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Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Catalase positive

A

Staphylococcus

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2
Q

Catalase negative

A

Streptococcus & others

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3
Q

Coagulase positive

A

S. aureus

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4
Q

Coagulase negative

A

CNSS

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5
Q

Grouping method for Streptococci

A

Lancefield grouping

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6
Q

Group A Strep.

A

Strep. pyogenes

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7
Q

Group B Strep.

A

Strep. agalactiae

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8
Q

Group D Strep.

A

Enterococci, Strep. bovis, Strep. suis

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9
Q

Which haemolytic pattern do group A & B streptococci demonstrate?

A

beta hemolytic

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10
Q

Which haemolytic pattern does Viridans Streptococci demonstrate?

A

alpha hemolytic

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11
Q

Which haemolytic pattern does Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrate?

A

alpha hemolytic

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12
Q

Which haemolytic pattern does S. aureus demonstrate?

A

beta hemolytic

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13
Q

Incubation period for S. aureus gastroenteritis

A

1~6 hours

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14
Q

Abx for MSSA

A

Cloxacillin

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15
Q

Abx for MRSA

A

IV vancomycin

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16
Q

Abx for Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

Penicillin

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17
Q

Major symptoms of rheumatic fever in Jones criteria (6)

A

fever, pancarditis, migratory polyarthritis, chorea, subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum

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18
Q

Which disease causes erythema marginatum?

A

Rheumatic fever

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19
Q

Post-streptococcal diseases (2)

A

Rheumatic fever, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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20
Q

Which antibiotics do Enterococcus spp. resistant to? (2)

A

cephalosporins, vancomycin (emerging)

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21
Q

Which Streptocci transmits disease by zoonosis and is thus notifiable?

A

Streptococcus suis

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22
Q

Streptococcus that shows diplococci under microscope (2)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Enterococcus

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23
Q

Transmission of Bacillus anthracis

A

cutaneous, pulmonary, GI

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24
Q

Pathogen for woolsorter’s disease

A

Bacillus anthracis

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25
Q

Pathogen once as bioterrorism agent, being spores in envelope

A

Bacillus anthracis

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26
Q

Pathogen secreting 2 forms of enterotoxins (pathogen + 2 enterotoxins)

A

Bacillus cereus. Emetic form & diarrheal form

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27
Q

Pathogen for fried rice syndrome

A

Bacillus cereus

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28
Q

Spore-forming gram positive bacilli (2 genus)

A

Bacillus spp., Clostridium spp.

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29
Q

Non-spore-forming gram positive bacilli (3)

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Listeria monocytogenes, Actinomyces spp.

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30
Q

Bacteria that produces acid in vagina to inhibit other pathogens

A

Lactobacillus

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31
Q

Bacteria as probiotics to treat paediatric diarrhoea

A

Lactobacillus

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32
Q

Properties MacConkey plate is differentiating and the corresponding colour

A

lactose fermenter (red), others (yellow)

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33
Q

Lactose fermenters (3)

A

Klebsiella, Escherichia coli, Enterobacter

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34
Q

Agar for Escherichia coli O157:H7

A

Sorbital MacConkey agar

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35
Q

Name of XLD agar.
Properties XLD agar is differentiating and the corresponding colour.

A

Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar

Shigella (xylose non-fermenter, red), Salmonella (H2S producer, red with black spots), others (xylose fermenters, yellow)

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36
Q

Agar for Vibrio spp.

A

TCBS agar +/- alkaline peptone enhancement

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37
Q

Properties TCBS agar is differentiating and the corresponding colour

A

sucrose fermentation

Vibrio cholerae (yellow (F)), Vibrio parahaemolyticus (green (NF))

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38
Q

Kidney bean-shaped diplococci

A

Neisseria spp.

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39
Q

Which Neisseria is glucose fermenting only?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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40
Q

Which Neisseria causes neonatal conjunctivitis?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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41
Q

Agar for Neisseria species (2)

A

Chocolate agar, Thayer Martin agar

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42
Q

Which Neisseria is found in nasopharynx normally?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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43
Q

Which Neisseria is both glucose and maltose fermenting?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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44
Q

Which bacteria require rifampicin for close contacts as prophylaxis? (2)

A

Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae

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45
Q

Abx prophylaxis for close contact of Neisseria meningitidis

A

Rifampicin / ceftriaxone / ciprofloxacin

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46
Q

Strains of Neisseria meningitidis that are targeted by vaccination

A

A, C, Y, W135 (B for teens)

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47
Q

GN cocci shown as coccobacilli

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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48
Q

Enterobacteriaceae (9)

A

Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, Citrobacter, Proteus, Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia

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49
Q

Oxygen tolerance of Enterobacteriaceae

A

facultative anaerobes

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50
Q

Biochemistry of enterobacteriaceae (glucose, oxidase)

A

glucose fermenter, oxidase negative

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51
Q

3 antigens for enterobacteriaceae

A

O (component of LPS), K (capsule), H (flagella)

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52
Q

Pathogen as indicator of fecal contamination in water

A

Escherichia coli

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53
Q

Pathogen with watery capsule, giving mucoid colonies in culture

A

Klebsiella

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54
Q

Non-motile enterobacteriaceae

A

Klebsiella, Shigella

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55
Q

Pathogen showing clear orange colonies

A

Serratia

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56
Q

Pathogen fermenting citrate

A

Citrobacter

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57
Q

Pathogen swarming on agar surface

A

Proteus

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58
Q

GNR producing urease (3)

A

Proteus, Helicobacter pylori, Klebsiella

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59
Q

Pathogen for staghorn stone / struvite stone

A

Proteus

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60
Q

Pathogen for bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella

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61
Q

Most pathogenic Shigella

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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62
Q

Least pathogenic Shigella

A

Shigella sonnei

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63
Q

Enterobacteriaceae that is a xylose non-fermenter

A

Shigella

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64
Q

Enterobacteriaceae that produces H2S (2)

A

Salmonella, Proteus

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65
Q

Pathogens for typhoid fever (2)

A

Salmonella typhi, Salmonella paratyphi

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66
Q

GN bacteria family that are in comma shape and halophilic

A

Vibrionaceae

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67
Q

Serogroups of Vibrio cholerae (3)

A

O1 classical, O1 El Tor, O139 Bengal

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68
Q

Leading cause of diarrhoea in Japan

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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69
Q

Seagull shaped pathogen

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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70
Q

Pathogen best grown at 42 degree Celsius and is microaeropilic

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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71
Q

Pathogen giving “tear-drop” colonies in Skirrow medium

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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72
Q

Culture medium for Campylobacter jejuni

A

Skirrow medium

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73
Q

Microaerophilic GNR (2)

A

Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori

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74
Q

Pathogen producing pyoverdin and pyocyanin

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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75
Q

Pathogen producing sweet grape-like scent

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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76
Q

Coccobacillary GNB (3)

A

Moraxella catarrhalis, Acinetobacter baumannii, Haemophilus influenzae

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77
Q

Non-motile MDR GNR

A

Acinetobacter baumannii

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78
Q

Growth requirement of Haemophilus influenzae

A

X factor (haemin), V factor (NAD)

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79
Q

Culture methods for Haemophilus influenzae (2)

A

Chocolate agar, Satellitism (with S. aures)

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80
Q

Most virulent serotype of Haemophilus influenzae

A

b

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81
Q

Pathogen for pertussis

A

Bordetella pertussis

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82
Q

Agar for Bordetella pertussis

A

Bordet-Gengou agar

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83
Q

Pathogen commonly causing outbreak via air-conditioning systems

A

Legionella pneumophila

84
Q

Agar for Legionella pneumophila

85
Q

Pathogen for plague

A

Yersinia pestis

86
Q

3 types of plague

A

bubonic, septicaemic, pneumonic

87
Q

Antigen in serology for Yersinia pestis

A

F1 antigen

88
Q

Abx for Yersinia pestis

A

Streptomycin, Gentamicin, Doxycycline
(DGS)

89
Q

Pathogen for undulant fever

A

Brucella spp.

90
Q

Treatment for Brucella

A

doxycycline + rifampicin for 6 weeks

91
Q

Pathogen in concern for cat or dog bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

92
Q

Pathogen for cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

93
Q

Agar for obligate anaerobes (2)

A

BHIA, blood agar with vitamin K1

94
Q

Broth for obligate anaerobes

A

Thioglycolate broth

95
Q

Pathogen with tennis racket / drumstick appearance

A

Clostridium tetani

96
Q

Obligate anaerobe with terminal spores

A

Clostridium tetani

97
Q

Toxin of Clostridium tetani and pathogensis

A

tetanospasmin. Retrograde axonal transport via motor neurons to CNS –> - inhibitory neurons

98
Q

Pathogen for tetanus

A

Clostridium tetani

99
Q

Obligate anaerobe with sub-terminal spores

A

Clostridium botulinum

100
Q

Toxin of Clostridium botulinum and pathogenesis

A

Botulinum toxin. Irreversibly block ACh release at NMJ

101
Q

Pathogen for food poisoning by preserved food

A

Clostridium botulinum

102
Q

Pathogen showing double zone haemolysis

A

Clostridium perfringens (inner beta, outer alpha)

103
Q

Pathogen for gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

104
Q

Pathogen for wound infection showing crepitus

A

Clostridium perfringens

105
Q

Pathogen for post-antibiotic pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

106
Q

Bacteria showing filamentous rods

A

Actinomyces israelii

107
Q

Pathogen with molar tooth-like colonies

A

Actinomyces israelii

108
Q

Pathogen giving sulphur granules as micro-colonies

A

Actinomyces israelii

109
Q

Pathogen for genital infection associated with IUD

A

Actinomyces israelii

110
Q

GPC being obligate anaerobe

A

Peptostreptococcus spp.

111
Q

GNR family being obligate anaerobe

A

Bacteroidaceae

112
Q

Which GNR family is found the most in GI tract?

A

Bacteroidaceae

113
Q

GNC being obligate anaerobe

A

Veillonella spp.

114
Q

Life cycle of Chlamydia

A

Elementary bodies (EB) taken up by cells –> differentiate into reticular bodies (RB) –> RBs divide and some reform into EBs –> EBs release

115
Q

Which obligate intracellular parasite has tropism to columnar epithelium?

116
Q

Abx for Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline, azithromycin

117
Q

MC bacterial cause of STD

A

Chlamydia trochomatis

118
Q

3 serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis and their serotypes

A

Ocular serovar (A~C), Oculogenital serovar (D~K), LGV serovar (L1~3)

119
Q

Pathogen for trochoma

A

Chlamydia trochomatis ocular serovar

120
Q

Which disease does Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1~3 cause?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

121
Q

Pathogen for atypical pneumonia transmitted from birds

A

Chlamydia psittaci

122
Q

Pathogenesis of Rickettsia

A

infect endothelial cells of small blood vessels & capillaries –> vasculitis –> small haemorrhage / thrombi

123
Q

Common presentations of Rickettsia diseases (3)

A

rash + fever + headache

124
Q

Test for Ricketssia using Proteus antigens

A

Weil-Felix test

125
Q

Weil-Felix test result for rocky mountain spotted fever

A

OX-2, OX-19

126
Q

Weil-Felix test result for epidemic typhus or endemic typhus

127
Q

Weil-Felix test result for scrub typhus

128
Q

Serology test for Rickettsia

A

indirect immunofluorescence test

129
Q

Abx for Rickettsia

A

doxycycline

130
Q

Rickettsia epidemic in US

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

131
Q

Pathogen for rocky mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

132
Q

Which vector transmits Rickettsia rickettsii?

133
Q

Rash features of rocky mountain spotted fever

A

starting from wrists, ankles, soles & palms

134
Q

Pathogen for epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

135
Q

Pathogen for Brill-Zinsser disease

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

136
Q

Which vector transmits Rickettsia prowazekii?

137
Q

Rash features of epidemic typhus

A

starting from upper trunk, sparing soles & palms

138
Q

Pathogen for endemic / murine typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

139
Q

Which vector transmits Rickettsia typhi?

140
Q

Rickettsia epidemic in Southeast Asia

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

141
Q

Which vector transmits Orienta tsutsugamushi?

A

larvae of mite

142
Q

Pathogen for scrub typhus

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

143
Q

Pathogen for Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetii

144
Q

Pathogen for atypical pneumonia caused by inhalation of aerosols of animal products

A

Coxiella burnetii

145
Q

Pathogen for culture negative endocarditis

A

Coxiella burnetii

146
Q

Treatment for Helicobacter pylori associated gastritis

A

Triple therapy – Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin + PPI

147
Q

Pathogen with filamentous haemagglutinin (FHA)

A

Bordetella pertussis

148
Q

Pathogen with tracheal cytotoxin

A

Bordetella pertussis

149
Q

Virulence factors for Vibrio cholerae (4)

A
  1. H antigen (motile)
  2. Mucinase (digesting mucous layer)
  3. Fimbriae (for attachment)
  4. Cholera toxin
150
Q

Pathogen producing mucinase

A

Vibrio cholerae

151
Q

Pathogen with M protein (function)

A

Streptococcus pyogenes
Inhibit complement activation to avoid phagocytosis

152
Q

Pathogen with streptolysin O (function)

A

Streptococcus pyogenes
Destroy red and white cells

153
Q

Pathogen with listeriolysin O (function)

A

Listeria monocytogenus
Escape from phagolysosomes of macrophages

154
Q

Pathogen with Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

155
Q

Pathogen with elastase

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

156
Q

Pathogen with pneumolysin

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

157
Q

Examples of bacteria with pili / fimbriae (4)

A

Neisseria spp., Escherichia coli, Vibrio cholerae, Bordetella pertussis…

158
Q

Examples of pathogens with capsule (6)

A

(some killers have pretty nice capsules)

Strep. pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Neisseria meningitidis
Cryptococcus neoformans

159
Q

Bacteria that can form endospore (2)

A

Bacillus, Clostridium

160
Q

Bacteria that produce biofilm

A

S. epidermidis

161
Q

Facultative intracellular parasites (6)

A

GP: Listeria monocytogenes,
GN: Salmonella typhi, Yersinia, Legionella, Brucella
Atypical: Mycobacterium

162
Q

What does sorbitol MacConkey agar differentiate? (Colour)

A

Yellow: non-fermenter => EHEC
Red: fermenter => other E. coli

163
Q

Antibiotics for Legionella pneumophila

A

Levofloxacin + Azithromycin

(L egionell A)

164
Q

Treatment for Q fever (What if there is endocarditis?)

A

Doxycycline
[endocarditis] Doxycycline + Hydroxychloroquine for 18w

164
Q

Diagnosis of Q fever

A

serology (IgG)

165
Q

Which family of bacteria has an additional outer membrane (so is called “stealth” organisms) and has an endo-flagella / periplasmic flagella for movement?

A

Spirochetes

166
Q

Pathogen for Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

167
Q

Pathogen for erythema chronicum migrans

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

168
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of Lyme disease

A

Serology (IgM)
Doxycycline, Amoxicillin

169
Q

Which pathogen is commonly transmitted by urine of infected animals like rodents?

A

Leptospira interrogans

170
Q

Which pathogen is participants of “adventure racing” and kayaking susceptible from?

A

Leptospira interrogans

171
Q

Pathogen of Weil’s disease (What is it?)

A

Leptospira interrogans
(icteric leptospirosis)

172
Q

2 phases of leptospirosis

A
  1. Acute / leptospiraemia phase
  2. Immune / leptospiuric phase
173
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of leptospirosis

A

Dx: Leptospiral microscopic agglutination test (LMAT)
Tx: Penicillin G, doxycycline

174
Q

Prevention of leptospirosis (3)

A

vaccination of livestocks
↓ exposure
rodent control

175
Q

Pathogen with “fried egg” colonies

A

Mycoplasma spp.

176
Q

Which non-motile bacterial family has a cell wall with high lipid content?

A

Mycobacterium

177
Q

Ziehl & Neelsen stain preparation procedure (5)

A
  1. Heat fixation
  2. Add carbol-fuchsin
  3. Heat
  4. Add acid-alcohol (dissolve other bacteria)
  5. Add malachite green (counter stain)
178
Q

Cultures for mycobacterium (time)

A

Solid: Lowenstein-Jensen medium
Liquid: broth

179
Q

Transmission of leprosy (2)

A

respiratory, direct contact

180
Q

Presentations of leprosy (2)

A

Lepromatous leprosy, Tuberculoid leprosy

181
Q

Pathogen of leprosy

A

Mycobacterium leprae

182
Q

Classificaiton of non-tuberculous mycobacterium (Name, 4 types)

A

Runyon classification
I. Photochromogens
II. Scotochromogens
III. Non-chromogens
IV: Rapid growers

183
Q

Examples of rapid growers in mycobacteria (3)

A

M. fortuitum, M. abscessus, M. chelonae

184
Q

Examples of slow growers in non-tuberculous mycobacteria (4)

A

M. avium complex, M. kansaii, M. marinum, M. ulcerans

185
Q

Pathogen for fish tank granuloma

A

M. marinum

186
Q

Pathogen for Buruli ulcer

A

M. ulcerans

187
Q

Species of Brucella (3)

A

B. melitensis, B. abortus, B. suis

188
Q

Pathogens transmitted by flea (2)

A

Yersinia pestis, Rickettsia typhi

189
Q

Functions of Clostridium difficile toxins A and B

A

A: attract neutrophils and monocytes
B: degrade epithelial cells

190
Q

Potential bioweapons (5)

A

anthrax, plaque, botulism, viral haemorrhagic fevers, tularemia 兔熱

191
Q

Lancet-shaped diplococci

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

192
Q

Potassium tellurite agar / Albert stain

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

193
Q

Antibiotics for Bacillus anthracis

A

Ciprofloxacin, Doxycycline

194
Q

How to differentiate between CNSS?

A

S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus
Novobiocin susceptibility: (S; R)
Mannitol fermentation: (-; +)

195
Q

How to differentiate between beta-hemolytic Streptococcus?

A

Strep. pyogenes, Strep. agalactiae
Bacitracin susceptibility: (S; R)

196
Q

How to differentiate between alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus?

A

Strep. pneumoniae, Strep. viridans
Optochin susceptibility: (S; R)

197
Q

Which enterococcus spp. is resistant to both vancomycin and teicoplanin?

A

Enterococcus faecium

198
Q

NTM that cause ulcers (4)

A

M. marinum, M. ulcerans, M. fortuitum, M. abscessus

199
Q

NTM that cause pulmonary disease (3)

A

M. avium complex, M. kansasii, M. abscessus

200
Q

NTM that cause disseminated disease in immunocompromised

A

M. chelonae

201
Q

How to confirm Enterococcus?

A

Aesculin hydrolysis test (+ve: from brown to black)

202
Q

Alternative of coagulase test

A

DNase test

203
Q

Chinese character like on Gram stain

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

204
Q

Special test for Corynebacterium diphtheriae

205
Q

Special test for Clostridium perfringens

A

Nagler test

MED4 MIC (8 decks)

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