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Opthalmology > Past questions > Flashcards

Past questions Flashcards

1
Q

which answer is not true?
A. production of aqueous depends on the thermoconvection
B. production of aqueous depends on the blood pressure
C. Production of the aqueous depends on the inflammation
D. Production of aqueous depends on drugs

A

A. production of aqueous depends on the thermoconvection

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2
Q

if the indirect PLR (pupil light reflex) is present in the right eye (OD), this means?
A. the intraocular pressure is increased in OD
B. OU is sighted
C. the retina is functional in OD
D. the retina is functional in OS

A

C. the retina is functional in OD

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3
Q

Retinal detachment can be diagnosed?
A. with ophthalmoscope or ultrasound examination
B. with slit lamp biomicroscope
C. with inspection
D. in no way if corneal opacity is present

A

A. with ophthalmoscope or ultrasound examination

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4
Q 
what is the most important step in eye examination?
A. Slit lamp bio microscope 
B. ophthalmoscopy 
C. tonometry 
D. Fluorescein staining
A

A. slit lamp biomicroscope

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5
Q

which statement is true?
A. General anaesthesia is required to insert a subpalpebral drain (SPL) in a horse
B. A subpalpebral drain must not remain in the superior eyelid longer than 10 days
C. Frequent topical treatment can be performed with a subpalpebral drain
D. the main aim of SPL is to drain the tear

A

C. Frequent topical treatment can be performed with a subpalpebral drain

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6
Q

with direct ophthalmoscope?
A. we can observe an erected magnified image of the fungus
B. we can examine the entire surface of the fundus
C. the funds can be examined sharply with +20 D lens if examiner is emmetrope
D. the image is magnified and upside-down

A

A. we can observe an erected magnified image of the fungus

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7
Q 
what is not a type of cataract?
A. Cataracta intumestentia 
B. Cataracta immature 
C. Cataracta hypermatura 
D. Cataracta desmares
A

D. Cataracta desmares

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8
Q

it is characteristic of the funds that?
A. the vasculature of the retina originates from the middle of the optic nerve head in horse
B. the tapetum is usually brownish
C. neutrons of the retina can be easily detected with direct ophthalmoscope
D. light reflective layer is missing in swine

A

A. the vasculature of the retina originates from the middle of the optic nerve head in horse

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9
Q

administration of corticosteroid is contraindicated when?
A. the pupil is miotic
B. hyphema is present
C. intraocular pressure is reduced
D. the cornea has fluorescein stain uptake

A

D. the cornea has fluorescein stain uptake

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10
Q

the chorioretinal scarring in the ERU is a possible consequence of?
A. a previous damage of the photoreceptors and retina pigment epithelium
B. Aqueous flare
C. posterior synechia
D. bacterial invasion of the eye

A

B. Aqueous flare

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11
Q 
Dazzle reflex is a?
A. cortical reflex 
B. subcortical reflex 
C. Cerebellar reflex 
D. spinal reflex
A

B. subcortical reflex

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12
Q

the purpose of the auriculopalpebral nerve block is?
A. to abolish ptosis
B. to induce topical anaesthesia to the cornea
C. the relax the orbicular oculi
D. to provide anaesthesia of the inferior orbit

A

B. to induce topical anaesthesia to the cornea

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13
Q

the descemetocele is stained by fluorescein?
A. the descemet’s membrane remained permanently stained
B. the stroma has stain uptake but descemet membrane hasn’t
C. superficial epithelial loss can be detected

A

B. the stroma has stain uptake but descemet membrane hasn’t

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14
Q

Using direct opthalmoscope?
A. A virtual magnified image of the fundus can be obtained
B. Entire fundus can be examined if the pupil is miotic
C. Fundus can not be examined if the investigator is emmetrope
D. Iris can be examined

A

D. Iris can be examined

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15
Q 
what kind of surgical procedure can be used to treat a deep stroll corneal abscess in a horse?
A. grid keratotomy 
B. enucleation 
C. Pars plana vitrectomy 
D. Penetration of lamellar keratoplasty
A

D. Penetration of lamellar keratoplasty

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16
Q

supraorbital nerve block is recommended in horses when?
A. a lacerated wound of the superior eyelid needs suturing
B. subpalepebral must be inserted in standing position
C. none of the above
D. both of the above

A

D. both of the above

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17
Q

Iris Bombe means?
A. Brownish iris
B. adhesion between the iris and cornea
C. Iris protrudes towards the cornea due to synchia posterior
D. iris pushed against the cornea due to anterior lens luxation

A

D. iris pushed against the cornea due to anterior lens luxation

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18
Q

which answer is not true?
A. the connection between the lens and vitreous is poor in the human being
B. Lens cells are produced by the anterior epithelium of the lens
C. the connection between the posterior lens capsule and fossa hyaloidea is poor
D. in animals the size of the lens nucleus will be bigger with age

A

C. the connection between the posterior lens capsule and fossa hyaloidea is poor

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19
Q 
buphthasmus can be a feature of?
A. iridodenesis 
B. descemetocele
C. Glaucoma 
D. blepharitis
A

C. Glaucoma

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20
Q

it is a fact that the posterior chamber?
A. can be examined with a direct opthalmoscope
B. is filled with vitreous body
C. is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and anterior lens capsule
D. is the location where the aqueous humour is drained

A

C. is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and anterior lens capsule

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21
Q

it is characteristic of the posterior chamber?
A. it can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope
B. it is bound by the posterior part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule
C. it does not communicate with the anterior chamber
D. aqueous humour is drained her

A

B. it is bound by the posterior part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule

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22
Q 
what kind of surgical procedure can be used to treat indolent chronic superficial corneal ulcer in horses?
A. transpalpebral enucleation 
B. subscleral cyclosporine implantation
C. third eyelid flap
D. superficial keratectomy or keratomy
A

D. superficial keratectomy or keratomy

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23
Q

to give a subconjunctival injection in an alert horse?
A. maximum 3 ml to be injected
B. infraorbital nerve block should be used
C. retrobulbar anaesthesia should be used
D. topical anaesthesia should be used

A

D. topical anaesthesia should be used

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24
Q 
Aphacic crescent is visible?
A. in case of synechia posterior
B. in case of maximal mydriasis 
C. incase or retinal detachment 
D. in case of lens subluxation
A

D. in case of lens subluxation

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25
Q 
which nerve block is most commonly used for ocular examination of the horse?
A. frontal nerve
B. auriculopalpebral nerve 
C. supraorbital nerve 
D. infraorbital nerve
A

B. auriculopalpebral nerve

26
Q

which statement is false regarding slit lamp biomicroscopy?
A. aqueous humour transparency or turbidity can be distinguished
B. in a normal eye light beam is not visible crossing the anterior chamber
C. tidal effect can be noticed in acute uveitis
D. width of the anterior chamber can not be estimated

A

A. aqueous humour transparency or turbidity can be distinguished

27
Q 
what kind of mydriatics would you use to dilate the pupil at the ophthalmic examination?
A. 1% tropicamide 
B. 2% atropine 
C. 2% lidocaine 
D. 1% pilocarpine
A

A. 1% tropicamide

28
Q

which answer is correct? the shape of a mid wide pupil is?
A. round in dogs and cats
B. vertical elliptic in horses and swine
C. round in cats
D. horizontal eliptical in horses and cattle

A

D. horizontal eliptical in horses and cattle

29
Q

what statement is true regarding atropine?
A. effectivity gives information about the severity of the uveitis
B. induces constricted pupil for a couple of days in a healthy eye
C. can be used for pupil dilation in an eye exam
D. it had stronger effect on eyes with blue iris

A

A. effectivity gives information about the severity of the uveitis

30
Q 
which is not an acute sign of uveitis?
A. blepharospasm 
B. mydriasis 
C. epiphora 
D. blood-aqueous barrier breakdown
A

B. mydriasis

31
Q

what is the function of the tapetum?
A. reflection of the light into the photoreceptors
B. absorption of the light in the ventral half of the ocular fundus
C. Reflection of the light into the choroid
D. absorption of the light by the pigment of the retinal pigment epithelium

A

A. reflection of the light into the photoreceptors

32
Q

which one is false?
A. the pigment epithelium of the retina does not contain pigment on the tapetal fundus
B. the retinal pigment epithelium contains pigment on the non-tapetal fundus
C. the tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the ventral half of the fundus
D. the tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the dorsal half of the fundus

A

C. the tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the ventral half of the fundus

33
Q

the rose bengal dye stains?
A. the athropised conunctival and corneal epithelium
B. the mucus and the conjunctival and corneal epithelium
C. the necrotic and degenerated conjunctival and corneal epithelium
D. the phospholipid bilayer of the tear film

A

C. the necrotic and degenerated conjunctival and corneal epithelium

34
Q

what is ectopic cilium?
A. Abnormal cilium which arise from normally situated follicle
B. normal cilium which arise from an abnormally situated follicle
C. Abnormal cilium which arise from an abnormally situated follicle
D. it is abnormal cilium which can be seen in the limbal conjunctiva most frequently

A

C. Abnormal cilium which arise from an abnormally situated follicle

35
Q 
which test can be used to evaluate the quality of PTF?
A. Rose Bengal staining test 
B. Fluorescent staining test 
C. The schemer test 
D. the lissamine green staining test
A

B. Fluorescent staining test

36
Q

what is the correct answer?
A. the Shiotz tonometer is an applanation tonometer
B. the tonopen is an indentation tonometer
C. the tonovet is a rebound tonometer
D. the tonopen is a rebound tonometer

A

C. the tonovet is a rebound tonometer

37
Q

with a direct opthalmoscope we can?
A. we can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus
B. we can examine the entire surface of the fundus
C. the fundus can be examined sharply with 20+ d lens if the examiner is emmetrope
D. the image is upside down and magnified

A

A. we can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus

38
Q

what is the feature of the canine retina?
A. retinal vessels originate from the periphery of the optic nerve head
B. Retinal vessels originate from the choroid
C. retinal vessels originate from the centre of the optic nerve head
D. there are four main pairs of retinal vessels

A

C. retinal vessels originate from the centre of the optic nerve head

39
Q

the direct ophthalmoscope…?
A. is designed for the examination of the anterior segment of the eye
B. is a binocular instrument
C. can be used for examination of the cornea
D. is used with condensing lens during examination

A

C. can be used for examination of the cornea

40
Q 
what is not a requirement of the examination of the ocular fundus in small animals?
A. darkened examination room 
B. Examiner in sitting position 
C. slit lamp biomicroscope 
D. tropic amide induced mydriasis
A

B. Examiner in sitting position

41
Q 
the wide field of view and small (4-5x) magnification is a feature of?
A. fundus camera
B. direct ophthalmoscope 
C. plane mirror 
D. indirect ophthalmoscope
A

D. indirect ophthalmoscope

42
Q 
the dazzle reflex?
A. is a subcortical reflex 
B. is present in an anaesthetised animal 
C. is a cortical reflex 
D. is same as PLR
A

A. is a subcortical reflex

43
Q 
which drug produced mydriasis?
A. pilocarpine 
B. betaxolol 
C. Tropicamide 
D. Dorzolamide
A

C. Tropicamide

44
Q

what is distant ophthalmoscopy?
A. examination of the inner eye from an arms distance
B. Examination of the non tapetal fundus
C. Examination of the tapetal fundus
D. Examination of the eye by the indirect binocular opthalmoscope with condensing lens

A

A. examination of the inner eye from an arms distance

45
Q

what is the function of the tapetum?
A. reflection of the light into the photoreceptors
B. Absorption of the light in the dark and so facilitate the night vision
C. Reflection of the light into the choroid to facilitate its function
D. Absorption of the light by the pigments of the retinal pigment epithelium

A

A. reflection of the light into the photoreceptors

46
Q

what is the feature of the feline retina?
A. retinal vessels are originating from the periphery of the optic nerve head
B. retinal vessels are originating from the choroid
C. Retinal vessels are originating from the centre of the optic nerve head
D. there are four main pairs of retinal vessels

A

A. retinal vessels are originating from the periphery of the optic nerve head

47
Q 
how would you treat ectropion?
A. With Khunt-Szymanowsky method 
B. by resection of the T-shaped cartilage 
C. by electroepilation 
D. With "Pinch" technique
A

A. With Khunt-Szymanowsky method

48
Q

it is a fact that the posterior chamber?
A. can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope
B. is normally filled with the vitreous and the aqueous
C. is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior part of the lens capsule
D. is the location where the aqueous humour is drained

A

C. is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior part of the lens capsule

49
Q

with a direct ophthalmoscope?
A. we can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus
B. we can examine the entire surface of the fundus
C. the fundus can be examined sharply with +20 D lens if the examiner is emmetrope
D. the image is magnified and upside-down

A

A. we can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus

50
Q 
which is not a test for the evaluation of vision?
A. Obstacle course test
B. PLR test 
C. falling cotton test 
D. Dazzle reflex test
A

B. PLR test

51
Q

what is ectopic cilium?
A. an abnormal cilium which arise from a normally situated follicle
B. A normal cilium which is originated from an abnormally situated follicle
C. An abnormal cilium which has arisen from an abnormally situated follicle
D. It is abnormal cilium which can be seen in the limbal conjunctiva most frequently

A

B. A normal cilium which is originated from an abnormally situated follicle

52
Q

in the case of synechia posterior?
A. the pupil is maximally dilated
B. The pupil can only have a regular shape
C. there is an adhesion between the iris and cornea
D. there is an adhesion between the iris and anterior lens capsule

A

D. there is an adhesion between the iris and anterior lens capsule

53
Q

if the indirect PLR is present in the right eye (OD), this means?
A. the intraocular pressure is increased in OD
B. OU are sighted
C. the retina is functional in OD
D. the retinal is functional in OS

A

A. the intraocular pressure is increased in OD

54
Q

what is the function of the tapetum?
A. reflection of light to the photoreceptors
B. absorption of the light in the ventral half of the ocular fundus
C. reflection of the light into the choroid
D. Absorption of the light by pigments of retinal pigment epithelium

A

A. reflection of light to the photoreceptors

55
Q

it is characteristic of the posterior chamber that?
A. it can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope
B. it is bound to the posterior part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule
C. it does not communicate with the anterior chamber
D. Aqueous humour is drained here

A

B. it is bound to the posterior part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule

56
Q

using a direct ophthalmoscope?
A. a virtual magnified image of the fundus can be obtained
B. entire fundus can be examined if the pupil is miotic
C. Fundus cannot be examined if the investigator is emmetrope
D. Iris can be examined

A

D. Iris can be examined

57
Q 
Aphacic present is present in?
A. in the case of synechia posterior 
B. in the case of maximal mydriasis
C. in the case of retinal detachment 
D. in the case of lens subluxation
A

D. in the case of lens subluxation

58
Q

which statement is true regarding atropine?
A. effectivity gives information about the severity of uveitis
B. induces constricted pupil for a couple of days in healthy eye
C. can be used for pupil dilation in an eye exam
D. it has a stronger effect on eyes with blue iris

A

A. effectivity gives information about the severity of uveitis

59
Q

Iris bombe means?
A. brownish iris
B. adhesion between the iris and cornea
C. iris protrudes towards the cornea due to synechia posterior
D. iris is pushed forward against the cornea due to anterior lens luxation

A

C. iris protrudes towards the cornea due to synechia posterior

60
Q

which answer is false regarding the slit lamb biomicroscope?
A. Aqueous humour transparency or turbidity can be distinguished
B. in a normal eye light beam is not visible crossing the anterior chamber
C. Tydall - effect can be noticed in acute uveitis
D. width of the anterior chamber cannot be estimated

A

D. width of the anterior chamber cannot be estimated

61
Q 
which can not result in disturbance in the flow of aqueous?
A. Posterior synechia 
B. Posterior lens luxation 
C. Anterior lens luxation 
D. anterior synechia
A

B. Posterior lens luxation

62
Q 
t
he wide field of view and small (4-5x) magnification is a feature of the?
A. clear view fundus camera
B. direct ophthalmoscope 
C. Sciascope
D. indirect ophthalmoscope
A

D. indirect ophthalmoscope

Opthalmology (14 decks)

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