Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1 DIP > Past paper qs > Flashcards

Past paper qs Flashcards

1
Q

Normal HB levels

A

For men, 13.5 to 17.5 grams per deciliter.

For women, 12.0 to 15.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Normal MCV

A

80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stage 1 hypertension is
Stage 2
Stage 3

A
  1. > 140/90
  2. 160/100
  3. 180/110
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Target BP for > 80 years old

<80 years old

A

150/90

140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Target BP if pregnant (uncomplicated)

Target BP if preg with target organ damange secondary to hypertension

A

150/100

140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Step 1 Drug treatment for hypertention
Step 2
Step 3

A

1 < 55 = ACE
> 55 / black = CCB
2 ACE + CCB
3 + thiazide like diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal TSH levels
T4
T3

A

TSH 0.4 to 4 (mIU/L).
T4 9.0-25.0 pmol/L
T3 3.5 - 7.8 pmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Albumin - normal level

A

35-55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Surgical contamination levels

A

CLEAN - in which no inflammation is encountered and the respiratory, alimentary
or genitourinary tracts are not entered. There is no break in aseptic operating theatre
technique. (e.g. ENT)

CLEAN CONTAM - in which the respiratory, alimentary or genitourinary tracts are entered but
without significant spillage.

CONTAMINATED - Operations where acute inflammation (without pus) is encountered, or where there
is visible contamination of the wound. Examples include gross spillage from a hollow
viscus during the operation or compound/open injuries operated on within four hours.

DIRTY - Operations in the presence of pus, where there is a previously p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ASA levels and what do they show?

A

ASA - > 2 is increased risk of wound infection

1 A normal healthy patient
2 A patient with a mild systemic disease
3 A patient with a severe systemic disease that limits activity, but is not incapacitating
4 A patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
5 A moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours with or without operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

normal aptt

A

30-40 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the effect of addisons on Na levels

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the effect of SIADH on Na

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Effect of lithium on electrolytes

A

all increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Effect of digoxin on electrolytes

A

increase k and reduce mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Effect of NSAIDs on electrolytes

A

increase k and reduce na

modulation of Renin angiotensin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

overactive parathyroid has what effect on calcium

A

increase

parathryoid hormone stimulates release of Ca stores from the bines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk of clozapine

A

Agranularcytosis (low neutrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drug has yellow vision as a side effect?

A

Dig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What electrolyte inbalences predispose to dig toxicity

A

Low K or Mg

21
Q

What is EDTA

A

measurement or renal funciton with radioactive traker

22
Q

NICE renal function calssificaions

A 
1 >90
2 60 - 89
3A 45 -59
3B 30-44
4 15-29
5 < 15
23
Q

If converting between opiates we should reduce by …… to account for differences if metabolism

A

30%

24
Q

How to interpret Volume of distribution

A

If LESS than 0.65L/kg the drug stays in the blood -> dose on IBW (e.g. Amikacin)

If MORE thank 0.65 L/kg the drug goes into the fat -> dose on Actual Weight
- IT TAKES THESE DRUGS AGES TO GET TO STEADY STATE SO THEY NEED (long half life)

25
Q

Gamma GT indicates

A

most sensitive marker of hepatic disease

alcohol / drug damage

26
Q

Alk Phos idicates

A

Inflammation and cholestatsis

27
Q

Transaminiaes indicate

which is more liver specific

A

Dammage/death from inflammation

ALT more spec than AST

28
Q

Bilirubin indicates

A

Cholestasis and synth function

29
Q

Albumin and PT indicate what in liver impairment

A

Synthetic fuction - albumin long term (20 days) and PT short term (3 days)

30
Q

Causative organisms for LRTI

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae

ATYPICALS
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydophila ( Chlamydia) pneumoniae
Legionnaires disease ( Legionella pneumophila)

31
Q

What happens with atypical organisms on the gram stain

A

nothing - colourless

+VE purple, -ve pink

32
Q

How does aneamia of chronic disease differ from iron deficiency

A

Ferritin is low in iron deficiency - trying to mobilise iron stores

Ferritin is high in chronic disease - trying to store iron

Iron biding capacity is always the oposite

33
Q

Drugs that could cause a macrocytic anemia

A

Anything disrupting folate - phenytoin, methotrexate tc

34
Q

Two phases of metabolism

A

Phase 1

  • Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis
  • CYP450
  • Allows entry into phase 2 or excretion

Phase 2
- Conjugation

35
Q

Is phase I or II more likely to still work in liver failure

A

II
e.g. pick lorazepam instead of chlordiazepoxide in decompensated liver failure

  • these enzymes are more deep in the liver and less likely to be damaged
36
Q

What results could suggest liver failure is decompensated?

A

High INR

Increased ammonia

37
Q

When do you counsider dose reduction in liver fail (5)

A
  • narrow theraputic index
  • more phase 1 dependent
  • bili > 100
  • INR > 1.3
  • presence of encephalopathy or ascities
38
Q

What is the role of calcium in high k

A

Calcium (either gluconate or chloride): Reduces the risk of ventricular fibrillation caused by hyperkalemia.

Where as calcium resonium is used to actually reduced k

39
Q

For asicitc drain how much fluid should be lost: per day

  • without odema
  • with odema
A
  • without 0.5

- with 1kg/day

40
Q

Insulin reduces or increases potassium

A

reduces

41
Q

target HbA1c

A

 48mmol/mol (6.5%) if diabetes is managed by lifestyle and
diet OR lifestyle and diet combined with a single drug not
associated with hypoglycaemia,
 53mmol/mol (7.0%)

42
Q

Cut of eGFR for metformin

A

45

43
Q

Pioglitazone side effects

A

(heart failure, bladder cancer, bone fracture). Known risk
factors for these conditions including increased age
should be carefully evaluated before treatment. MHRA
advise that prescribers should review treatment after 3 to
6 months and only continue if patient is deriving benefit.
 Do NOT offer or continue pioglitazone if any of the
following are present:
 heart failure,
 hepatic impairment,
 diabetic ketoacidosis,
 current, or history of, bladder cancer,
 uninvestigated macroscopic haematuria.

44
Q

Types of ADR ABCDE

A

ADRs
A – Augmented – dose dependent and predictable (e.g. hypo from insulin)
B – Bizarre – rare (e.g. anaphylaxis from penicillin)
C – Chronic/chemical – prolonged treatment (e.g. analgesic neuropathy, paracetamol hepatotoxicity)
D – Delayed – after years of treatment (e.g. antipsychotics and tardive dyskineseas)
E – End of treatment – (e.g. seizures after stopping phenytoin)

45
Q

3 types of incompatibility

A

physical -precipitation
chemical - decomposition of the drug
theraputic - antagonistic effectts

46
Q

Factors affecting if medicines are transferred into breastmilk (4)

A

Size of molecule
High lipid solubility
Low meternal plasma protein binding
Weakly acidic (milk is pH 7.2, plasma is 7.4)

Usually via passive diffusion across the membrane

47
Q

Problem excipients for children: Propylene glycol

A

cannot be metabolised - CNS depression

48
Q

Problem excipients for children: sorbitol

A

artificial sweetener - osmotic diarrhea and GI discomfort

1 DIP (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions