PassMedicine Flashcards

1
Q

what is used to treat malaria

A

quinine

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2
Q

what are features of primary TB and post-primary TB

A

primary TB - asymptomatic

post primary TB - symptomatic

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3
Q

what causes cholera

A

vibrio cholerae

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4
Q

what is characteristic of cholera

A

water diarrhoea

‘rice water stools’

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5
Q

what is a common contagious cause of childhood diarrhoea

A

rotavirus

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6
Q

what is used to treat shingles

A

acyclovir

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7
Q

what are features of n gonorrhoea infection

A

purulent urethral discharge which is yellow coloured

dysuria

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8
Q

what are features of chlamydia

A

dysuria

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9
Q

what distinguishes n gonorrhoea and chlamydia

A

n gonorrhoea has yellow purulent discharge

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10
Q

what is the first line treatment for bacterial meningitis

A

1.2g IM benzylpeniciillin

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11
Q

what stain is diagnostic of TB

A

ziehl nelson staining

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12
Q

what are the most common causes of bacterial meningitis

A

strep pneumoniae

n meningitidis

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13
Q

what distinguishes bacterial and viral meningitis

A

bacterial has a rash

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14
Q

what is a common cause of neonatal meningitis

A

listerial monocytogenes

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15
Q

what causes lockjaw

A

tetanus with c tetani

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16
Q

what causes scabies

A

sarcoptes scabiae

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17
Q

how does scabies present

A

itchy papular rash

found in web spaces between fingers and palms of hand

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18
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in children

A

h influenzae

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19
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults

A

n gonorrhoea

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20
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in older adults

A

s aureus

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21
Q

what is seen on CT head with toxoplasmosis

A

ring enhancing lesions

22
Q

how does candida albicans present

A

HIV patients

colonises in the oesophagus causing dysphagia and retrosternal discomfort

23
Q

what is the most common complaint with PE

24
Q

when and why does pleuritic chest pain present with PE

A

PE causes pulmonary infarction which leads to gradual onset of pleuritic chest pain

25
what condition is terlipressin used in
varices to lower BP
26
what condition is omeprazole used in
PUD to lower risk of rebleeding
27
what % of SAHs are excluded with CT scan
90
28
when should LPs be taken with SAH
>12hours after presentation to allow for appearance of bilirubin in CSF (yellow)
29
what is rare in TIA
LOC
30
what is the treatment of choice for a VT with haemodynamic compromise
DC cardioversion
31
when is DC cardioversion used in AF
after 4wks of anticoagulation unless patient is haemodynamically compromised or patient clearly presents within 48hrs of onset
32
what is a common precipitant of an acute asthma attack
viral infection (bacteria is rare)
33
when is thrombolysis or PCI given to patients with an MI
if they present within 12hours of the symptoms
34
what might you seen in the palate with infectious mononucleosis
palatal petechiae
35
what test is used to confirm infectious mononucleosis
paul bunnell test (heterophile antibody test for EBV now improves on it)
36
when should rehydration intravenously occur in infection
tachycardia or signs of hypovolaemia
37
what is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis
strep pneumoniae
38
what produces a non-blanching petechial rash in meningitis
neisseria meningitidis
39
what is seen on CT with toxoplasmosis
ring-enhancing lesions
40
what are clue cells associated with
bacterial vaginosis
41
what is a gram negative diplococci
neisseria meningitidis
42
what is used to treat c diff
oral metronidazole
43
what causes retinitis in HIV
CMV
44
what is a auramine phenol stain used to diagnose
TB
45
what are examples of encapsulated organisms
``` Hemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis Group B streptococcus Klebsiella pneumoniae Salmonella ```
46
what infection assocoiated with india can cause liver abscesses
entamoeba histolytica
47
what can be used to treat MRSA
vancomycin | teicoplanin
48
what are gram positive cocci in clusters
staph
49
what are gram positive cocci in chains
strep
50
what is a gram negative bacilli
e coli
51
what is a gram positive cocci which is coagulase positive
s aureus
52
what is a gram positive cocci which is coagulase negative
s epidermidis (urinary problems)