Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MED4 MIC > Past paper > Flashcards

Past paper Flashcards

1
Q

Pyocyanin is produced by this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 3-year-old girl presents with symptoms of lower respiratory tract infection and does not response to empirical antibiotic therapy. A nasopharyngeal aspirate for direct viral antigen detection is indicated because:
A. Direct viral antigen detection is more sensitive than conventional virus isolation.
B. Direct viral antigen detection is a catch-all technique.
C. Direct viral antigen detection is more sensitive than polymerase chain reaction.
D. Direct viral antigen detection is more sensitive than serology.
E. Direct viral antigen detection can provide an isolate for further characterization.

A

D (more sensitive in the early stage as the body may not have developed immune response yet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following about erysipelas is correct?

  1. It is caused by streptococcus pyogenes.
  2. It is uncommon in older adults.
  3. It is characterized by sharply demarcated borders.
  4. It affects the epidermis.
  5. It affects the dermis.
  6. It may have a peau d’orange appearance.
A

1,3,5,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 3 year old girl complains of painful right middle finger tip. Upon questioning her mother, she admits that the girl has a habit of biting her finger nails and had recurrent lesions on her fingertips. On PE, the pulp of the finger is swollen and erythematous, there’s no fever, no signs and symptoms of systemic infection. On investigation, 1U/ml pus is drained. Gram stain, culture and sensitivity are performed. Findings: staphylococcus aureus susceptible to vancomycin, clindamycin, resistant to cefoxitin.
Which of the following are correct?

  1. Prescribe a course of oral cloxacillin
  2. Prescribe IV Vancomycin
  3. Care of wound and dressing
  4. Notify department of Health
  5. Prescribe a combination of oral penicillin and clindamycin
A

3,4
(If the patient is resistant, she is most likely resistant to cloxacillin too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A child with middle finger tip, erythematous pulp and finger nail. No systemic infection signs. Drainage and collected of pus of 1ml. Pus was found to have staphylococcus aureus. What’s the treatment?

A. Oral cloxacillin
B. IV vancomycin
C. wound care
D. penicillin + clindamycin

A

C
(A also correct but not necessary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following bacteria commonly causes post-abdominal surgical infections?

A. Prevotella melaninogenica
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Salmonella sp
E. Corynebacterium sp

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The following is true in regard to surgical antibiotic prophylaxis

A. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be continued for several days after surgery
B. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all types of surgery
C. Antibiotics should be given just before the start of the surgical procedure
D. Anti-anaerobic antibiotics are not required in surgical prophylaxis
E. 3rd generation cephalosporins are appropriate agents for most types of surgical antibiotic prophylaxis

A

C
(not A: antibiotics should be stopped after wound closure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With one exception, the following preventive measures have been effective in reducing the incidence of severe postoperative infections in bowel surgery :

A. Aseptic techniques
B. Chemoprophylaxis
C. Skin disinfectant
D. Immunization
E. Pre operative bowel preparation

A

D
(B = antibiotic prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following matching is correct?

A. RSV – airborne
B. TB – droplet nuclei
C. Poliomyelitis – airborne
D. Measles – droplets
E. Hepatitis A and yellow fever – food-borne

A

B. droplet nuclei = airborne =/= droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The potential pathological condition of the heart after TB infection is:

A. MS
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. occlusive lesion of coronary artery
E. vasculitic lesion of coronary artery

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which ABx can cause hyperbilirubinaemia in neonates?

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TDM for trough concentration is indicated in…

A. Amikacin
B. Gentamicin
C. Linezolid
D. Streptomycin
E. Vancomycin

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2 days of Hx of dysuria + urethral discharge GN diplococci cultured. Oral ciprofloxacin does not show improvement. Symptoms of low grade fever and swollen left knee joint. What is the cause?

A. allergic response to ciprofloxacin
B. too small dose of ciprofloxacin
C. disseminated gonococcal
D. levofloxacin should be used instead of ciprofloxacin
E. IV ciprofloxacin should be used

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is true for Zika virus?
a. Carried by the same vector as Japanese encephalitis
b. usually symptomatic with fever and characteristic rash
c. major cause of neonatal microcephaly
d. is a trigger for Guillain Barre Syndrome
e. can be treated if given acyclovir at early stage

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following about pre-emptive treatment is correct?

A. Ganciclovir treatment for CMV in haematopoietic stem cell therapy patients
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole treatment for toxoplasmosis in a patient with AIDS
D. Emtricitabine + alafenamide treatment for a patient after being exposed to HIV
E. Oseltamivir for preventing influenza A outbreak in hospital wards

A

A

(C is prophylaxis, not pre-emptive treatment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which of the following about congenital viral infections is correct?

A. Primary CMV infection in mothers is common in Hong Kong
B. Zoster in the first trimester can result in congenital defect
D. Rubella IgM checking is offered during antenatal screening to all mothers
E. None of the above

A

A

(B: Zoster does no harm to fetus at any stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If bacteriemia of this species is found, must suspect patient have underlying subacute bacterial endocarditis:

A. S. aureus
B. Strep. oralis
…

A

B

(subacute –> viridans streptococcus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Pyogenic liver abscess is a differential diagnosis of patients with fever and RUQ abdominal pain. Which of the following should be considered in returning travellers from endemic regions?

A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Staph aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Entamoeba histolytica

A

B

(pyogenic = bacterial / pus-forming)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A 22-year-old student was admitted for fever after returning from a one week hiking and kayaking trip in Borneo. He has good past health and is not on any medications. He complained of being bitten by many mosquitoes. His temperature is 38.5˚C, with blood pressure 100/70 and pulse 110/min. On physical examination, he is slightly icteric, but has no lymphadenopathy. His cardiovascular and abdominal exams are normal. A blood culture is taken but remains negative after 72 hours.

  1. What investigations should be done?
    1: Stool examination for ova and cyst
    2: Stool culture
    3: NPA for DNA respiratory virus
    4: NPA for DNA and RNA respiratory virus
    5: Thin & thick blood smear
    6: Complete blood count with differential

A. 1 only
B. 5 only
C. 5, 6 only
D. 1, 5, 6 only
E. 1, 3, 5, 6 only

A

1,5,6
(1 for potential parasitic infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of HSV2 genital infection.

A

· HSV-2 enters the body via mucosal surface of penis during sexual intercouse

· Viral replication occurs and develops into painful vesicular lesions and ulcers, with inflammation and tissue damage

· After initial resolve, HSV-2 remains latency in dorsal root ganglia and sacral ganglia, and reactivation may occur when immunity is low

· Reactivation features less vesicles and less painful, each lasting 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the precautions during hospitalization of HAV / HEV patients?

A

· Contact precautions

· Patient placement in a single isolated room

· Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

· Wash hands before entering and when leaving the room, before and after any procedures

· Visitor control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the key local epidemiology features of acute viral hepatitis?

A

HAV: Incidence decreased over last 10 years, but still common and cases are shifted to older age, most young adults (>70%) are susceptible

HEV: Most common acute hepatitis in recent years, most local cases are genotype 4 (Zoonosis), most young adults (>80%) are susceptible, most cases are local infection (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A biopsy of the urinary bladder with schistosomiasis is performed, what histological characteristics would you expect to see?

A

granulomatous inflammation
egg deposition, chronic inflammation, eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name 3 possible actions to exclude the possibility of contamination during blood
culture collection

A

Hand hygiene
Disinfection at the site of blood collection
Sterile equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the % of penicillin resistance in S. aureus currently?

A

> 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A patient complaint of low grade fever and back pain for 3 months. X-ray found an osteolytic lesion in L3-4.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Haematogenous osteomyelitis

(no repeated flares / sequestrum → less likely chronic osteomyelitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The sample you have obtained have been cultured and all shows negative results. What are the possibilities? (2)

A

It may require special culture media to be cultured.
It may be very slow-growing → false negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pathogenesis of TB leading to Pott’s disease (4)

A

● Primary infection → inhalation of droplet nuclei containing active TB → grow and multiply in alveolus.
● M. tuberculosis bacteria is phagocytosed by macrophages, but not eradicated → form granuloma → may undergo latency.
● Re-infection may cause reactivation of TB → haematogenous dissemination of TB → miliary TB.
● M. tuberculosis bacteria spread via hilar lymph nodes draining the lung segment → enters the blood → reaches the lumbar spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

2 MC complications of Zoster

A

post-herpetic neuralgia
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The tentative diagnosis of Zoster was confirmed. How can you identify other patients at risk?

A
  • obtain contact history
  • high-risk groups include: pregnant women, immunocompromised, neonates
  • screen for immune state by blood IgG level
  • pregnant women in first 20 weeks –> congenital varicellar syndrome
  • perinatal infection –> severe neonatal varicella
  • immunocompromised: disseminated zoster, post-herpetic neuralgia, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
32
Q

Herpes simplex encephalitis is the most common cause of sporadic encephalitis. Which of the following statements is correct for this condition?

A. Encephalitis usually follows viral reactivation at a peripheral site such as the mouth.
B. Virus isolation from cerebrospinal fluid is the method of choice for laboratory diagnosis.
C. Empirical treatment with oral acyclovir should be given to suspected cases.
D. Most cases are due to herpes simplex virus type 1.
E. Prompt administration of hyperimmune globulin can decrease the chance of long-term complications.

A

D

33
Q

A 3-year-old child presents with gum swelling, ulcers, and reluctance to eat or drink. What is the most probable viral infection?

A

HSV1

34
Q

What precaution should be aware of when using acyclovir?

A

acute renal failure –> risk minimised by prior hydration

35
Q

Complications of VZV to pregnant ladies

A

secondary bacterial infection, encephalitis, hepatitis, GBS…

36
Q

What laboratory result will you expect in scabie infection?

A

↑ eosinophils

37
Q

Recurrent genital herpes simplex infection in sexually active patients often occurs in the presence of existing antibodies in the blood. The most likely explanation for the inability of antibodies to eliminate the virus is because

A. The antibodies present are not specific enough to neutralise the virus.
B. The incubation period for recurrent infection is too long for antibodies to become effective.
C. There is a lack of cellular immunity against the latent virus.
D. The site where the virus remains latent is not accessible to the antibodies in circulation.
E. Genetic defects in the host permitted the virus to evolve into a new form so that preexisting antibodies no longer effective.

A

D

38
Q

A farmer had a bad accident. He did not seek medical advice immediately. After 2 days, he developed involuntary muscle spasm. Later, he was diagnosed to have tetanus. After adequate treatment with benzodiazepine, the patient developed fever and soft tissue abscess, the abscess was drained and he was treated with cloxacillin and ampicillin. He improved initially but then declined. The surgeon suspected it to be a newly acquired hospital infection, what is the most likely pathogen?

A. E coli
B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C. Salmonella enteridis
D. Bacteriodes fragilis
E. enterococcus fecalium

A

B

39
Q

A 64-year-old female patient who had undergone appendectomy was diagnosed to have progressive bacterial synergistic gangrene of the wound. How did the doctor make the diagnosis?

A. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis cultured from wound, wound shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue cyanosis and central necrosis
B. Staphylococcus aureus and Peptostreptococcus cultured from wound, wound shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue cyanosis and central necrosis
C. Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli and Streptococcus agalactiae cultured from wound, wound shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue cyanosis and central necrosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus and Aeromonas species cultured from wound, wound shows zones of gangrenous skin, blisters and vesicles
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis and Peptostreptococcus cultured from wound, wound shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue cyanosis and central necrosis

A

B

40
Q

Which of the following about the Hong Kong Childhood Immunization Program is true?

A. Measles, mumps, rubella and varicella zoster vaccines are all live-attenuated
B. Poliovirus 1,2,3 vaccine is live-attenuated
C. Rotavirus vaccination is included in the program
D. HPV vaccine is provided to boys and girls in primary 5 or 6
E. None of the above

A

A

41
Q

Live attenuated vaccine available

HAV
HBV
Yellow fever

A

Yellow fever

42
Q

Why no pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV) for children?

A. T-dependent antibody system is not mature
B. T1-independent pathway is not mature
C. T2-independent pathway is not mature
D. PPV vaccine does not cover the pneumococcus that causes childhood diseases
E. PPV would cause pneumococcal infection for children

A

C

43
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning the viral vaccine?

A. Vaccines with recombinant protein is usually gives more long living immunity than live attenuated vaccine
B. Unlike peptide based vaccine, live attenuated vaccine require booster
C. Inactivated vaccine require cold chain during delivery
D. Most live attenuated vaccine is incorporated with adjuvant
E. None of the above

A

C

44
Q

Which of the following statements regarding vaccines is CORRECT?

A. Live vaccines usually induce a good cell-mediated response whereas killed vaccines generally induce a good humoral response
B. Specific immune globulin is often used in passive immunisation to protect against botulism and diphtheria
C. Live vaccines nowadays are very safe to use even for pregnant women and immunocompromised people
D. DNA vaccines are used to elicit anti-DNA antibodies
E. Both live and killed vaccines require high doses of the vaccine given repeatedly as boosters

A

A

45
Q

Which of the following statements about immunisation is INCORRECT (WRONG):

A. Active immunisation works slower than passive immunisation but confers a longer lasting immunity
B. Smallpox is the first disease to be successfully eradicated from Earth by immunisation; an important factor here is the fact that smallpox affects humans only
C. Examples of highly effective vaccines include the polio and MMR (Measles, Mumps and Rubella) vaccines, which confer protection for years
D. Examples of diseases for which there are still no effective vaccines are malaria, tuberculosis and AIDS, all involving intracellular parasites
E. The reason why bacterial polysaccharide-protein conjugates work better as a vaccine in young infants than the unconjugated polysaccharide is because the molecular size of these compounds is bigger, which makes them more immunogenic

A

E

(not because of molecular size, but because the conjugation of protein provides T cell epitopes for a normally T cell independent antigen)

46
Q

One week later, the patient developed a high fever up to 39°C, severe headache while still taking the antibiotics you prescribed. Name 4 possibilities that could explain the fever while taking antibiotics.

A

● Antibiotic resistance
● Inadequate dosage
● Drug compliance
● co-existing infections in other parts of the body

(not a typical allergic response)

47
Q

What microbiological investigation(s) would you perform for surgical site infection?

A

● Debrided tissue and pus aspirate → microscopy, gram stain, culture and sensitivity
○ Avoid skin surface swab due to the presence of skin colonisers.
● Blood culture.

48
Q

After reviewing the surgical performance done, there is an increase in MRSA infections
in this surgical team when compared to last year. What practices would you recommend to
improve it? (4)

A
  • Review wound hygiene, aseptic technique, surgical technique.
  • Use of narrow-spectrum antibiotic surgical prophylaxis
  • Use of the shortest effective course of antibiotics for surgical prophylaxis and post-operative treatment of infections
  • Postoperative surveillance
49
Q

Which of the following statements about Shigella sp. is TRUE?
A. It is a lactose fermenter
B. It is motile and has flagella
C. It usually invades the bloodstream
D. It cannot be distinguished from Escherichia coli by morphology
E. It is usually found in poultry

A

D

50
Q

Which enterobacteriaceae has more than 2000 serotypes?

A

Salmonella spp.

51
Q

Endotoxin is usually involved when a patient is infected by Gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following is a characteristic of endotoxin?
A. It is pharmacologically specific
B. It is convertible to toxoid by various methods
C. It contains lipid A as the toxigenic moiety
D. It is protein in nature
E. It is heat labile

A

C

52
Q

A 10-year-old child suffered from a sore throat with a rash. Throat swab was taken and Streptococcus pyogenes was isolated. The patient reported to the clinician that he was found to be allergic to penicillin. What is the alternative drug of choice for this patient?
A. Augmentin
B. Erythromycin
C. Cephalothin
D. Ofloxacin
E. Gentamicin

A

B

53
Q

Which of the follow is a characteristic feature for latent viral infection
A. Latent infection can be infectious / transmitted to others
B. Latency is a feature of myoviridae(?)
C. Prolonged antiviral treatment can eradicate latent state
D. Neurological and lymphoid are common sites for latency
E. None of the above

A

D
(A is true but not characteristic)

54
Q

How to prevent surgical site infection (4)?

A
  • proper patient preparation
  • proficient surgical skills
  • appropriate use of peri-operative antibiotics
  • proper wound care
55
Q

How to confirm catheter-related bloodstream infection?

A

differential time to positivity (catheter v.s. peripheral veins)

56
Q

Please interpret the MIC result of vancomycin on the organism (E-test figure showing no suppression of growth)

A

MIC >= 256 mg/L

57
Q

Name two potential complications of AOM that gave such a clinical picture (convulsion after acute otitis media)

A

meningitis
brain abscess

58
Q

12 months old boy, afebrile, non-blood-stained diarrhoea, attended a Christmas party with many toddlers two days ago, which one is correct?
A. Norovirus is the most likely causative agent because of the age group.
B. To collect paired blood samples for viral serology can assist establishing the diagnosis
C. An early stool sample for virus isolation is helpful for establishing the diagnosis
D. Rapid molecular diagnosis test is useful to guide use of antiviral agents
E. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent because it is common in winter

A

E

(Rotavirus has a winter and spring seasonal pattern –> not really wrong)

59
Q

A 5-year-old girl developed fever, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea five days after eating a piece of watermelon from a fruit store. She admitted seeing flies frequenting the watermelon. She subsequently became severely ill and dehydrated. What is the most probable diagnosis and how would you treat her?
A. Shigellosis, rehydration and ciprofloxacin
B. Shigellosis, rehydration and cotrimoxazole
C. Shigellosis, rehydration
D. Salmonellosis, rehydration
E. Salmonellosis, rehydration and ciprofloxacin

A

B

(severe case –> require ABx)
(quinolone is contraindicated in children <16y)

60
Q

A thirty-year-old male with AIDS complained of a persistent cough and watery diarrhoea, with a frequency of up to 10 times per day. He has lost 15 lbs in weight in the past fortnight. On admission, he was afebrile, emaciated and abdominal examination was unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Cholera
C. Shigella dysentery
D. Food poisoning from Bacillus toxin
E. Amoebic colitis

A

A
(AIDS, chronic diarrhoea)

61
Q

Which hepatic virus is zoonotic?

A

HEV

62
Q

A 19-year old woman was seen at Accident and Emergency with a fever 39.5°C and blood pressure 90/65 mmHg. She is clinically jaundiced with hepatomegaly. The differential diagnosis of the patient includes
A. Disseminated mycobacterial infection
B. Enterovirus infection
C. Leprosy
D. Amoebic liver abscess
E. Malaria

A

E

63
Q

Which of the following about viral CNS infections is correct?
A. Enteroviruses are the number one cause for acute focal encephalitis.
B. Sub-sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by persistent measles infection.
E. none of the above

A

B
(A: it’s meningitis, not encephalitis)

64
Q

. A 50-year-old gentleman presents with low-grade fever, change of behaviour, slurring of speech, confusion and left-side upper limb convulsion. The cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals pleocytosis with lymphocyte predominant. Investigation for the presence of herpesviruses in cerebro-spinal fluid should be performed using polymerase chain reaction rather than virus isolation / serology because:
A. Polymerase chain reaction is a catch-all technique.
B. A low level of herpes virus antibody may present in the cerebro-spinal fluid of healthy individuals.
C. The level of virus present is too low to be detected by other methods.
D. Virus isolation has sufficient sensitivity, but is too slow for patient management.
E. Virus isolation and serology is less specific than polymerase chain reaction.

A

C

65
Q

A HIV-positive, intravenous drug addict presented with sudden onset of right-sided weakness. He also had multiple seizures during the first 24 hours of hospital stay. He has a fever, but no neck rigidity nor photophobia. CT brain scan revealed multiple ring-enhancing lesions. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae meningitis
B. Cryptococcal meningitis
C. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
D. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis
E. Neurosyphilis

A

C

66
Q

A 19-year old menstruating woman was seen at Accident and Emergency with a fever 39.5°C, WBC 16 x 109/L, blood pressure 90/65 mmHg, a scarlatiniform rash on her body, limbs involving palms and soles, vomiting and diarrhoea. The diagnosis of the patient is most likely
A. Staphylococcal food poisoning
B. Guillain-Barre syndrome
C. Scalded skin syndrome
D. Necrotizing fasciitis
E. Toxic shock syndrome

A

E

(menstruation –> tampons –> TSS)

67
Q

A 5 year old child presents with fever, conjunctivitis and generalised maculopapular rash for 4 days. There is no vesicular rash. Which of the following is consistent with the clinical presentation?
A. Primary infection of Varicella Zoster
B. Measles
C. Cutaneous papillomavirus infection
D. Hand-foot-mouth disease
E. Herpes simplex type 1 infection

A

B

67
Q

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia pneumoniae is TRUE?
A. It is a genital tract pathogen
B. The infection it causes can be treated with erythromycin
C. It causes epidemic meningitis
D. It is a kind of mycoplasma
E. It can be detected by Chlamydiazyme tests

A

B

68
Q

A 3-year-old girl developed a high fever and sore throat 3 days ago. She consulted a family doctor and was given ampicillin. On the next day she developed a generalised maculopapular skin rash. She has taken ampicillin many times before and no allergic response was noted. Which viral infection may explain the clinical course?
A. Primary Epstein-Barr virus infection
B. Reactivation of varicella zoster virus
C. Rubella virus
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Enterovirus 71

A

A

(C does not come with very high grade fever…)

69
Q

Which of the following is an enriched medium?
A. Nutrient agar
B. Blood agar
C. Mueller-Hinton medium
D. Cystine-Lysine-Electrolyte-Deficient Medium
E. MacConkey agar

A

B

70
Q

Blood samples from patients with fever are sent to the laboratory for culture of causative microorganisms. Which of the following conditions are suitable?
A. pH 8.0 and 37°C
B. pH 7.2 and 28°C
C. pH 7.6 and 37°C
D. pH 5.0 and 37°C
E. pH 5.0 and 28°C

A

C

71
Q

Which of the following can provide proof of active viral infection in a patient?
A. Detection of specific IgG antibodies in an early serum sample
B. Detection of complement-fixing specific antibodies at constant titre in paired serum samples
C. Detection by immunofluorescence of viral capsid antigens in patient’s cells
D. Detection of specific IgG antibodies in serum from a neonate
E. Detection of specific haemagglutination inhibiting antibodies in an early serum sample

A

C

72
Q

Which of the following can be used to sterilise heat sensitive equipment?
A. Infra-red radiation
B. Ultraviolet irradiation
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Potassium permanganate (KMnO4)
E. Hexachlorophane

A

C
(Chemical method should be used for heat sensitive equipment)

73
Q
  1. Very young infants cannot be successfully immunized with polysaccharide vaccines such as the capsular antigens of bacteria because:
    A. They have immature antigen-presenting cells
    B. They have immature T cells for these antigens
    C. They have immature B cells for these antigens
    D. The T and B cells for these antigens are anergic
    E. Maternal antibodies block these antigens from stimulating the immune system
A

C

74
Q
  1. Why no pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV) for children?
    A. T-dependent antibody system is not mature
    B. T-independent-1 pathway is not mature
    C. T-independent-2 pathway is not mature
    D. PPV vaccine does not cover pneumococcus that causes childhood diseases
    E. PPV would cause pneumococcal infection for children
A

C
(just memorise. some untaught immunology underneath)

MED4 MIC (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions