult stature and possible behavioral problems
b. Nothing, other than accelerated maturation
c. Deformed facial characteristics and large ears
d. Weak muscles and poor weight-gain

A

Reduced adult stature and possible behavioural problems

102
Q

A healthy male adult using orally active anabolic steroids faces increased health risks including

a. Permanent sterility and brittle bones
b. Liver tumors and reduced blood HDL cholesterol
c. Pulling a snatch off the floor
d. The bench press
e. Stroke and permanent sterility

f. None, except for the risks associated with injection of any substance

A

Liver tumors and reduced blood HDL cholesterol

103
Q

An athlete can be put in jail just for using

a. Erythropoietin
b. Growth hormone
c. Anabolic steroids
d. Clenbuterol

A

Anabolic steroids

104
Q

Which one of the following is true about dietary supplements?

a. A product must be safe to use or it can’t be sold
b. A product must be effective or there won’t be a market for it
c. Government agencies must approve any supplements sold for human use
d. There are no guarantees about safety or effectiveness

A

There are no guarantees about safety or effectiveness

105
Q

During adolescence, the period of maximum strength development typically

a. Precedes maximum endurance development
b. Follows maximum endurance development
c. Precedes maximum weight development
d. Follows maximum weight development

A

Follow maximum weight development

106
Q

When force production per unit of muscle cross-sectional area of men and women is compared, which of the following is true, on average?

a. Men have more potential
b. Women have more potential
c. They are the same

A

They are the same

107
Q

When men and women are compared as to absolute strength performance, which
of the following is true, on the average?
a. Men are stronger
b. Women are stronger
c. They are the same

A

Men are stronger

108
Q

What is the latest stage of development possible for a 14 year old to have reached?

a. Reflexive movement phase
b. Rudimentary movement phase
c. Fundamental movement phase
d. Specialized movement phase

A

Specialised movement phase

109
Q

When men and women are compared as to absolute strength performance, which
of the following is true, on the average?
a. Men are stronger
b. Women are stronger
c. They are the same

A

Men are stronger

110
Q

What is the latest stage of development possible for a 14 year old to have reached?

a. Reflexive movement phase
b. Rudimentary movement phase
c. Fundamental movement phase
d. Specialized movement phase

A

Specialised movement phase

111
Q

Many Adults have never developed their movement skills past the

a. Reflexive movement phase
b. Rudimentary movement phase
c. Fundamental movement phase
d. Specialized movement phase

A

Fundamental movement phase

112
Q

Detraining results in which of the following?

a. Decreased performance in all cases
b. A return to exactly the same pre-training values
c. A decline in all physical functional capacities
d. A loss of muscle proteins in all cases

A

A return to exactly the same pre-training values

113
Q

When endurance athletes detrain, they first observe a decline in

a. Maximal strength
b. Maximal power
c. Maximal oxygen consumption
d. Maximal heart size

A

Maximal oxygen consumption

114
Q

Long-term recovery is promoted only if

a. Proper nutritional intake is achieved
b. Muscles are immersed in cold water
c. Proper cool-down is performed
d. Muscles are immersed in warm water

A

Proper nutritional intake is achieved

115
Q

After an 800-m time trial to get into the finals, an athlete should do which of the following to focilitate removal of lactic acid from the blood?

a. Perform stretching exercises
b. Sit and rest quietly
c. Perform moderate-intensity jogging
d. Drink several glasses of water

A

Perform moderate-intensity jogging

116
Q

What is the best marker of overtraining in all athletes?

a. Heart rate
b. Blood pressure changes
c. None at this time
d. Muscle strength changes

A

None at this time

117
Q

In wrestling or judo what might not change with overtraining?

a. Maximal anaerobic sprint performance

b. Changes in muscle strength at various velocities of movement
c. Resting heart rate

d. Mood states

A

Resting HR

118
Q

Many of the primary training adaptations in the aerobic metabolic cycles are related to

a. Increases in enzyme concentrations
b. Decreases in protein metabolism
c. Changes in nerve function
d. Elevations in body core temperature


A

Increased enzyme concentrations

119
Q

hronic anaerobic training involving glycolysis results in

a. Better blood protein-buffering ability
b. Better hydrogen ion-buffering ability in the muscle and blood
c. Lactate-buffering ability in the blood
d. Hydrogen ion-buffering ability in the muscle only

A

Better hydrogen and ion-buffering ability in the muscle and blood

120
Q

The highest lactic acid concentration in the muscle would be observed after which
of the following exercise protocols?
a. Maximal exercise lasting 15 s
b. Maximal exercise lasting 1 – 2 Mins
c. Two intermittent maximal exercise bouts of 20 s d. Maximal exercise lasting 30 mins

A

Maximal exercise lasting 1-2 mins

121
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of altitude during submaximal exercise?

a. increased cardiac output
b. decreased oxygen concentration in arterial blood
c. hyperventilation
d. increase of oxygen cost of work

A

Increase of oxygen cost of work

122
Q

What is proprioception?

a. Sensory input to manipulate a movement action plan
b. Sensory input to facilitate learning new skills
c. Reflex response to keep the body from harm
d. Sensory input providing information about the bodys position

A

Sensory input providing information about the body’s position

123
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for a multipart athlete?

a. 1.5 - 2.0 mg/KG body mass per day
b. 1.5 - 2.0 KG/KG body mass per day
c. 1.5 - 2.0 g/KG body mass per day
d. 15-20 g/KG body mass per day

A

1.5 - 2.0 g/KG body mass per day

124
Q

Why are acute increases in blood hormone immediately post-exercise favourable?

a. Increase in probability of interaction with receptors
b. Increase production of binding proteins
c. Increase rate of hormone production

A

Increase in probability of interaction with receptors

125
Q

Every tropomyosin molecule carries a Troponin made up of:

a. Troponin C, Troponin I, Troponin T
b. Troponin A, troponin B, Troponin C
c. Troponin Z, Troponin I, Troponin J

A

Troponin C, Troponin I, Troponin T

126
Q

Which of the following phases of the sliding filament theory is responsible for the power stroke action in muscle contraction?

a. Depolorisation
b. Cross-bridge cycling
c. Relaxation
d. Excitation-contraction coupling

A

Cross-bridge cycling

127
Q

How is calcium returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum after muscle contraction?

a. By active transport from the sarcoplasm to the SR
b. By binding with phosphate ions and confusion into the capillaries
c. All listed options
d. By diffusion down the concentration gradient

A

By active transport from the sarcoplasm to the SR

128
Q

The action of the hormone IGF-1 causes

a. Just myoblast differentiation
b. Both myoblast proliferation and differentiation
c. Just myoblast proliferation

A

Both myoblast proliferation and differentiation

129
Q

What is the half-life of IGF-1

a. 12-15hrs
b. 12-15 days
c. 12-15 mins

A

12-15hrs

130
Q

Which component of an integrated sports performance programme is concerned with improving muscular coordination?

a. Balance training
b. CV training
c. Core training
d. Flexibility training

A

Balance training

131
Q

Which muscle cause lateral flexion of the spine?

a. Platysma
b. Internal oblique
c. Iliocostalis
d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. Infraspinatus
f. External oblique
g. Longissimus
h. Illopsoas

A

External oblique
Internal oblique
Iliocostalis

132
Q

Identify the effects of GH

a. Increased protein synthesis rates
b. Decreased glucose use
c. Increase lipolysis
d. Decreased lipolysis

A

Increased protein synthesis rates
Decreased glucose use
Increase lipolysis

133
Q

Why might endurance trained athletes used anabolic steroids?

a. As it helps recovery after training session
b. As it promotes the transformation of Type IIx fibres to Type IIa
c. As it causes muscle hypertrophy
d. As it allows for a greater load of training load to be tolerated during exercise

A

As it helps recovery after training session

As it allows for a greater load of training load to be tolerated during exercise

134
Q

Autocrine production of IGF-1 by the muscles may be more important for causing hypertrophy, why?

a. Blood IGF is degraded more rapidly
b. Blood borne IGF is bound by binding proteins
c. Blood borne IGF has receptor competition with testosterone

A

Blood borne IGF is bound by binding proteins

135
Q

A muscle that becomes totally depleted of it’s ATP will become stiff because

a. The myosin head sequester the calcium ions reducing the calcium availability to other myofibrils
b. The myosin heads can’t swivel and deliver power stroke
c. The myosin heads can’t detach from the actin

A

The myosin heads can’t detach from the actin

136
Q

The efficacy of anabolic steroids follows the typical dose-response curve

a. True
b. False

A

True

137
Q

What muscles are involves with performing an abdominal crunch with a twist?

a. Osteoblasts
b. Transverse Abdominus
c. External Oblique
d. Piriformus
e. Semitendenosis
f. Gluteus Maximus
g. Internal oblique
h. Pectinous
i. Tensor fasciae late
j. Rectus Abdominus

A

Exeterna oblique
Internal oblique
Transverse Abdominus
Rectus Abdominus

138
Q

Golgi tendon organ function is to

a. To provide afferent signals to increase HR
b. To enhance Ach production is response to increased muscle loading
c. To cause muscle contraction is response to increased muscle loading
d. To protect the muscle by stimulating reflex inhibition of the motor neurone

A

To protect the muscle by stimulating reflex inhibition of motor neurone

139
Q

What factors cause in acute increase in blood testosterone following exercise?

a. Large muscle mass exercises
b. A significant increase in blood lactate concentration
c. Small muscle mass exercises

A

Large muscle mass exercises

A significant increase in blood lactate concentration

140
Q

What will desensitising Goldi Tendon Organs result in?

a. Increase of firing frequency
b. Decreased force production
c. Increased proprioception
d. Increased force production

A

Increased force production

141
Q

What does “stacking” involve with regards to administering anabolic steroids?

a. Combining 2 anabolic steroids in one dose and then adding one antagonistic steroid mixture the next day
b. Taking one anabolic steroid, then the next day taking anew steroid
c. Taking many anabolic steroids together

A

Taking many anabolic steroids together

142
Q

Testosterone receptor sensitivity is potentiated from a single exercise session by

a. Production of local inflammatory cytokines
b. Muscle spindle activation as a result of sheers stress
c. Increase in extracellular ion concentration
d. Activation of high threshold motor units

A

Activation of high threshold motor units

143
Q

Testosterone facilitate muscle force production during an acute bout of exercise through which mechanisms?

a. Enhances production of nor-epinephrine
b. Enhances production of acetylcholine
c. Facilities calcium release from SR
d. Facilitates proton pump activity

A

Enhances production of acetylcholine

Facilities calcium release from SR

144
Q

What do Leydig cells produce?

A

Testosterone

145
Q

Acute increase in circulating concentrations of hormones in the blood result via several mechanisms

a. Increased production of AA precursors
b. Reduced hormonal degradation
c. Reduced venous blood pooling
d. Reduced extra hepatic clearance rates
e. Shifts in extracellular fluid volume
f. Increased concentration of binding proteins

A

Reduced normal degradation

Shifts in extracellular fluid volume

146
Q

A greater IGF1-1 production is stimulated through which type of exercise?

a. Maxmal force, low volume exercise
b. Plyometric
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric

A

Eccentric

147
Q

A multiple set training schedule is thought to stimulate a greater increase in resting IGF-1?

a. True
b. False

A

True

148
Q

Which of the following proteins has an amino acids profile similar to the body’s needs?

a. Eggs
b. Soy
c. Rice
d. Wheat

A

Eggs

149
Q

How does the intra-abdominal pressure mechanism act to decrease compressive forces in the core?

a. Compresses the viscera within the abdominal cavity
b. Compresses the spinal vertebrae
c. Pushes the viscera superiorly
d. Pushes the viscera anteriorly

A

Pushes the viscera superiorly

150
Q

Protein breakdown occurs during lifting or resistance exercise, but protein synthesis occurs during which of the following time frames?

a. Also during alive lifting
b. Recovery time
c. During periods of interval training

A

Recovery time

151
Q

Which hormone is abbreviated to MGF?

a. Myosin growth factor
b. Mechano growth factor
c. Myocyte growth factor
d. Myofibril growth factor

A

Mechano growth factor

152
Q

Which of the following is an example of shear stress?

a. Stress on the spine during a squat
b. Stress on the one during a knee extension exercise
c. Stress on the muscle during active contraction

A

Stress on the spine during a squat

153
Q

Why s it recommended to take supplements consisting of CHO and protein during exercise?

a. CHO enhances testosterone secretion during exercise
b. CHO potentiates protein synthesis during exercise
c. The CHO has a protein sparing effect

A

The CHO has a protein sparing effect

154
Q

What time of day is recommended for resistance training in order to stimulate testosterone concentrations in men?

a. Late evening
b. Morning
c. Nighttime
d. Afternoon

A

Late evening

155
Q

Cortisol concentration are highest during what times of day?

a. Evening
b. Early morning
c. Morning
d. Afternoon

A

Early morning

156
Q

What is the function of Desmin in the sarcomere?

a. Forms the connection between adjacent Z-lines from different myofibrils
b. Forms the core of the thin filament
c. Provides ATP for creatine phosphate

A

Forms the connection between adjacent Z-lines from different myofibrils

157
Q

The epimysium and periostium are structurally connected, why?

a. To provide a seamless connection between the muscle and the bone
b. To prevent kinetic energy loss
c. To allows space for muscle fibre hypertrophy
d. To prevent tendonitis

A

To provide a seamless connection between the muscle and the bone

158
Q

Match the following motion to the plane which the movement occurs, knee flexion and extension.

a. Sagittal plane
b. Transverse plane
c. Frontal plane

A

Sagittal plane

159
Q

A blunted training response to IGF-1 concentrations has been seen in which athletes?

a. Those with high concentrations of acetylcholine
b. Those with an initially high resting level of IGF-1
c. Those with high concentration son growth hormone releasing hormone

A

Those with an initially high resting level of IGF-1

160
Q

Definition - Epimysium

a. The portion of muscle fibres found between the two Z-lines
b. Fibrous tissue enveloping the entire muscle
c. Group of muscle fibre that has been bound by the perimysium
d. A dense, fibrous connective tissue that attaches to the bone
e. Tough, fibrous connective tissue that covers the surface of the bones

A

Fibrous tissue enveloping the entire muscle

161
Q

Which of these chemicals or neurotransmitters is released from the motor nerve, binds to the receptors, opens the sodium channels and thus causes depolarisation?

a. Actomyosin
b. Seretonin
c. Acetylecholine
d. Calcium

A

Acetylechoine

162
Q

The hypothalamic dysfunction may result in the interruption of testosterone production, due to the lack or production of the hormone

a. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Gonadotropin stimulating hormone
d. Follicle releasing hormone

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone

163
Q

The Golgi tendon organs cause non-receprical inhibition, what does this mean?

a. Both agonist and antagonist muscles are activated by the stimulation of GTO
b. That only agonist muscles are activated by stimulation of GTO
c. The agonist muscle are inactivated and antagonist muscles are activated by the stimulation of GTO
d. That only antagonist muscles are activated by stimulation of GTO

A

The agonist muscles are inactivated and antagonist muscle are activated by stimulation of GTO

S&C (11 decks)

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