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Pass Med finals pack > past paper questions 6 > Flashcards

past paper questions 6 Flashcards

1
Q

two main causes of mitral valve stenosis?

A
  1. rheumatic heart disease
  2. infective endocarditis

causes a mid-diastolic, low pitched ‘rumbling’ murmur

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2
Q

mitral stenosis is associated with:

A
  1. malar flush
    - due to back pressure of blood into pulmonary system
    - causing rise in CO2 and vasodilation
  2. atrial fibrillation
    - caused by left atrium struggling to push blood through stenotic valve, causing strain, electrical disruption and resulting in fibrillation
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3
Q

mitral regurgiation results in:

A
  • pan-systolic high pitched whistling murmur
  • murmur radiates to left axilla

causes:

  • Idiopathic weakening of the valve with age
  • Ischaemic heart disease
  • Infective Endocarditis
  • Rheumatic Heart Disease
  • Connective tissue disorders such as Ehlers Danlos syndrome or Marfan syndrome
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4
Q

18 y/o female

pc: recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
hpc: recently returned from trip to south east asain.

OE: slightly flushed, temp 37.3, 88bpm, blood pressure 104/72.

Palpation of abdomen: mild tenderness in LIF.

Sigmoidoscopy reveals, discrete areas of inflammation in bowel with nodular cobble stone appearance.

indicative of:

A

Crohns disease

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5
Q

50 y/o undergoes lapaoscopic cholecystecomy.

10 days later: suffers left sided chest pain, SOB, coughed up blood with sputum

most likely to be:

A

pulmonary embolism

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6
Q

13 y/o underweight female.

Haemglobin 80 (115-165)
MCV 110 (80-96)

strictly vegan. not yet started her periods.

most appropriate treatment?

A

Hydroxocobalamin (vit b12) and folic acid

notes:
Microcytic anaemia (low MCV indicating small RBCs)
Normocytic anaemia (normal MCV indicating normal sized RBCs)
Macrocytic anaemia (large MCV indicating large RBCs)

large MCV –> macrocytic anaemia

  • -> 1. megaloblast
  • -> 2. non-megaloblast
  1. megaloblast
    - —-> B12 deficiency (e.g. pernicious)
    - —-> folate (e.g. diet)
  2. non-megaloblast
    - —-> alcohol
    - —-> reticulocytosis
    - —-> liver disease
    - —-> hypothyroidism
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7
Q

What score is used to predict in hospital and 6 month mortality for MI?

A

GRACE score

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8
Q

72 y/o male

pc: back pain , being investigated for multiple myeloma

most specific biochemical investigation for multiple myeloma?

A

bence jones protein

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9
Q

Post mi you start people on aspirin and ticagrelor what are they at risk of?

A
  • haemorrhage
  • peptic ulcer disease common with aspirin because prostaglandin E2 formation inhibited via cox and it is ulcer protective
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10
Q

myeloma is cancer of which cell type

A
  • plasma cells

- plasma cells are type of B lymphocyte that produce antibodies

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11
Q

four key features of myeloma

A

CRAB

C- calcium elevated

R- renal failure

A - anaemia (from replacement of bone marrow, normocytic)

B- bone lesions

Perform initial investigations:

FBC (low white blood cell count in myeloma)
Calcium (raised in myeloma)
ESR (raised in myeloma)
Plasma viscosity (raised in myeloma)
If any of these are positive or myeloma is still suspected do an urgent serum protein electrophoresis and a urine Bence-Jones protein test.

B – Bence–Jones protein (request urine electrophoresis)
L – Serum‑free Light‑chain assay
I – Serum Immunoglobulins
P – Serum Protein electrophoresis
Bone marrow biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of myeloma and get more information on the disease.

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12
Q

x-ray signs of myeloma

A
  • punched out lesions
  • lytic lesions
  • raindrop skull
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13
Q

an elderly female

pc: sores at corners of mouth, pale, tongue swollen and smooth looking. nails are thin with upturned edges.

on pain medication for Osteoarthritis for many years.

name the clinical signs this patient is presenting with.

A

microcytic anaemia - caused by iron deficiency

angular chelitis : can indicate iron deficiency

koilonychia: spoon shaped nails, indicating iron deficiency

atrophic glossitis: smooth tongue due to atrophy of papillae and can indicate iron deficiency

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14
Q

72 y/o male post R hip replacement under spinal anaesthesia.

12 hrs later he is restless and confused. apyrexial.

OE: suprapubic mass dull to percussion

appropriate next step in management

A

urinary bladder catheterisation

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15
Q

70 y/o female

pc: LHS abdo pain.
pmh: has suffered with diarrhoea and constipation over past 5 years

OE: tenderness and guarding in LIF

USS: abscess in left paracolic gutter

most likely diagnosis?

A

diverticular disease

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16
Q

43 y/o female

pc: high temperature, right upper quadrant abdo pain, radiating to right shoulder tip, vomiting for 3 days. 2nd episode in a month.

likely to be?

A

cholecystitis

remember: 
charcots triad is for ascending cholangitis 
- RUQ pain 
- fever 
- jaundice
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17
Q

57 y/o increasingly severe abdo pain.

pain relieved by leaning forward. not by milk or food. she has a long history of alcohol intake.

likely to be:

A

chronic pancreatitis

IGETSMASHED

amylase

management:

  • IV Resus, ABCDE
  • IV fluids
  • nbm
  • Analgesia

causes

  • gallstones
  • alcohol
  • post ERCP
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18
Q

23 y/o female

pc: ED, 8 weeks pregnant, previous pregnancy was uncomplicated.

had vaginal bleed last night post intercourse.

concerned she might be ‘losing the baby’

apart from miscarriage what is another differential:

A

cervical ectropion

do transvaginal USS to confirm

Cervical ectropion occurs when the columnar epithelium of the endocervix (the canal of the cervix) has extended out to the ectocervix (the outer area of the cervix)

The transformation zone is the border between the columnar epithelium of the endocervix (the canal), and the stratified squamous epithelium of the ectocervix (the outer area of the cervix visible on speculum examination).

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19
Q

50 y/o male

pc: 3 month hx intermittent painful diarrhoea mixed with fresh blood.

OE: obs are stable, abdo soft and non-tender. no masses.

DRE: normal

differentials ?

A

Colonic cancer

diverticular disease

Inflammatory bowel disease (ulcerative colitis)

infective cause unlikely with a 3 month history before presentation

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20
Q

52 y/o female

pc: ED w/ 12hr hx Upper abdo pain. vomitted several times, managing to drink sips of water only.

OE: alert, apyrexial. tenderness in RUQ, worse on deep breath. no guarding no masses. bowel sounds present.

indicate of:

give some differentials:

A

acute cholecystitis

murphys sign!

differentials

  • peptic ulcer disease
  • acute pancreatitis

you would expect jaundice with acute cholangitis and acute hepatitis

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21
Q

50 y/o male

pc: 30 min hx sudden onset severe central chest pain radiating to left arm and up neck.

OE: sweating, slightly breathless, anxious.

MI suspected.

name some other differentials?

A
  • pulmonary embolism
  • pericarditis
  • aortic dissection
  • oesophageal rupture / reflux
  • pneumothorax
  • myocarditis
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22
Q

gold standard treatment for STEMI ?

A

percuatneous coronary intervention

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23
Q

myocardial infarction complications

A

DARTH VADER

Death 
Arrhytmia 
Rupture
Tamponade
Heart failure
Valve disease
Aneurysm 
Dressler syndrome 
Embolism 
Recurrence, regurgitation
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24
Q

signs of lower motor neuron disease?

A

Decreased tone

Weakness

Absent or reduced reflexes

Absent or Flexor plantar responses

Fasciculation

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25
Q

What is the most useful investigation to make a diagnosis of cauda equina?

A

MRI lumbar and sacral spine

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26
Q

32 y/o female , 33 weeks pregnant

G7P6

pc: unprovoked vaginal bleeds. blood soaked her trousers.

2 possible causes of heavy bleed

A
  1. placental praevia
    - placenta totally or partially cover mothers cervix, can cause bleeding
  2. placental abruption
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27
Q

you suspect cholecystitis in a patient:

Name 3 initial blood tests or investigations you would like to perform to help make a diagnosis?

A
  1. FBC - WCC elevated? infection
  2. CRP - infection
  3. LFTs - signs of liver disease
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28
Q

A 55 years old man, diagnosed with type 2 diabetes attends the Practice Nurse for an annual diabetic review.
Which test below is routinely requested for annual diabetic review?

A

Microalbumine urine test

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29
Q

79 y/o female

pc: 6 month hx increasing breathlessness on exertion.

72bpm irregularly irregular pulse, BP 118/72. she has a diastolic murmur.

likely cause of murmur?

A

atrial fibrillation

mitral stenosis likely cause

  • obstruction of blood flow from LA to LV, LA pressure increases, heart enlarges and AF can occur
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30
Q

most common organism causing infective exacerbations of COPD is:

A

haemophillus influenzae

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31
Q

The combination of a peri-orbital and nasolabial scaly rash associated dandruff is a classical history for …

A

seborrhoeic dermatitis

most appropriate treatment lesions on face and trunk - topical ketoconazole

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32
Q

A 35 year-old lady presents to general practice with cyclical pelvic pain associated with dysmenorrhoea and dyspareunia.

On examination she has a fixed, retroverted uterus.

which investigation is most diagnostic?

A
  • laparoscopy
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33
Q

A 38-year-old woman with a 4.5cm fibroid has been listed for a myomectomy following a 5 month history of heavy menstrual bleeding.

which drug should be prescribed to be taken whilst awaiting surgery?

A

gonadotrophin releasing hormone analogue

for patients with uterine fibroids:

  • GnRH agonists may reduce the size of fibroid
  • useful for short-term treatment
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34
Q

A woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents for review. She informs you that she has had a previous baby who has developed a Group B streptococcus infection shortly following delivery.

what additional treatment will mother require?

A
  • maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis

- intrapartum antiobiotics

35
Q

first line treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

NSAIDS

e.g. mefenamic acid is first line treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea

36
Q

what is given to patients with heavy menstrual bleeding?

A

tranexamic acid

37
Q

describe charcots triad

A
  • ruq pain
  • fever
  • jaundice

ascending cholangitis

caused by bacterial infection of the biliary tree as a result of biliary stasis from obstruction.

38
Q

treatment of ascending cholangitis involves?

A
  • resuscitation
  • IV antibiotics
  • biliary drainage
39
Q

what is given to prevent vasopasm in aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

nimodipine

- calcium channel blocker

40
Q

there is a high incidence of what bacterium in patients who have had pneumonia following influenza?

A

staph aureus

bnf advises co-prescription of flucloxacillin to the standard amoxicillin

41
Q

3 y/o diagnosed with whooping cough.

most appropriate antibiotic therapy?

A

macrolide

e.g.
If admission is not needed, prescribe an antibiotic if the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days. A macrolide antibiotic is recommended first-line:

  • Prescribe clarithromycin for infants less than 1 month of age.
  • Prescribe azithromycin or clarithromycin for children aged 1 month or older, and non-pregnant adults.
  • Prescribe erythromycin for pregnant women.
42
Q

12 day old infant presents with right sided inguinal hernia. soft and easily reduced.

what is most appropriate management and why?

A
  • surgery

- high incidence of strangulation

43
Q

THIS is an aromatase inhibitor that reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis. This is important as aromatisation accounts for the majority of oestrogen production in post-menopausal women

A

Anastrozole
- used for ER (oestrogen receptor postitive) breast cancer

anastrozole

  • aromatase inhibitor
  • reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis
  • aromatisation accounts for majority of oxygen production in post menopausal women
44
Q

name 7 features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

CAN OPEN

C-confusion 
A-ataxia 
N-nystagmus
O-opthamoplegia 
PE- peripheral 
N-europathy
45
Q

After the six doses of atropine the patient is still showing adverse signs (his syncope) of the bradycardia so what would you do next?

A
  • external pacing next indicated treatment

- long term would be pacemaker

46
Q

what calcium picture often occurs in pancreatitis?

A

HYPOCALCAEMIA

  • saponification of fats
  • lipase leaks out of damanged pancreas
  • fat –> triglycerides and fatty acid
  • fatty acids combine with calcium to produce soap
  • thus serum calcium can be used as a surrogate marker for level of enzymatic damage in pancreas
47
Q

what disease is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria, oedema, hypoalbuminaemia) in children, with a peak age of 2-3 years old.

A

minimal change disease

  • kidney disease
  • large amounts protein lost in urine
48
Q

what condition presents with the following triad

  • purpuric rash
  • joint pain
  • abdominal pain
A

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

often renal involvement

causing haematuria

49
Q

which condition classically presents as visible haematuria following a recent URTI?

A

IgA nephropathy / Berger’s disease

  • IgA depositis in nephron causing nephritis
  • glomerulae mesangial proliferation

management
= supportive, immunosuppresants to slow progression of disease

50
Q

31 y/o female

pc: breast lump.
oe: non tender, hard, discrete lump on her left breast
lmp: 3 weeks ago

most appropriate management?

A

Suspected cancer pathway referral to a specialist breast clinic

Refer women aged >30 with an unexplained breast lump using a suspected cancer pathway referral

51
Q

The only contraceptive that has a proven association with weight gain is:

A

depo-provera

52
Q

78 y/o male

recovering from partial thyroidectomy to remove thyroid nodule 48hrs previously.

complains of muscle cramps and a tingling sensation around his mouth.

given the likely cause of his symptoms, what might be seen on ECG?

A

HYPOCALCAEMIA

  • presence of muscle cramps
  • perioral parasthesia

thyroid surgery can result in hypocalcemia
- direct dmanage of parathyroid glands —-> hyperparathyroidism

ECG finding: prolonged QT interval

53
Q

symptoms of hypercalcaemia:

A

renal stones, painful bones, abdominal groans and psychiatric moans

  1. renal stones
  2. painful bones
  3. constipation, nausea and vomiting
  4. fatigue, depression and psychosis
54
Q

Prolonged PR interval is associated with what chemical imbalance

A

hypermagnesemia

55
Q

short ST segment is associated with what chemical imbalance

A

hypercalcaemia

56
Q

tall peaked T waves are often associated with what chemical imbalance

A

hyperkalaemia

57
Q

23 y/o male

pc: sore knee
hpc: has associated pain on urination and itchy, sore eyes.

indicative of:

what would the best treatment be?

A

acute reactive arthritis
- can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb/bend the knee’

tx
- ibuprofen

if acute becomes chronic
- methotrexate and sulfasalazine

try and avoid high dose oral steroids

58
Q

30 y/o female 10 weeks pregnancy

pc: 2episodes foul smelling red vaginal discharge

associated lower back pain, temperature of 39 degrees.

Blood pressure is 85/65 mmHg. A transvaginal ultrasound confirms an inevitable miscarriage.

most appropriate management?

A

surgical management

  • evidence of infection
59
Q

Total parenteral nutrition should be administered via a…

A

central line

60
Q

A 32-year-old woman has come into your GP surgery requesting contraception. She is paralysed from the waist down from birth, but apart from that she has no other medical history of note and is fit and well with no symptoms.

which contraceptive is contraindicated due to her paralysis?

A

combined oral contraceptive pill

61
Q

A 72-year-old gentleman is admitted to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, fatigue, and confusion. He has a past medical history of stage IV lung cancer, diagnosed two months ago. Blood samples are taken and sent to the lab.

Given the most likely electrolyte abnormality, what would you most likely observe on this patient’s ECG?

A

HYPERCALCAEMIA

shortening of the QT interval

62
Q

prominent U waves on ECG are associated with:

A

hypokalaemia

63
Q

44 y/o female

pc: annual asthma review, symptoms very well controlled. has not had to use salbutamol inhaler.
dx: salbutamol, and inhaled beclomethasone steroid twice daily

next appropriate step in management.

A

step down treatment.

reduce dose of steroids 50%.

64
Q

what is the preferred surgical management for intertrochanteric (extracapsular) proximal femoral fracture?

A

Dynamic Hip screw

Intramedullary nail is typically used for other extracapsular hip fracture types (reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric type) and femoral shaft fracture.

65
Q

42 y/o male

pc: facial pain, pain worse on leaning forward
hpc: nasal discharge and a tickly cough

likely diagnosis?

A

sinusitis
- facial pain worse on leaning forward

acute treatment
- intranasal decongestants

66
Q

what treatment option can be given to prevent further episodes of sinusitis?

A

intranasal corticosteroids

67
Q

If C. difficile does not respond to first line metronidazole, what should be given next?

A

oral vancomycin

68
Q

A 72-year-old man who has a history of asthma presents to the emergency department due to mild chest discomfort.

He has a chest x-ray that shows a small pneumothorax, around 0.8cm in size. The man is clinically stable.

What is the most appropriate management plan for this man’s pneumothorax?

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

  1. primary: rupture of subpleural bleb
  2. secondary: underlying lung/pleural disease

patient has pmh of asthma —> secondary pneumothorax

ADMIT AND OBSERVE

In a small pneumothorax, <1cm, that is not causing severe shortness of breath the management is with admission, oxygen, and reassessment in 24 hours. If the pneumothorax was 1-2cm aspiration should be attempted, and >2cm, a chest drain should be inserted.

69
Q

recommendations in primary pneumothorax?

A

IF rim of air <2cm and patient not sob then —-> discharge

otherwise —-> aspiriation

70
Q

Visual hallucinations with dementia known as:

A

Lewy body dementia

71
Q

A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with confusion. She is found to have a raised temperature, tachycardia and is hypotensive.

she is presenting with a:

A

thyrotoxic storm

  • confusion
  • tachycardia
  • hypotension
72
Q

first line treatment for patient suffering thyrotoxic storm?

A
  • beta blockers (symptom control)
  • propylthiouracil (inhibits production of thyroid hormones)
  • hydrocortisone (to prevent adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism)
73
Q

the following signs indicate:

  • tracheal deviation away from the side of the pneumothorax
  • reduced air entry on the affected side
  • increased resonance to percussion on the affected side
  • tachycardia
  • hypotension
A

tension pneumothorax

  • caused by trauma to chest wall
  • creases a one way valve
  • lets air into but not out of pleural space
74
Q

management of tension pneumothorax

A

Insert a large bore cannula into the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line.”

75
Q

HBsAg shows:

A

surface antigen

shows current infection with HBV

76
Q

What is HIV: Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

A

PCP is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS
all patients with a CD4 count < 200/mm³ should receive PCP prophylaxis

e.g. co-trimoxazole

77
Q

all men with erectile dysfunction should have which test done?

A
  • testosterone
78
Q

A second drug should be added in type 2 diabetes mellitus if the HbA1c

A

> 58 mmol/mol

79
Q

Patient >= 60 years old with new iron-deficiency anaemia

next appropriate step?

A
  • symptoms suggestive of anaemia
  • blood tests: microcytic anaemia
  • urgent colorectal cancer pathway referral
80
Q

A 57-year-old male complains of painless abdominal distension over the past 2 months. He has a history of liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol excess. He is otherwise well. Serum albumin ascites gradient (SAAG) is 15 (normal <11).

treatment of choice:

A

high SAAG –> non-peritoneal cause of ascites

  1. cirrhosis
  2. budd-chiari syndrome
  3. nephrotic syndrome

low SAAG —> peritoneal causes of ascites

  1. tuberculosis peritonitis
  2. peritoneal mesothelioma

SPIRONOLACTONE
- to counter the deranged RAAS

81
Q

rapid correction of hyponaetraemia may lead to:

A

central pontine demyelination

82
Q

9 month old babt boy

pc: 2 day hx fever & dry cough.
pmh: born 2 weeks premature

OE: 38.6, hr 110bpm, RR, 45 breaths per minute. tachypnoea, wheeze on auscultation and nasal flaring.

what condition is likely?

A

BRONCHIOLITIS

  • child premature
  • low grade fever
  • wheeze on auscultation

Management
- supportive measures such as maintaining oxygenation and hydration

83
Q

A 45-year-old gentleman with a background of hypertension, psoriasis and bipolar disease presents to his GP with a thick scaly plaque on his right knee after starting a new medication.

like diagnosis?

A

Psoariasis
- lithium can be a trigger

methotrexate is used as treatment for severe psoriasis

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