PassMedicine Flashcards
Diarrhoea can cause:
- metabolic alkalosis
- metabolic acidosis
- metabolic acidosis
Vomiting can cause:
- metabolic alkalosis
- metabolic acidosis
- metabolic alkalosis
What finding on a blood test would support a diagnosis of lung cancer?
- raised erythrocytes
- raised platelets
- raised lymphocytes
- raised platelets
What is the most appropriate action to take with regards to antidepressant medication prior to ECT treatment?
- increase the dose
- decrease the dose
- stop the medication
- switch it to a ‘safer’ class
- decrease the dose
Which of the following should be given to all patients with severe or life-threatening asthma?
- broad-spectrum antibiotic
- inhaled corticosteroid
- nebulised ipratropium bromide
- IV magnesium sulfate
- nebulised ipratropium bromide
Which of the following spirometry results is most likely in a patient with pulmonary fibrosis?
- FEV1 = 2.64, FVC = 3.41, TLCO = increased
- FEV1 = 2.64, FVC = 4.19, TLCO = decreased
- FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.11, TLCO = increased
- FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.34, TLCO = decreased
- FEV1 = 4.21, FVC = 5.10, TLCO = normal
- FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.34, TLCO = decreased
(restrictive pattern FEV1: FVS > 70%), impaired gas exchange - reduced TLCO)
What is the strongest risk factor for anal cancer?
= HPV infection
Most common cause of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy?
= tuberculosis (TB)
TB typically causes which of the following on CXR?
- diffuse fibrosis
- isolated lower zone consolidation
- upper zone fibrosis
- lower zone fibrosis
- upper zone fibrosis
What food should be avoided when taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors?
= cheese
(contains tyramine, could cause a hypertensive crisis)
Loperamide act to slow down bowel movements through the stimulation of which receptors?
= opioid receptors
Main ECG abnormality seen with hypercalcaemia
- long QT-interval
- short QT-interval
- large T-waves
- small T-waves
- short QT-interval
What is the mechanism of action of fondaparinux?
- Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor
- Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
- Inhibits antithrombin III
- Inhibits ADP binding to its platelet receptor
- Activates antithrombin III
- Activates antithrombin III
Stable angina: Verapamil + beta-blockers should not be taken together as this risks,
= complete heart block
What is atrial fibrillation?
= condition where the electrical activity in the atria becomes disorganised, leading to fibrillation (random muscle twitching) of the atria and an irregularly irregular pulse
Key finding in AF?
= irregularly irregular pulse
ECG findings in AF (3)
- no p-waves
- narrow QRS complex tachycardia
- irregularly irregular ventricular rhythm
What is paroxysmal AF?
= refers to episodes of AF that reoccur + spontaneously resolve back into sinus rhythm
These episodes can last between 30 seconds + 48 hours
In patients with a normal ECG + suspected paroxysmal AF, what is the next step of investigation?
= 24-hour ambulatory ECG (Holter monitor)
In patients who have a reversible cause for their AF, new onset AF (within the last 48 hours), or HF caused by AF. What is the best first-step?
- rate control
- rhythm control
- rhythm control
What is usually offered first-line for rate control in AF?
= beta-blocker (e.g., Atenolol or Bisoprolol)
Rhythm control options in AF (2)
- cardio version
- long-term rhythm control with drugs
How long after AF presents is immediate cardioversion not advised, and delayed cardioversion is best?
If AF presents > 48 hours + patient stable opt for delayed cardioversion
How long should anticoagulation be given to patient before delayed cardio version?
= at least 3 weeks before
